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1. The Chandrayaan-3 landing site on the Moon, near the lunar south pole, was named:
- A. Tiranga Point
- B. Vikram Point
- C. Shiv Shakti Point
- D. Aryabhata Point
Answer: Shiv Shakti Point
Explanation: The Vikram lander touched down on 23 August 2023; the landing site was named Shiv Shakti Point, while the Chandrayaan-2 impact site was named Tiranga Point.
2. The NISAR satellite, a joint mission of ISRO and NASA, is notable for being the first Earth-observation radar to use:
- A. Laser altimetry only
- B. Dual-frequency L-band and S-band synthetic aperture radar
- C. Only optical imaging in visible light
- D. A single X-band radar
Answer: Dual-frequency L-band and S-band synthetic aperture radar
Explanation: NISAR carries NASA's L-band and ISRO's S-band SAR to map land deformation, ice sheets and biomass with repeat coverage every 12 days; it was launched on GSLV-F16 in July 2025.
3. With the SpaDeX mission (January 2025), India became which-numbered country to demonstrate in-space docking of spacecraft?
- A. Fourth
- B. Second
- C. Third
- D. Fifth
Answer: Fourth
Explanation: After the USA, Russia (USSR) and China, India became the fourth country to achieve space docking with two PSLV-launched satellites, SDX01 and SDX02.
4. The Treaty of Surji-Anjangaon (1803) was signed during the Second Anglo-Maratha War with:
- A. Jaswant Rao Holkar
- B. Daulat Rao Scindia
- C. Baji Rao II
- D. Raghuji Bhonsle
Answer: Daulat Rao Scindia
Explanation: Scindia signed Surji-Anjangaon, while Bhonsle signed the Treaty of Deogaon (1803); both accepted British terms after Assaye and Argaon.
5. Chaitanya Mahaprabhu's Gaudiya Vaishnavism is associated with which philosophical doctrine?
- A. Vishishtadvaita
- B. Shuddhadvaita
- C. Dvaita
- D. Achintya Bhedabheda
Answer: Achintya Bhedabheda
Explanation: Chaitanya's school teaches 'inconceivable difference and non-difference' between God and the soul, with kirtan and bhakti to Krishna as the path.
6. Basavanna's 'Anubhava Mantapa', a forum of spiritual and social debate for the Lingayat movement, functioned at Kalyana under which ruler?
- A. Bijjala (Kalachuri)
- B. Vikramaditya VI (Chalukya)
- C. Someshvara I
- D. Krishnadevaraya
Answer: Bijjala (Kalachuri)
Explanation: Basavanna served as a minister of the Kalachuri king Bijjala at Kalyana (12th century) and rejected caste, ritual and image worship through vachana poetry.
7. The Bardoli Satyagraha (1928), a no-tax campaign, was led by which leader, who earned the title 'Sardar' from it?
- A. Vallabhbhai Patel
- B. Kanaiyalal Munshi
- C. Morarji Desai
- D. Mahadev Desai
Answer: Vallabhbhai Patel
Explanation: Peasants of Bardoli in Gujarat refused to pay a 30 per cent enhanced land revenue; the success of the campaign earned Vallabhbhai Patel the title 'Sardar'.
8. Who is regarded as the 'Father of Land Revenue Settlement in North India' for shaping the Mahalwari system under Regulation IX of 1833?
- A. Alexander Read
- B. Thomas Munro
- C. Lord Cornwallis
- D. Robert Mertins Bird
Answer: Robert Mertins Bird
Explanation: R.M. Bird's 1833 settlement in the North-Western Provinces assessed revenue on the mahal (village or estate) with joint responsibility of the proprietors.
9. Under the Permanent Settlement of 1793, the zamindar had to pay what fraction of the collected rent to the Company, retaining the rest?
- A. One-tenth
- B. Two-thirds
- C. One-half
- D. Ten-elevenths
Answer: Ten-elevenths
Explanation: The Company fixed the revenue permanently at about 10/11 of the rental, leaving the zamindar one-eleventh, but the 'sunset law' auctioned estates on default.
10. The CE-20 cryogenic engine used in the upper stage of ISRO's LVM3 launcher burns which propellant combination?
- A. Liquid oxygen and liquid hydrogen
- B. Liquid oxygen and kerosene
- C. Nitrogen tetroxide and UDMH
- D. Solid HTPB and aluminium
Answer: Liquid oxygen and liquid hydrogen
Explanation: CE-20, India's indigenous cryogenic engine, burns liquid hydrogen (about -253 degrees C) with liquid oxygen (about -183 degrees C) and powered Chandrayaan-3's LVM3-M4.
