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2321. Which railway document governs the safe working of trains and is the primary rulebook for signalling and operating staff?
- A. General and Subsidiary Rules
- B. RPF Manual
- C. Railway Board Telephone Directory
- D. Indian Railway Establishment Code
Answer: General and Subsidiary Rules
Explanation: The General and Subsidiary Rules (G&SR) govern signalling and train working and are the core safety rulebook for operating staff.
2322. Which instrument is used to measure atmospheric pressure, important for tracking cyclone formation?
- A. Thermometer
- B. Rain gauge
- C. Barometer
- D. Hygrometer
Answer: Barometer
Explanation: A barometer measures atmospheric pressure; a sharp fall in pressure signals an approaching cyclone.
2323. Which central agency is responsible for flood forecasting on major rivers through its network of forecasting stations?
- A. Central Water Commission
- B. Geological Survey of India
- C. Survey of India
- D. National Hydrology Project office only
Answer: Central Water Commission
Explanation: CWC issues flood forecasts and warnings on rivers through its flood forecasting stations across basins.
2324. Which IMD colour code means 'be prepared' for severe weather?
- A. Green
- B. Orange
- C. Yellow
- D. Red
Answer: Orange
Explanation: Orange alert signals that bad weather is likely to disrupt travel and utilities, so authorities should be prepared.
2325. Which of the following is a 'natural' hazard that can directly damage railway bridges and tracks in the Himalayan foothills?
- A. Landslide
- B. Train collision
- C. Chemical spill
- D. Industrial fire
Answer: Landslide
Explanation: Landslides triggered by rain or earthquakes are natural hazards that block or damage track alignments in hill sections; the others are man-made.
2326. The Indore-Patna Express derailment of 20 November 2016, causing many deaths, occurred near which place in Uttar Pradesh?
- A. Mathura
- B. Prayagraj
- C. Etawah
- D. Pukhrayan (Kanpur Dehat)
Answer: Pukhrayan (Kanpur Dehat)
Explanation: The Indore-Patna Express derailed near Pukhrayan in Kanpur Dehat on 20 November 2016, killing over 140.
2327. Which railway accident in 2002 killed passengers of the Howrah-New Delhi Rajdhani Express when a bridge over the Dhave river collapsed?
- A. Pukhrayan accident
- B. Godhra accident
- C. Rafiganj accident
- D. Sabarmati accident
Answer: Rafiganj accident
Explanation: On 9 September 2002, the Rajdhani Express derailed at Rafiganj, Bihar, when it fell off a bridge over the Dhawe river.
2328. The 2001 Bhuj earthquake occurred on which date and what national occasion coincided?
- A. 2 October 2001, Gandhi Jayanti
- B. 26 January 2001, Republic Day
- C. 1 May 2001, Labour Day
- D. 15 August 2001, Independence Day
Answer: 26 January 2001, Republic Day
Explanation: The Bhuj earthquake struck on the morning of 26 January 2001, Republic Day, with magnitude about 7.7.
2329. Which Indian State was first to set up a dedicated State Disaster Management Authority, following the 1999 Odisha super cyclone?
- A. Gujarat
- B. Andhra Pradesh
- C. Tamil Nadu
- D. Odisha
Answer: Odisha
Explanation: The Odisha State Disaster Management Authority (OSDMA), formed in 1999 after the super cyclone, was among the earliest dedicated State bodies; Gujarat's GSDMA followed after the 2001 Bhuj earthquake.
2330. Which NDMA guideline, released in 2010, focuses on managing flooding in cities?
- A. Management of Drought
- B. Management of Urban Flooding
- C. Management of Heat Wave
- D. Management of Landslides
Answer: Management of Urban Flooding
Explanation: NDMA's Management of Urban Flooding guidelines were issued in 2010, stressing drainage, early warning and institutional responsibility.
2331. Which NDMA-related document guides the 'Hospital Safety' of buildings, issued in 2016?
- A. Seismic Zoning Map
- B. Guidelines on Medical Preparedness only
- C. National Disaster Management Guidelines: Hospital Safety
- D. National Building Code
Answer: National Disaster Management Guidelines: Hospital Safety
Explanation: NDMA issued the Hospital Safety guidelines in 2016 to make hospitals structurally, non-structurally and functionally safe in disasters.