11. India was certified polio-free by the World Health Organization's South-East Asia Region on:
- A. 1 January 2011
- B. 15 August 2012
- C. 2 October 2016
- D. 27 March 2014
Answer: 27 March 2014
Explanation: The last wild poliovirus case in India was reported in January 2011 from West Bengal; after three years without cases, SEARO certified polio-free status on 27 March 2014.
12. Gandhi described the Cripps proposals (1942) as:
- A. A charter of freedom
- B. A step towards Purna Swaraj
- C. A post-dated cheque on a crashing bank
- D. A gift of the Empire
Answer: A post-dated cheque on a crashing bank
Explanation: The Cripps Mission offered Dominion status and a Constituent Assembly after the war, with the right of provinces to stay out, which the Congress and the League both rejected.
13. Under the Treaty of Amritsar (1846), Kashmir was transferred to Gulab Singh for how much money?
- A. 50 lakh rupees
- B. 25 lakh rupees
- C. 75 lakh rupees
- D. 1 crore rupees
Answer: 75 lakh rupees
Explanation: After the First Anglo-Sikh War, Kashmir was sold to Gulab Singh of Jammu for 75 lakh Nanakshahi rupees, founding the Dogra state of Jammu and Kashmir.
14. The Treaty of Yandabo (1826) ended which war and gave the British control over Assam?
- A. First Anglo-Afghan War
- B. Anglo-Nepal War
- C. First Anglo-Sikh War
- D. First Anglo-Burmese War
Answer: First Anglo-Burmese War
Explanation: Burma ceded Assam, Arakan and Tenasserim, gave up claims on Manipur, Cachar and Jaintia, and paid an indemnity of one crore rupees.
15. The Treaty of Sagauli (1816) ended the war between the East India Company and:
- A. Bhutan
- B. Nepal
- C. Burma
- D. Afghanistan
Answer: Nepal
Explanation: After the Anglo-Nepal War (1814-16), Nepal ceded Kumaon, Garhwal and territory in the Terai and accepted a British Resident at Kathmandu.
16. The Covishield vaccine used in India's COVID-19 campaign is based on which platform?
- A. mRNA lipid nanoparticle
- B. Plasmid DNA
- C. Chimpanzee adenovirus vector (ChAdOx1)
- D. Inactivated whole virus
Answer: Chimpanzee adenovirus vector (ChAdOx1)
Explanation: Covishield (AstraZeneca-Oxford, made by the Serum Institute) uses a modified chimpanzee adenovirus carrying the spike gene; Covaxin is an inactivated vaccine.
17. After the Partition, the strength of the Constituent Assembly was reduced from 389 to:
- A. 250
- B. 350
- C. 299
- D. 325
Answer: 299
Explanation: With the Muslim League members of Pakistan's areas withdrawing, the Assembly's strength fell to 299, of which 229 represented provinces and 70 princely states.
18. Which two new provinces were created in 1936 under the Government of India Act, 1935?
- A. Assam and Burma
- B. Orissa and Sind
- C. Bihar and Bombay
- D. Punjab and Bengal
Answer: Orissa and Sind
Explanation: Sind was separated from Bombay and Orissa from Bihar and Orissa in 1936; Burma was separated from British India in 1937.
19. Under the dyarchy introduced by the Government of India Act, 1919, which of the following was a 'transferred' provincial subject?
- A. Education
- B. Land revenue
- C. Justice
- D. Police
Answer: Education
Explanation: Transferred subjects such as education, health and local self-government were run by elected Indian ministers; finance, police, land revenue and justice stayed 'reserved' with the Governor.
20. Under the Treaty of Allahabad (1765), the East India Company obtained the Diwani of Bengal, Bihar and Orissa from:
- A. Mir Qasim
- B. Shuja-ud-Daula
- C. Siraj-ud-Daulah
- D. Shah Alam II
Answer: Shah Alam II
Explanation: After Buxar, Clive obtained the Diwani from the Mughal emperor Shah Alam II, who received Allahabad and Kora and an annual tribute of Rs 26 lakh.
21. The polished Mauryan pillars, including the Sarnath lion capital, were carved from sandstone quarried at:
- A. Chunar
- B. Dholpur
- C. Makrana
- D. Jaisalmer
Answer: Chunar
Explanation: Mauryan pillars were monoliths of buff-coloured Chunar sandstone with a lustrous polish known as the Mauryan polish.
22. According to Ashoka's Rock Edict V, Dhamma Mahamattas were appointed in which regnal year?
- A. 8th year
- B. 20th year
- C. 13th year
- D. 26th year
Answer: 13th year
Explanation: Ashoka appointed Dhamma Mahamattas in the 13th year of his reign, after the Kalinga war, to propagate dhamma and look after the welfare of all sects and the weaker sections.
23. Which British scholar deciphered the Brahmi script in 1837, enabling the reading of Ashoka's edicts?
- A. John Marshall
- B. James Prinsep
- C. William Jones
- D. Alexander Cunningham
Answer: James Prinsep
Explanation: James Prinsep, secretary of the Asiatic Society of Bengal, deciphered Brahmi in 1837 and identified 'Devanampiya Piyadasi' with Ashoka, aided by Sri Lankan chronicles.
24. Tso Moriri, a high-altitude Ramsar wetland in the Changthang region, lies in which Union Territory?
- A. Jammu and Kashmir
- B. Chandigarh
- C. Ladakh
- D. Lakshadweep
Answer: Ladakh
Explanation: Tso Moriri (about 4,500 m) in Ladakh is a brackish lake and Ramsar site, known for bar-headed geese and black-necked cranes.
25. Kangchenjunga, the third-highest mountain in the world, lies on the border of Nepal and which Indian State?
- A. Himachal Pradesh
- B. Sikkim
- C. Arunachal Pradesh
- D. Uttarakhand
Answer: Sikkim
Explanation: Kangchenjunga (8,586 m) on the Sikkim-Nepal border is the highest peak wholly or partly in India, since K2 is in the Karakoram under Pakistani control.
26. The Little Rann of Kutch Wildlife Sanctuary is the last refuge of which animal?
- A. One-horned rhinoceros
- B. Asiatic lion
- C. Indian wild ass (Khur)
- D. Great Indian bustard
Answer: Indian wild ass (Khur)
Explanation: The Indian wild ass, locally called khur, survives mainly in the Little Rann of Kutch in Gujarat, a seasonal saline desert wetland.
27. Pichavaram, one of India's largest mangrove forests, lies near Chidambaram in which State?
- A. Odisha
- B. Tamil Nadu
- C. Andhra Pradesh
- D. West Bengal
Answer: Tamil Nadu
Explanation: Pichavaram, between the Vellar and Coleroon estuaries in Cuddalore district, is a mangrove wetland with a network of backwaters and islets.
28. Dhupgarh (about 1,350 m), the highest peak of the Satpura range, is located near which hill station?
- A. Mount Abu
- B. Mahabaleshwar
- C. Panchgani
- D. Pachmarhi
Answer: Pachmarhi
Explanation: Dhupgarh near Pachmarhi in Madhya Pradesh's Hoshangabad (Narmadapuram) district is the highest point of the Satpura range.
29. Jelep La, an old trade route pass, connects Sikkim with Tibet's:
- A. Spiti Valley
- B. Chumbi Valley
- C. Yarlung Valley
- D. Kathmandu Valley
Answer: Chumbi Valley
Explanation: Jelep La (about 4,270 m) links Gangtok with Tibet's Chumbi Valley and lies close to Nathu La on the old Silk Route.
30. The Lipulekh pass, used for the Kailash Mansarovar Yatra, connects which Indian State with Tibet?
- A. Himachal Pradesh
- B. Sikkim
- C. Uttarakhand
- D. Arunachal Pradesh
Answer: Uttarakhand
Explanation: Lipulekh lies at the trijunction of India (Pithoragarh, Uttarakhand), Nepal and China; Nathu La in Sikkim is the other Kailash Mansarovar route.
31. The Chandrasekhar limit, above which a white dwarf collapses into a neutron star or black hole, is about:
- A. 10 solar masses
- B. 0.5 solar masses
- C. 3 solar masses
- D. 1.4 solar masses
Answer: 1.4 solar masses
Explanation: S. Chandrasekhar showed that a stable white dwarf cannot exceed about 1.4 solar masses; electron degeneracy pressure cannot support heavier remnants. He shared the 1983 Nobel Prize in Physics.
32. Glycolysis, the first step of cellular respiration, takes place in the:
- A. Nucleus, with a net gain of 4 ATP
- B. Cytoplasm, with a net gain of 2 ATP per glucose
- C. Mitochondrial matrix, with a net gain of 36 ATP
- D. Chloroplast stroma, with a net gain of 2 ATP
Answer: Cytoplasm, with a net gain of 2 ATP per glucose
Explanation: Glycolysis converts one glucose to two pyruvate in the cytoplasm, yielding a net 2 ATP and 2 NADH, without needing oxygen.
33. Which is the only genetically modified crop approved for commercial cultivation in India, with the cry1Ac gene from Bacillus thuringiensis?