2332. A Glacial Lake Outburst Flood (GLOF) is triggered by:
- A. Prolonged drought
- B. Tsunami
- C. Wind erosion
- D. Sudden failure of a natural dam holding a glacial lake
Answer: Sudden failure of a natural dam holding a glacial lake
Explanation: GLOFs occur when moraine or ice dams holding glacial lakes fail, releasing large volumes of water downstream, as in Himalayan floods.
2333. What does a 'flash flood' generally denote?
- A. Rapid onset flooding within hours of intense rainfall or a breach
- B. Drought-end flooding
- C. Coastal spring tide
- D. Seasonal river overflow over weeks
Answer: Rapid onset flooding within hours of intense rainfall or a breach
Explanation: Flash floods develop rapidly, typically within six hours of intense rain or a dam/glacial lake breach, giving little warning time.
2334. A storm surge is best described as:
- A. A river flood from dam release
- B. A tsunami caused by earthquake
- C. Abnormal rise of sea level driven by cyclonic winds and low pressure
- D. A tide caused by the moon alone
Answer: Abnormal rise of sea level driven by cyclonic winds and low pressure
Explanation: A storm surge is a rise in sea level over the normal tide due to wind stress and low pressure of a cyclone, the main killer in coastal cyclones.
2335. The Super Cyclone that hit Odisha on 29 October 1999 made landfall near which place?
- A. Digha
- B. Puri
- C. Visakhapatnam
- D. Paradip
Answer: Paradip
Explanation: The 1999 Odisha Super Cyclone made landfall near Paradip, killing about 10,000 people and triggering creation of OSDMA.
2336. Which category of cyclone in IMD classification has maximum sustained winds of 62-88 km/h?
- A. Depression
- B. Severe Cyclonic Storm
- C. Deep Depression
- D. Cyclonic Storm
Answer: Cyclonic Storm
Explanation: IMD defines Cyclonic Storm as sustained winds of 62-88 km/h; Severe Cyclonic Storm is 89-117 km/h; Depression is 31-49 km/h.
2337. The Beaufort scale is used for what purpose in weather and disaster warnings?
- A. Measuring earthquake depth
- B. Measuring flood discharge
- C. Estimating wind force from observed effects
- D. Measuring snow depth
Answer: Estimating wind force from observed effects
Explanation: The Beaufort scale classifies wind force from 0 (calm) to 12 (hurricane) based on observed effects on land and sea.
2338. What is the focus (hypocentre) of an earthquake?
- A. The point on the surface directly above the origin
- B. The farthest point felt
- C. The point within the earth where rupture originates
- D. The point of maximum intensity on land
Answer: The point within the earth where rupture originates
Explanation: The focus is the underground point where rupture begins; the epicentre is the point on the surface directly above it.
2339. Which instrument records ground motion during an earthquake?
- A. Hygrometer
- B. Anemometer
- C. Barograph
- D. Seismograph
Answer: Seismograph
Explanation: A seismograph records seismic waves; anemometers measure wind speed, hygrometers humidity and barographs pressure.
2340. The 1950 Assam-Tibet earthquake, one of the largest recorded on land, had an estimated magnitude of about?
- A. 8.6
- B. 6.0
- C. 7.0
- D. 9.5
Answer: 8.6
Explanation: The 15 August 1950 Assam-Tibet earthquake had an estimated magnitude of about 8.6 (Mw) and was among the largest continental earthquakes.
2341. The Kerala floods that led to a large NDRF, Navy and Army rescue effort occurred in which month and year?
- A. August 2018
- B. June 2013
- C. October 2020
- D. March 2019
Answer: August 2018
Explanation: The August 2018 Kerala floods were the worst in nearly a century in the State, causing over 400 deaths.
2342. The Chennai floods that submerged the airport and many rail operations occurred in which period?
- A. July 2008
- B. January 2018
- C. November-December 2015
- D. September 2012
Answer: November-December 2015
Explanation: The Chennai floods of November-December 2015, driven by exceptional northeast monsoon rain, submerged the airport and disrupted road and rail.