- A. Brinjal
- B. Cotton
- C. Maize
- D. Mustard
Answer: Cotton
Explanation: Bt cotton was approved by the Genetic Engineering Approval Committee in 2002; Bt brinjal faced a moratorium in 2010 and GM mustard remains contested.
34. The Malabar Coast of India extends from Mangalore to:
- A. Kanyakumari
- B. Goa
- C. Kochi
- D. Daman
Answer: Kanyakumari
Explanation: The western coastal plain is divided into the Konkan (Daman to Goa), Kanara (Goa to Mangalore) and Malabar (Mangalore to Kanyakumari) coasts.
35. In the CPI (Combined) with base year 2012, the 'Food and Beverages' group has a weight of about:
- A. 54.2 per cent
- B. 45.86 per cent
- C. 36.29 per cent
- D. 28.3 per cent
Answer: 45.86 per cent
Explanation: Food and beverages carry about 45.86 per cent weight in CPI-Combined, which is why food price shocks strongly influence headline retail inflation.
36. Narcondam Island in the Andaman Sea, a dormant volcano, is the only home of which endemic bird?
- A. Nicobar pigeon
- B. Great Indian bustard
- C. Narcondam hornbill
- D. Andaman teal
Answer: Narcondam hornbill
Explanation: The Narcondam hornbill (Rhyticeros narcondami) is found nowhere else; the island is a wildlife sanctuary and its volcano is classed as dormant.
37. The Palk Strait connects the Palk Bay with the Bay of Bengal and separates Tamil Nadu from which country?
- A. Maldives
- B. Myanmar
- C. Indonesia
- D. Sri Lanka
Answer: Sri Lanka
Explanation: The shallow Palk Strait lies between Tamil Nadu and Sri Lanka's Jaffna peninsula; Adam's Bridge (Ram Setu) lies at its southern end in the Gulf of Mannar.
38. The shore of the Dead Sea, the lowest land elevation on Earth, is about how far below sea level?
- A. About 600 m
- B. About 150 m
- C. About 280 m
- D. About 430 m
Answer: About 430 m
Explanation: The Dead Sea shore lies roughly 430 m below sea level in the Jordan Rift Valley, and its salinity (about ten times that of the ocean) makes swimmers float.
39. The Kuroshio is a warm ocean current flowing along the coast of which country?
- A. Australia
- B. South Africa
- C. Japan
- D. Peru
Answer: Japan
Explanation: The Kuroshio (Japan Current) is the Pacific counterpart of the Gulf Stream; the cold Oyashio meets it off Japan, creating rich fishing grounds.
40. 'Seigniorage' in central banking refers to:
- A. The profit earned from issuing currency, the difference between its face value and cost of production
- B. The fee charged for clearing cheques
- C. The tax on foreign exchange transactions
- D. The interest paid on government bonds
Answer: The profit earned from issuing currency, the difference between its face value and cost of production
Explanation: Seigniorage is the revenue a government or central bank earns by issuing money whose face value exceeds its cost of production; the RBI transfers its surplus to the Centre.
41. The Caspian Sea, the world's largest enclosed inland body of water, is bordered by how many countries?
- A. Five
- B. Four
- C. Seven
- D. Three
Answer: Five
Explanation: Russia, Kazakhstan, Turkmenistan, Iran and Azerbaijan border the Caspian Sea, which has no outlet to the ocean.
42. Which major river is unique in crossing the Equator twice?
- A. Niger
- B. Nile
- C. Amazon
- D. Congo
Answer: Congo
Explanation: The Congo crosses the Equator near Mbandaka and again in its southern course, giving rain year-round in its basin.
43. Victoria Falls (Mosi-oa-Tunya) on the Zambezi river forms the boundary between which two countries?
- A. Zimbabwe and Botswana
- B. Zambia and Mozambique
- C. Zambia and Zimbabwe
- D. Angola and Namibia
Answer: Zambia and Zimbabwe
Explanation: The Zambezi plunges over Victoria Falls along the Zambia-Zimbabwe border before flowing on through Mozambique to the Indian Ocean.
44. The Strait of Bonifacio separates which two Mediterranean islands?
- A. Crete and Cyprus
- B. Corsica and Sardinia
- C. Mallorca and Menorca
- D. Sicily and Malta
Answer: Corsica and Sardinia
Explanation: The narrow strait separates French Corsica from Italian Sardinia; the Strait of Messina separates Sicily from mainland Italy.
45. The catastrophic 1883 eruption of Krakatoa occurred in the strait between which two Indonesian islands?
- A. Java and Sumatra
- B. Borneo and Sulawesi
- C. Sumatra and Borneo
- D. Bali and Lombok
Answer: Java and Sumatra
Explanation: Krakatoa lies in the Sunda Strait between Java and Sumatra; its 1883 eruption and tsunamis killed over 36,000 people.
46. Through which of the following countries does the Equator NOT pass?
- A. Uganda
- B. Tanzania
- C. Kenya
- D. Gabon
Answer: Tanzania
Explanation: The Equator crosses Gabon, Congo, DR Congo, Uganda, Kenya and Somalia in Africa; Tanzania lies wholly south of it.
47. Lake Titicaca, the highest navigable lake in the world, is shared by which two countries?
- A. Ecuador and Colombia
- B. Peru and Bolivia
- C. Chile and Argentina
- D. Brazil and Paraguay
Answer: Peru and Bolivia
Explanation: Lake Titicaca lies in the Andes at about 3,800 m on the border of Peru and Bolivia.
48. Through how many countries does the Mekong river flow from its source on the Tibetan Plateau to the South China Sea?
- A. Three
- B. Six
- C. Four
- D. Eight
Answer: Six
Explanation: The Mekong flows through China, Myanmar, Laos, Thailand, Cambodia and Vietnam; it forms the Golden Triangle at the meeting point of Myanmar, Laos and Thailand.
49. Among the eight core industries, which has the largest weight in the Index of Eight Core Industries?
- A. Electricity
- B. Coal
- C. Refinery products
- D. Steel
Answer: Refinery products
Explanation: Refinery products have the largest weight (about 28 per cent), followed by electricity (about 20 per cent) and steel (about 18 per cent); together the eight form around 40 per cent of the IIP.
50. The Blue Nile, which contributes most of the Nile's water during the flood season, originates from which lake?
- A. Lake Turkana
- B. Lake Victoria
- C. Lake Tana in Ethiopia
- D. Lake Albert
Answer: Lake Tana in Ethiopia
Explanation: The Blue Nile rises from Lake Tana in the Ethiopian highlands and joins the White Nile (from Lake Victoria) at Khartoum, Sudan.
51. X voluntarily drinks liquor and, while intoxicated, does an act that is an offence. Under Section 24 of the BNS he is treated as having:
- A. Knowledge only if a reasonable person would have had it
- B. No knowledge, as intoxication always negates it
- C. The same knowledge as if he had not been intoxicated
- D. Neither knowledge nor intention
Answer: The same knowledge as if he had not been intoxicated
Explanation: Section 24 (IPC 86) presumes the same knowledge as a sober person; intention is presumed the same unless the intoxicant was administered without his knowledge or against his will.
52. Under Section 351 of the BNS, criminal intimidation is punishable with imprisonment up to 2 years, fine, or both. What is the ENHANCED punishment under Section 351(3) when the threat is to cause death or grievous hurt?
- A. Imprisonment up to 1 year only
- B. No enhancement; punishment remains capped at 2 years in all cases
- C. Imprisonment up to 7 years, or fine, or both
- D. Death penalty mandatorily
Answer: Imprisonment up to 7 years, or fine, or both
Explanation: Section 351(3) of the BNS enhances punishment to imprisonment up to 7 years, or fine, or both, where the threat is to cause death or grievous hurt, or to cause the destruction of property by fire, or to cause an offence punishable with death or life imprisonment.
53. Section 82 of the BNS deals with 'marrying again during the lifetime of husband or wife' (bigamy). What is the essential precondition for this offence?
- A. Consent of the first spouse to the second marriage is irrelevant to establishing the offence
- B. Both marriages must have been registered under the Special Marriage Act
- C. The offence applies only to marriages solemnised in a court
- D. The first marriage must be valid and subsisting, and the second marriage must be void by reason of its taking place during the life of the former spouse
Answer: The first marriage must be valid and subsisting, and the second marriage must be void by reason of its taking place during the life of the former spouse
Explanation: Section 82 of the BNS (corresponding to old Section 494 IPC) requires that the accused, having a husband or wife living, marries again in any case in which such marriage is void by reason of it taking place during the life of such husband or wife — the first marriage's validity and subsistence is essential.
54. Under the BNS, Chapter XI deals with 'Of Offences Against Public Tranquillity' (Sections 189-197). Which of the following is NOT one of the specific offences covered in this chapter?
- A. Theft of railway property
- B. Assembly of five or more persons after prohibitory order
- C. Unlawful assembly, rioting, affray, promoting enmity between groups
- D. Wanton provocation with intent to cause riot
Answer: Theft of railway property
Explanation: Theft of railway property is a property offence falling under Chapter XVII (Offences Against Property), not Chapter X's public-tranquillity offences, which cover unlawful assembly, rioting, affray, promoting enmity, wanton provocation, and prohibited-order assembly violations.