2343. Which Indian city was affected by the severe floods of 26 July 2005, when more than 900 mm of rainfall fell in 24 hours?
- A. Mumbai
- B. Kolkata
- C. Chennai
- D. Hyderabad
Answer: Mumbai
Explanation: The 26 July 2005 Mumbai floods, with about 944 mm rain in 24 hours at Santacruz, paralysed the suburban rail network and highlighted urban flood preparedness.
2344. The High Powered Committee on Disaster Management (HPC) was constituted in August 1999 under the chairmanship of?
- A. Anil Kakodkar
- B. J. C. Pant
- C. Dr. Manmohan Singh
- D. T. N. Seshan
Answer: J. C. Pant
Explanation: The HPC chaired by J. C. Pant, formed after the 1999 Odisha super cyclone, produced the first comprehensive disaster management plans and recommendations.
2345. The National Institute of Disaster Management (NIDM), a statutory body under Section 42 of the DM Act 2005, is headquartered at?
- A. Gandhinagar
- B. New Delhi
- C. Bhopal
- D. Mumbai
Answer: New Delhi
Explanation: NIDM is headquartered in New Delhi and works on training, research, documentation and capacity building in disaster management.
2346. Which of the following is the correct sequence of the disaster management cycle phases after an event occurs?
- A. Recovery, mitigation, response, preparedness
- B. Response, recovery, mitigation, preparedness
- C. Preparedness, mitigation, recovery, response
- D. Mitigation, response, recovery, preparedness
Answer: Response, recovery, mitigation, preparedness
Explanation: After a disaster, the cycle proceeds from response to recovery, then mitigation and preparedness for the next event.
2347. Which sensor type installed at railway locations in earthquake-prone areas helps automatically stop trains on detection of tremors?
- A. Hot box detectors
- B. Rain gauges
- C. Seismic sensors in an early warning system
- D. Axle counters
Answer: Seismic sensors in an early warning system
Explanation: Seismic-sensor based early warning detects P-waves and triggers signals so that approaching trains can be halted before damaging S-waves arrive.
2348. Which centre under the Ministry of Earth Sciences provides tsunami and ocean-state advisories from Hyderabad?
- A. IITM
- B. INCOIS
- C. NIOT
- D. NCMRWF
Answer: INCOIS
Explanation: INCOIS (Indian National Centre for Ocean Information Services), Hyderabad, hosts the Indian Tsunami Early Warning Centre.
2349. Which Indian authority issues cyclone warnings and has a four-stage warning system: pre-cyclone watch, cyclone alert, cyclone warning and post-landfall outlook?
- A. Central Water Commission
- B. India Meteorological Department
- C. Geological Survey of India
- D. INCOIS
Answer: India Meteorological Department
Explanation: IMD issues cyclone warnings through a four-stage system: Pre-Cyclone Watch, Cyclone Alert, Cyclone Warning and Post-Landfall Outlook.
2350. A START triage victim breathing more than 30 breaths per minute is tagged as which category?
- A. Red (Immediate)
- B. Yellow (Delayed)
- C. Green (Minor)
- D. Black (Deceased)
Answer: Red (Immediate)
Explanation: In START, a respiratory rate over 30 per minute, absent radial pulse/capillary refill over 2 seconds, or inability to follow commands makes the victim Red.
2351. In START triage, which colour tag is given to a victim who is not breathing even after the airway is repositioned?
- A. Black
- B. Green
- C. Red
- D. Yellow
Answer: Black
Explanation: Black (expectant/deceased) is assigned when there is no respiration after airway repositioning; red is immediate, yellow delayed and green minor.
2352. The 'Golden Hour' principle in trauma care emphasises the importance of definitive medical care within roughly how long after injury?
- A. Within six hours
- B. Within twelve hours
- C. Within one hour
- D. Within one day
Answer: Within one hour
Explanation: The Golden Hour principle holds that survival chances are highest when trauma victims receive definitive care within the first hour after injury.