55. Which BNS provision addresses acts endangering public health, safety, convenience, decency, or morals, and which of the following offences is grouped there — corresponding to IPC's Chapter XV?
- A. Chapter XV of the BNS ('Of Offences Affecting the Public Health, Safety, Convenience, Decency and Morals'), covering negligent conduct with respect to poisonous substances, fire/combustible material, explosive substances, adulteration of food/drugs, and obscenity offences
- B. Chapter XV deals exclusively with offences against the State
- C. Chapter XV deals exclusively with electoral offences
- D. Chapter XV was entirely repealed with no successor in the BNS
Answer: Chapter XV of the BNS ('Of Offences Affecting the Public Health, Safety, Convenience, Decency and Morals'), covering negligent conduct with respect to poisonous substances, fire/combustible material, explosive substances, adulteration of food/drugs, and obscenity offences
Explanation: BNS Chapter XV (Sections 270-297) mirrors IPC Chapter XV, covering negligent acts likely to spread infection, adulteration of food/drink/drugs, negligent conduct with poisonous/fire/explosive/machinery substances, and obscenity-related offences (sale of obscene material, acts in public places, etc.) as offences affecting public health, safety, convenience, decency and morals.
56. Section 88 of the BNS deals with 'causing miscarriage.' Under which specific circumstance does the BNS treat causing miscarriage as NOT an offence?
- A. When done in good faith for the purpose of saving the life of the pregnant woman
- B. There are no exceptions under Section 88
- C. When done by any unlicensed person as long as the woman agrees
- D. When done for any reason whatsoever with the woman's oral consent
Answer: When done in good faith for the purpose of saving the life of the pregnant woman
Explanation: Section 88 (old Section 312 IPC) retains the exception that causing miscarriage in good faith to save the pregnant woman's life is not an offence — this interacts with, but is distinct from, the separate Medical Termination of Pregnancy Act framework.
57. Under Section 15 (Act of judge when acting judicially) and Section 16 (Act done pursuant to judgment or order of court) of the BNS, what critical distinction exists between the two provisions?
- A. Section 16 protects only judges, not officers
- B. They are entirely identical provisions
- C. Section 15 protects the judge's own judicial acts; Section 16 protects persons (like officers) who execute the court's judgment/order in good faith, even if the court lacked jurisdiction
- D. Section 15 applies to civil courts only, Section 16 to criminal courts only
Answer: Section 15 protects the judge's own judicial acts; Section 16 protects persons (like officers) who execute the court's judgment/order in good faith, even if the court lacked jurisdiction
Explanation: Section 15 shields the judge personally for acts done judicially believing in good faith he had jurisdiction, whereas Section 16 protects any person (e.g., a police or executing officer) who acts in good faith pursuant to a court's judgment or order, even where the court's jurisdiction was defective.
58. Section 14 of the BNS (act done by a person bound, or by mistake of fact believing himself bound, by law) is a codification of what fundamental criminal law principle?
- A. Mistake of fact in good faith negating criminal liability, combined with the principle that mistake of law is generally no excuse
- B. Strict liability regardless of intention
- C. Double jeopardy
- D. Vicarious liability of employers
Answer: Mistake of fact in good faith negating criminal liability, combined with the principle that mistake of law is generally no excuse
Explanation: Sections 14 and 17 of the BNS (old Sections 76 & 79 IPC) codify the well-established mistake-of-fact defence — an honest and reasonable belief in a factual state of affairs that would make the act lawful negates criminal liability, while mistake of law does not.
59. In private defence of property, the right extends to causing death of the wrongdoer under BNS Section 41 in offences including robbery, house-breaking by night, mischief by fire on a building used as human dwelling, and:
- A. Theft, mischief, or house-trespass under circumstances that may reasonably cause apprehension of death or grievous hurt if the right of private defence is not exercised
- B. Trespass on agricultural land only
- C. Cattle trespass
- D. Simple theft of any amount
Answer: Theft, mischief, or house-trespass under circumstances that may reasonably cause apprehension of death or grievous hurt if the right of private defence is not exercised
Explanation: Section 41 (old Section 103 IPC) extends the right of private defence of property to causing death in robbery, house-breaking by night, mischief by fire on a dwelling/property-storage building, theft/mischief/house-trespass under circumstances causing reasonable apprehension of death or grievous hurt.