2353. Which of the following is a primary objective of a 'Cordon' created by RPF at a railway disaster site?
- A. To park private vehicles
- B. To collect ticket fares
- C. To display advertisements
- D. Controlled access to keep rescuers moving and preserve evidence
Answer: Controlled access to keep rescuers moving and preserve evidence
Explanation: Cordoning controls access, keeps approach routes open for rescue vehicles, manages onlookers and preserves the scene for inquiry.
2354. What is the typical function of a 'Staging Area' set up near a railway accident site under IRS?
- A. Press briefing hall
- B. Permanent camp for victims
- C. Burial ground for the deceased
- D. Temporary holding point for resources awaiting assignment
Answer: Temporary holding point for resources awaiting assignment
Explanation: A Staging Area is a temporary location where resources are held, checked in and kept ready for assignment by Operations.
2355. In the IRS, which section is responsible for tracking costs, claims, time recording and procurement during an incident?
- A. Operations Section
- B. Logistics Section
- C. Finance and Administration Section
- D. Planning Section
Answer: Finance and Administration Section
Explanation: The Finance and Administration Section handles cost accounting, procurement, compensation and claims, and time recording.
2356. In IRS, which general staff section is responsible for providing facilities, services, materials, manpower, transport and food to support the response?
- A. Planning Section
- B. Logistics Section
- C. Finance and Administration Section
- D. Operations Section
Answer: Logistics Section
Explanation: The Logistics Section provides facilities, services, materials, communications, transport and food needed to support the incident response.
2357. In the Incident Response System, who is the head of the Incident Response Team at the district level, as the Responsible Officer's nominee?
- A. Incident Commander
- B. Safety Officer
- C. Liaison Officer
- D. Finance Chief
Answer: Incident Commander
Explanation: The Responsible Officer (e.g., the DM) nominates an Incident Commander who heads the Incident Response Team and has overall command at the incident site.
2358. According to NDMA's crowd management guidelines, which of the following is a core principle for preventing stampedes at stations?
- A. Locking all gates during peak hours
- B. Allowing unrestricted platform tickets
- C. Regulating crowd density and flow with separate entry and exit routes
- D. Stopping all announcements
Answer: Regulating crowd density and flow with separate entry and exit routes
Explanation: Crowd management relies on controlling density, one-way flow, segregated entry/exit, queue management and clear public address, not blocking exits.
2359. The 2017 Elphinstone Road (Mumbai) stampede, which killed 23 persons, took place at which type of railway infrastructure?
- A. A goods yard
- B. A narrow foot overbridge
- C. A level crossing
- D. A locomotive shed
Answer: A narrow foot overbridge
Explanation: On 29 September 2017, a stampede on the narrow foot overbridge linking Elphinstone Road and Parel stations during heavy rain killed 23.
2360. The Amritsar rail accident of 19 October 2018 occurred when a crowd watching what event was run over?
- A. A wedding procession
- B. Ravana effigy burning at Dussehra
- C. A cricket match
- D. A religious fair at a river ghat
Answer: Ravana effigy burning at Dussehra
Explanation: At Joda Phatak, spectators standing on the tracks during the Dussehra Ravana-dahan were struck by a train; around 60 died.
2361. Which Indian rail disaster of 26 November 1998 involved the Jammu Tawi-Sealdah Express colliding with derailed coaches of the Golden Temple Mail near Khanna?
- A. Gaisal disaster
- B. Firozabad disaster
- C. Rafiganj disaster
- D. Khanna rail disaster
Answer: Khanna rail disaster
Explanation: The Khanna rail disaster (Punjab) on 26 November 1998 killed over 200; the Frontier/Golden Temple Mail derailed and was hit by the Sealdah Express.
2362. Where is the Research Designs and Standards Organisation (RDSO), which develops railway safety technology, headquartered?
- A. Kolkata
- B. Chennai
- C. Lucknow
- D. Pune
Answer: Lucknow
Explanation: RDSO, the R&D and standards body of Indian Railways, is located at Manak Nagar, Lucknow.
2363. Which indigenous Automatic Train Protection system developed by RDSO with Indian industry is branded 'Kavach'?
- A. Automatic Train Protection
- B. Centralised Traffic Control
- C. Train Protection and Warning System
- D. Block Proving by Axle Counter
Answer: Automatic Train Protection
Explanation: Kavach is an indigenous Automatic Train Protection system that helps prevent signal passing at danger and train collisions by automatically applying brakes.
2364. The Commissioner of Railway Safety (CRS) functions under which ministry?
- A. Ministry of Civil Aviation
- B. Ministry of Home Affairs
- C. Ministry of Road Transport and Highways
- D. Ministry of Railways
Answer: Ministry of Civil Aviation
Explanation: The CRS organisation is under the Ministry of Civil Aviation so that railway safety oversight remains independent of the operating Railway Board.
2365. Which tribunal adjudicates claims for compensation arising from railway accidents and untoward incidents?
- A. Railway Claims Tribunal
- B. Armed Forces Tribunal
- C. Central Administrative Tribunal
- D. National Green Tribunal
Answer: Railway Claims Tribunal
Explanation: The Railway Claims Tribunal, constituted under the Railway Claims Tribunal Act 1987, decides compensation claims under the Railways Act for accidents and untoward incidents.
2366. Under the Railways Act 1989, Section 124A deals with compensation on which ground?
- A. Ticketless travel fines
- B. Loss of luggage
- C. Delay in parcel delivery
- D. Untoward incidents
Answer: Untoward incidents
Explanation: Section 124 covers compensation for accidents (train collisions, derailments etc.) and Section 124A for untoward incidents; both operate on a no-fault liability basis.
2367. Under Section 123 of the Railways Act 1989, which of the following is included in the definition of an 'untoward incident'?
- A. Change of platform
- B. Cancellation of a ticket
- C. Late running of a train
- D. A terrorist act or violent attack on a passenger
Answer: A terrorist act or violent attack on a passenger
Explanation: Section 123(c) lists untoward incidents such as a terrorist act, violent attack, robbery, dacoity, rioting, shoot-out, and accidental falling of a passenger from a train.
2368. The 2010 Jnaneswari Express disaster in West Bengal, where coaches were hit by a goods train after derailment, was attributed to what cause?
- A. Bridge collapse
- B. Level crossing collision
- C. Signal passed at danger
- D. Sabotage of the track
Answer: Sabotage of the track
Explanation: The 28 May 2010 Jnaneswari Express accident near Khemasuli was attributed to sabotage of the track, after which a goods train collided with the derailed coaches.
2369. The Island Express accident of 8 July 1988, where coaches plunged into a water body, occurred at which place in Kerala?
- A. Kozhikode
- B. Alappuzha backwaters
- C. Perumon over Ashtamudi Lake
- D. Palakkad Gap
Answer: Perumon over Ashtamudi Lake
Explanation: The Island Express derailed on the Perumon bridge and fell into Ashtamudi Lake near Kollam on 8 July 1988.
2370. Which railway accident of 6 June 1981, in which a passenger train fell into the Bagmati river in Bihar, is considered India's deadliest rail disaster by estimated toll?
- A. Perumon accident
- B. Rafiganj accident
- C. Bagmati river train accident
- D. Khanna accident
Answer: Bagmati river train accident
Explanation: The 1981 Bihar train disaster near Bagmati river (Mansi-Saharsa line) is widely regarded as India's worst rail accident by estimated casualties.
2371. Which of the following is a time-based stage that the NDMP 2016 uses to organise activities across prevention, mitigation, response and recovery?
- A. Budget cycle
- B. Five-year plan cycle
- C. Census cycle
- D. Disaster management cycle
Answer: Disaster management cycle
Explanation: The NDMP organises its content around the disaster management cycle: prevention, mitigation, preparedness, response, recovery and reconstruction.
2372. Under the NDMP 2016, the first national plan for disaster management in India, which global framework was it explicitly aligned with?
- A. Sendai Framework
- B. Paris Agreement
- C. Hyogo Framework
- D. Kyoto Protocol
Answer: Sendai Framework
Explanation: NDMP 2016, released in June 2016, was framed in alignment with the Sendai Framework for Disaster Risk Reduction 2015-2030.
2373. The Sendai Framework 2015-2030 succeeded which earlier global framework, adopted at Kobe in 2005?
- A. Hague Declaration
- B. Yokohama Strategy
- C. Hyogo Framework for Action
- D. Rio Declaration
Answer: Hyogo Framework for Action
Explanation: The Hyogo Framework for Action 2005-2015 was adopted at the World Conference on Disaster Reduction in Kobe, Hyogo, Japan; Sendai replaced it.