60. Consent as a general exception under BNS Section 25 does NOT protect an act if:
- A. The consent is given in writing
- B. The consent is freely given by an adult of sound mind for a minor harm
- C. The act is intended to cause, or the doer knows it likely to cause, death or grievous hurt (unless for the person's benefit as in surgery)
- D. The consent is given after full disclosure
Answer: The act is intended to cause, or the doer knows it likely to cause, death or grievous hurt (unless for the person's benefit as in surgery)
Explanation: The consent exception excludes acts intended to cause death or grievous hurt, or known to be likely to cause them, except in specific circumstances such as good-faith medical treatment for the person's benefit.
61. Involuntary intoxication, where a person is incapable of knowing the nature of the act because a substance was administered without his knowledge or against his will, is addressed under which BNS section, and how does it treat such involuntary intoxication?
- A. Section 23, but no defence is available at all
- B. Section 25, treated as an aggravating factor
- C. Section 23, treated similarly to unsoundness of mind as a defence
- D. Section 19, treated as strict liability
Answer: Section 23, treated similarly to unsoundness of mind as a defence
Explanation: Section 23 (old Section 85 IPC) provides a defence for involuntary intoxication where the substance was administered without the person's knowledge or against his will, applying the same incapacity test as unsoundness of mind.
62. Which of the following is NOT one of the punishments enumerated under Section 4 of the BNS, 2023?
- A. Death
- B. Exile
- C. Forfeiture of property
- D. Imprisonment for life
Answer: Exile
Explanation: Section 4 lists death, imprisonment for life, imprisonment (rigorous or simple), forfeiture of property, fine, and community service — 'exile' has never been a statutory punishment under Indian criminal law.
63. Under Section 7 of the BNS, when a term of imprisonment is not expressly stated to be simple or rigorous, and the enactment leaves the description of imprisonment to the court's discretion, the imprisonment awarded may be:
- A. Either simple or rigorous or partly of each description
- B. Only simple
- C. Community service only
- D. Only rigorous
Answer: Either simple or rigorous or partly of each description
Explanation: Section 7 (analogous to old IPC Section 60) allows courts discretion to award simple, rigorous, or a mix of both kinds of imprisonment when the specific section does not mandate one type.
64. What is the standard Hindi official equivalent of the term 'Counter-signature' in Government work?
- A. पृष्ठांकन
- B. प्रतिहस्ताक्षर
- C. अनुहस्ताक्षर
- D. अभिप्रमाणन
Answer: प्रतिहस्ताक्षर
Explanation: The standard Hindi equivalent of 'Counter-signature' is 'प्रतिहस्ताक्षर' (pratihastakshar).
65. Passing which Hindi Teaching Scheme examination is the standard criterion, besides Matriculation with Hindi, for deemed 'working knowledge of Hindi' under Rule 10?
- A. Prabodh
- B. Pragya
- C. None; only a degree counts
- D. Parichay
Answer: Pragya
Explanation: Rule 10 treats a person who has passed the Pragya examination (or a lower examination the Central Government specifies for particular posts) as having working knowledge of Hindi; Matriculation with Hindi also qualifies.
66. Section 1 of the Official Languages Act, 1963 distinguishes two commencement dates. Which provision came into force on 26 January 1965, while the rest of the Act came into force on its enactment?
- A. Section 7
- B. Section 4
- C. Section 3
- D. Section 5
Answer: Section 3
Explanation: Section 3 (continued use of English alongside Hindi) was brought into force on the 'appointed day', 26 January 1965; the rest of the Act took effect from 10 May 1963.
67. Which language is the second official language of Telangana, added by a State amendment?
- A. Kannada
- B. Marathi
- C. Hindi
- D. Urdu
Answer: Urdu
Explanation: Telangana's official language is Telugu, and Urdu was made the second official language.
68. After receiving the Committee's report under Section 4, what must the President do?
- A. Publish it only in the Gazette of India
- B. Refer it to the Supreme Court for an advisory opinion
- C. Cause it to be laid before each House of Parliament and sent to all State Governments, and issue directions after considering their views
- D. Forward it only to the Ministry of Home Affairs
Answer: Cause it to be laid before each House of Parliament and sent to all State Governments, and issue directions after considering their views
Explanation: Section 4: the report is laid before Parliament and sent to State Governments; the President then issues directions in accordance with the whole or any part of it, after considering the States' views.
69. What is the primary function assigned to the Parliamentary Committee on Official Language by Section 4 of the Act?
- A. To translate all Central Acts into Hindi
- B. To train Central Government employees in Hindi
- C. To review progress in the use of Hindi for official purposes of the Union and submit a report to the President with recommendations
- D. To decide disputes about the Eighth Schedule
Answer: To review progress in the use of Hindi for official purposes of the Union and submit a report to the President with recommendations
Explanation: Section 4: the Committee reviews progress in the use of Hindi for the official purposes of the Union and submits a report to the President making recommendations thereon.