2374. Which Sendai Framework target specifically seeks to substantially reduce direct disaster economic loss in relation to global GDP by 2030?
- A. Target (f)
- B. Target (b)
- C. Target (c)
- D. Target (a)
Answer: Target (c)
Explanation: Target (c) addresses direct economic loss relative to GDP; (a) is mortality, (b) affected persons, (f) international cooperation.
2375. Which Sendai Framework priority for action is titled 'Enhancing disaster preparedness for effective response and to Build Back Better in recovery, rehabilitation and reconstruction'?
- A. Priority 2
- B. Priority 3
- C. Priority 4
- D. Priority 1
Answer: Priority 4
Explanation: Priority 4 of Sendai is enhancing preparedness for effective response and Building Back Better; Priority 1 is understanding risk, 2 governance, 3 investment in resilience.
2376. Which unified emergency number for police, fire and ambulance (ERSS) was rolled out across India from 2019?
- A. 112
- B. 108
- C. 100
- D. 101
Answer: 112
Explanation: 112 is the single pan-India emergency response number under the Emergency Response Support System, replacing separate numbers like 100, 101 and 108.
2377. Which toll-free numbers are, respectively, the State control room, District control room and national disaster helpline numbers commonly publicised in India?
- A. 108, 102, 100
- B. 1090, 1091, 1098
- C. 1072, 1075, 1076
- D. 1070, 1077, 1078
Answer: 1070, 1077, 1078
Explanation: 1070 is the State disaster control room, 1077 the District control room and 1078 the national (NDMA) control room number.
2378. The National Disaster Response Force Academy, a training institution for NDRF and State responders, is located at which place?
- A. Hyderabad
- B. Dehradun
- C. Nagpur
- D. Pune
Answer: Nagpur
Explanation: The NDRF Academy is at Nagpur (Maharashtra), set up to train NDRF personnel and State and other responders in multi-hazard response.
2379. Which central force was NOT among those from which the initial eight NDRF battalions of 2006 were drawn?
- A. Sashastra Seema Bal
- B. CISF
- C. BSF
- D. CRPF
Answer: Sashastra Seema Bal
Explanation: The first eight battalions in 2006 were two each from BSF, CRPF, CISF and ITBP; SSB battalions were added later as the force expanded.
2380. Which Indian fund-sharing ratio applies for SDRF contributions from the Centre to a general-category State under the Fifteenth Finance Commission cycle?
- A. 90:10
- B. 75:25
- C. 100:0
- D. 50:50
Answer: 75:25
Explanation: The Centre contributes 75% of SDRF allocation to general-category States and 90% to the north-eastern and Himalayan States.
2381. Section 72 of the DM Act 2005 gives the Act an overriding effect over inconsistent laws. Which wording describes the override accurately?
- A. It prevails only over State laws
- B. It prevails over any other law for the time being in force to the extent of inconsistency
- C. It prevails only over railway rules
- D. It prevails only over the Constitution's Seventh Schedule
Answer: It prevails over any other law for the time being in force to the extent of inconsistency
Explanation: Section 72 provides that the Act prevails over anything inconsistent in any other law for the time being in force, to the extent of the inconsistency.
2382. Under Section 67 of the DM Act 2005, the persons targeted by a direction from the Government are those in control of which of the following?
- A. Private security agencies
- B. Audio and audio-visual media or means of communication
- C. Railway signalling networks
- D. Cooperative banks
Answer: Audio and audio-visual media or means of communication
Explanation: Section 67 lets the Government direct persons in control of audio or audio-visual media to carry warnings or advisories about a threatening disaster, on the recommendation of the National, State or District Authority.
2383. A relief officer refuses to issue ration to affected families of one caste at a railway disaster camp. Which section of the DM Act 2005 is breached?
- A. Section 41
- B. Section 65
- C. Section 61
- D. Section 71
Answer: Section 61
Explanation: Section 61 bars discrimination on grounds of sex, caste, community, descent or religion in providing compensation and relief to disaster-affected persons.
2384. Which of the following is NOT a prohibited ground of discrimination under Section 61 of the DM Act 2005 while providing compensation and relief?
- A. Caste
- B. Sex
- C. Place of residence being rural or urban
- D. Religion
Answer: Place of residence being rural or urban
Explanation: Section 61 lists sex, caste, community, descent and religion; rural or urban residence is not a listed ground.
2385. A person submits a fabricated list of damaged houses to claim compensation after a flood. Under which section of the DM Act 2005 is this punishable?
- A. Section 58
- B. Section 52
- C. Section 54
- D. Section 56
Answer: Section 52
Explanation: Section 52 punishes a knowingly false claim for obtaining relief, assistance, repair, reconstruction or other benefits, with up to two years' imprisonment and fine.
2386. A contractor diverts cement meant for rebuilding a washed-out railway embankment under a relief scheme. Which section of the DM Act 2005 is attracted?
- A. Section 56
- B. Section 51
- C. Section 53
- D. Section 55
Answer: Section 53
Explanation: Section 53 covers misappropriation of money or materials given for disaster relief, prevention or mitigation, punishable with up to two years' imprisonment and fine.
2387. An RPF Inspector deliberately spreads a rumour that a bridge on a rail section has collapsed, causing panic. Which DM Act 2005 provision directly penalises false alarm about a disaster?
- A. Section 57
- B. Section 54
- C. Section 52
- D. Section 53
Answer: Section 54
Explanation: Section 54 punishes whoever makes or circulates a false alarm or warning as to disaster or its severity or magnitude, leading to panic, with imprisonment up to one year or fine.
2388. In a rural district, who is the Co-Chairperson of the District Disaster Management Authority under the DM Act 2005?
- A. Member of the Lok Sabha from the district
- B. Sub-Divisional Magistrate
- C. Block Development Officer
- D. Chairperson of the Zila Parishad
Answer: Chairperson of the Zila Parishad
Explanation: Under Section 25(2)(b), the elected representative of the local authority, in rural areas the Zila Parishad Chairperson, is the Co-Chairperson; in tribal areas the Chief Executive Member of the District Council holds that role.
2389. Under Section 25 of the DM Act 2005, who is the ex officio Chairperson of the District Disaster Management Authority?
- A. Chairperson of the Zila Parishad
- B. The Collector/District Magistrate/Deputy Commissioner
- C. Superintendent of Police
- D. Chief Medical Officer
Answer: The Collector/District Magistrate/Deputy Commissioner
Explanation: Section 25(2) makes the Collector, District Magistrate or Deputy Commissioner the Chairperson, with the elected representative of the local authority as Co-Chairperson.
2390. The Integrated Disease Surveillance Programme (IDSP), India's system for detecting outbreaks early, is coordinated by which body?
- A. Indian Council of Medical Research
- B. National Institute of Disaster Management
- C. National Centre for Disease Control
- D. AIIMS Delhi
Answer: National Centre for Disease Control
Explanation: IDSP, launched in 2004, is run by the NCDC under the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare, with state and district surveillance units for outbreak detection.
2391. Which statute dating to the plague outbreak in Bombay governs epidemic containment measures in India and was invoked alongside the DM Act during COVID-19?
- A. Epidemic Diseases Act, 1897
- B. Quarantine Act, 1920
- C. Indian Penal Code, 1860
- D. Public Health Act, 1919
Answer: Epidemic Diseases Act, 1897
Explanation: The Epidemic Diseases Act 1897, enacted during the Bombay plague, empowers governments to take special measures; in 2020 it was amended to protect healthcare workers from violence.
2392. On the International Nuclear and Radiological Event Scale (INES), which two accidents are rated at the maximum level 7?
- A. Kyshtym (1957) and Fukushima Daiichi (2011)
- B. Windscale (1957) and Chernobyl (1986)
- C. Chernobyl (1986) and Fukushima Daiichi (2011)
- D. Three Mile Island (1979) and Chernobyl (1986)
Answer: Chernobyl (1986) and Fukushima Daiichi (2011)
Explanation: INES runs from level 0 to 7; Chernobyl and Fukushima Daiichi are rated 7, while Three Mile Island is rated 5.