70. Which Eighth Schedule language is the official language of the State of Goa, as per the Goa Official Language Act, 1987?
- A. Kannada
- B. Marathi
- C. Portuguese
- D. Konkani
Answer: Konkani
Explanation: The Goa Official Language Act, 1987 declared Konkani the official language of Goa, with Marathi permitted for one or more official purposes.
71. Article 344(1) requires the President to constitute the first Official Language Commission at the expiration of five years from the Constitution's commencement. When is the next Commission to be constituted?
- A. Every five years without any change
- B. At the expiration of fifteen years from the commencement
- C. Only when Parliament passes a resolution to that effect
- D. At the expiration of ten years from the commencement of the Constitution
Answer: At the expiration of ten years from the commencement of the Constitution
Explanation: Article 344(1) says the Commission is constituted at the expiration of five years and thereafter at the expiration of ten years from the commencement of the Constitution.
72. Virat Kohli's 50th ODI century, which broke Sachin Tendulkar's record of 49, came in the 2023 World Cup semi-final against:
- A. England at Lucknow
- B. South Africa at Narendra Modi Stadium
- C. Australia at Eden Gardens, Kolkata
- D. New Zealand at Wankhede Stadium, Mumbai
Answer: New Zealand at Wankhede Stadium, Mumbai
Explanation: Kohli scored 117 on 15 November 2023 as India beat New Zealand to reach the final.
73. The UNFPA State of World Population 2023 report put India's population at about 142.86 crore. Which country did India thereby overtake as the most populous?
- A. China
- B. United States
- C. Pakistan
- D. Indonesia
Answer: China
Explanation: The report estimated India at 1,428.6 million against China's 1,425.7 million in April 2023.
74. Cyclone Remal, which struck the coasts of West Bengal and Bangladesh in May 2024, was named by:
- A. Thailand
- B. Oman
- C. Pakistan
- D. Qatar
Answer: Oman
Explanation: Names for North Indian Ocean cyclones come from a WMO/ESCAP panel list; Remal was Oman's contribution.
75. Operation Ganga, launched in February-March 2022, was India's evacuation of its citizens from:
- A. Sudan
- B. Yemen
- C. Afghanistan
- D. Ukraine
Answer: Ukraine
Explanation: Operation Ganga brought back thousands of Indians, mostly students, from Ukraine; Afghanistan was Operation Devi Shakti (2021) and Sudan Operation Kaveri (2023).
76. Ethnic violence between the Meitei and Kuki-Zo communities in Manipur began on:
- A. 15 August 2023
- B. 3 May 2023
- C. 3 March 2022
- D. 1 January 2024
Answer: 3 May 2023
Explanation: Violence broke out on 3 May 2023 after a tribal solidarity march; President's Rule was imposed in Manipur on 13 February 2025.
77. In Supriyo v. Union of India (17 October 2023), a five-judge Constitution Bench headed by CJI D. Y. Chandrachud:
- A. Declined to recognise same-sex marriage, leaving the matter to Parliament
- B. Struck down the Special Marriage Act
- C. Declared marriage a fundamental right under Article 19
- D. Legalised same-sex marriage nationwide
Answer: Declined to recognise same-sex marriage, leaving the matter to Parliament
Explanation: The Bench held there is no fundamental right to marry and that only the legislature can create a right to same-sex marriage.
78. The Supreme Court's Ayodhya verdict of 9 November 2019 was delivered by a five-judge Constitution Bench headed by which Chief Justice of India?
- A. Dipak Misra
- B. Ranjan Gogoi
- C. T. S. Thakur
- D. S. A. Bobde
Answer: Ranjan Gogoi
Explanation: The unanimous verdict handed the disputed land for a Ram temple and directed 5 acres elsewhere in Ayodhya for a mosque.
79. Section 12 of the RP(UP) Act, 1966 deals with:
- A. offences under the Act being non-cognizable
- B. inquiry by an officer of the Force
- C. officers required to assist
- D. definitions (Force, member of the Force, officer of the Force, railway property, superior officer)
Answer: officers required to assist
Explanation: Section 12 of the RP(UP) Act, 1966 deals with officers required to assist.
80. D. Gukesh won the FIDE Candidates Tournament in April 2024, held in:
- A. Singapore
- B. Toronto, Canada
- C. Chennai, India
- D. Madrid, Spain
Answer: Toronto, Canada
Explanation: At 17 Gukesh became the youngest winner of the Candidates, earning the right to challenge Ding Liren, whom he beat in Singapore in December 2024.