2393. Which law, enacted in 1991, makes compensation available to victims of accidents involving hazardous substances through mandatory insurance by the handler?
- A. Bhopal Gas Leak Disaster (Processing of Claims) Act, 1985
- B. Environment (Protection) Act, 1986
- C. Factories Act, 1948
- D. Public Liability Insurance Act, 1991
Answer: Public Liability Insurance Act, 1991
Explanation: The Public Liability Insurance Act 1991 requires owners handling hazardous substances to take insurance and create an Environmental Relief Fund for no-fault relief to victims.
2394. Which gas leaked in the Bhopal gas tragedy of 1984?
- A. Ammonia
- B. Methyl isocyanate
- C. Styrene
- D. Chlorine
Answer: Methyl isocyanate
Explanation: The leak at Union Carbide India Limited's pesticide plant was of methyl isocyanate (MIC); the 2020 Visakhapatnam LG Polymers incident involved styrene vapour.
2395. The Bhopal gas tragedy occurred on the night of which dates?
- A. 26-27 April 1986
- B. 20-21 August 1995
- C. 1-2 December 1989
- D. 2-3 December 1984
Answer: 2-3 December 1984
Explanation: Methyl isocyanate leaked from the Union Carbide pesticide plant at Bhopal on the night of 2-3 December 1984; Chernobyl was on 26 April 1986.
2396. The Odisha State Disaster Management Authority, an early state-level institution of its kind in India, was established after which event?
- A. The 2001 Bhuj earthquake
- B. The 2004 tsunami
- C. The October 1999 Super Cyclone
- D. The 2013 Phailin cyclone
Answer: The October 1999 Super Cyclone
Explanation: OSDMA was set up in 1999 after the super cyclone that killed about 10,000 people; the Gujarat SDMA followed the 2001 Bhuj earthquake, both well before the national Act of 2005.
2397. Approximately how long is India's coastline stretch considered vulnerable to cyclones and tsunamis in NDMA documents, out of 7,516 km?
- A. About 1,000 km
- B. About 5,700 km
- C. About 2,000 km
- D. About 7,000 km
Answer: About 5,700 km
Explanation: NDMA notes that around 5,700 km of the 7,516 km coastline is prone to cyclones and tsunami, and the east coast is hit more frequently than the west coast.
2398. Which statement correctly describes IMD's cold wave criterion for the plains?
- A. Maximum temperature below 20 degrees Celsius only
- B. Minimum temperature of 15 degrees Celsius with a departure of 1 degree
- C. Minimum temperature of 0 degrees Celsius only
- D. Minimum temperature of 10 degrees Celsius or below with a departure of 4.5 to 6.4 degrees below normal
Answer: Minimum temperature of 10 degrees Celsius or below with a departure of 4.5 to 6.4 degrees below normal
Explanation: For the plains the minimum temperature must be 10 C or less and 4.5-6.4 C below normal (severe if below -6.4 C); a minimum of 4 C or less qualifies irrespective of departure.
2399. According to IMD criteria, a heat wave is declared over the plains when the maximum temperature reaches at least:
- A. 40 degrees Celsius with a departure of 4.5 to 6.4 degrees above normal
- B. 35 degrees Celsius with a departure of 2 degrees
- C. 38 degrees Celsius with a departure of 3 degrees
- D. 42 degrees Celsius regardless of departure
Answer: 40 degrees Celsius with a departure of 4.5 to 6.4 degrees above normal
Explanation: For plains, heat wave needs max temperature of at least 40 C and departure of 4.5-6.4 C from normal (severe if above 6.4 C); an actual max of 45 C or more also qualifies, and 47 C or more is a severe heat wave.
2400. As per IMD criteria, a meteorological drought is declared when the rainfall deficiency for a region exceeds which percentage of the long period average?
- A. 25 per cent
- B. 50 per cent
- C. 10 per cent
- D. 75 per cent
Answer: 25 per cent
Explanation: IMD defines meteorological drought as rainfall deficit above 25 per cent of normal; it is moderate when the deficit is 26-50 per cent and severe when above 50 per cent.
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