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1. The Mullaperiyar Dam, subject of a long-running Kerala-Tamil Nadu dispute, is built on which river and is operated by Tamil Nadu under an 1886 lease?
- A. Pamba
- B. Kabini
- C. Periyar
- D. Bharathapuzha
Answer: Periyar
Explanation: The dam is in Kerala's Idukki district but the 1886 Periyar Lake lease lets Tamil Nadu use its water for irrigation in the Vaigai basin.
2. The Eight Degree Channel separates Minicoy Island of Lakshadweep from which country?
- A. Mauritius
- B. Maldives
- C. Indonesia
- D. Sri Lanka
Answer: Maldives
Explanation: The Eight Degree Channel lies between Minicoy and the Maldives, while the Nine Degree Channel separates Minicoy from the main Lakshadweep islands.
3. The Chenab river is formed by the confluence of which two streams at Tandi in Lahaul-Spiti?
- A. Spiti and Pin
- B. Chandra and Bhaga
- C. Ravi and Chenab
- D. Beas and Parvati
Answer: Chandra and Bhaga
Explanation: The Chandra and Bhaga rise on either side of the Baralacha La and meet at Tandi (Keylong, Himachal Pradesh) to form the Chandrabhaga, known as Chenab.
4. In August 1994, India accepted the obligations of which IMF Article, making the rupee convertible on current account?
- A. Article IV
- B. Article XIV
- C. Article VIII
- D. Article II
Answer: Article VIII
Explanation: Accepting Article VIII obligations ended restrictions on current account payments; capital account convertibility remains partial, as examined by the Tarapore Committee (1997).
5. Doddabetta, the highest peak of the Nilgiri Hills (about 2,637 m), lies in which State?
- A. Tamil Nadu
- B. Kerala
- C. Karnataka
- D. Andhra Pradesh
Answer: Tamil Nadu
Explanation: Doddabetta near Udhagamandalam (Ooty) in Tamil Nadu is the highest point of the Nilgiris, while Anamudi in Kerala is the highest peak of peninsular India.
6. The Kishanganga Hydroelectric Project, the subject of a Court of Arbitration award (2013) under the Indus Waters Treaty, diverts water of a tributary of which river?
- A. Ravi
- B. Jhelum
- C. Beas
- D. Chenab
Answer: Jhelum
Explanation: The Kishanganga (Neelum) is a tributary of the Jhelum; the project diverts its water to the Bonar Nallah for power generation, and the Court allowed it subject to minimum environmental flow.
7. How does the GDP deflator differ from the Consumer Price Index?
- A. It covers only imported goods
- B. It uses a fixed basket of consumer goods including imports
- C. It covers only agricultural prices
- D. It covers all domestically produced goods and services, not a fixed consumer basket, and excludes imports
Answer: It covers all domestically produced goods and services, not a fixed consumer basket, and excludes imports
Explanation: The GDP deflator (nominal GDP/real GDP) reflects prices of everything produced domestically with changing weights, whereas CPI tracks a fixed basket of consumer goods that includes imports.
8. The Phillips curve describes the short-run relationship between:
- A. Tax rate and tax revenue
- B. Inflation and unemployment (inverse)
- C. Interest rate and investment (positive)
- D. Income and inequality
Answer: Inflation and unemployment (inverse)
Explanation: The Phillips curve shows an inverse short-run trade-off: lower unemployment is associated with higher inflation, and vice versa. The tax rate-revenue link is the Laffer curve.
9. Small Finance Banks in India are required to extend what share of their adjusted net bank credit to priority sectors?
- A. 25 per cent
- B. 75 per cent
- C. 40 per cent
- D. 60 per cent
Answer: 75 per cent
Explanation: Small Finance Banks must lend 75 per cent of ANBC to priority sectors, against 40 per cent for domestic commercial banks, reflecting their financial inclusion mandate.
10. As per NITI Aayog's National Multidimensional Poverty Index report (2023), the headcount ratio for 2019-21 was about:
- A. 14.96 per cent
- B. 24.85 per cent
- C. 29.17 per cent
- D. 9.89 per cent
Answer: 14.96 per cent
Explanation: The national MPI headcount ratio fell from 24.85 per cent in 2015-16 to 14.96 per cent in 2019-21, based on NFHS data across health, education and living standards.
11. The Rangarajan Expert Group (2014) estimated India's poverty ratio for 2011-12 at about:
- A. 29.5 per cent
- B. 21.9 per cent
- C. 13.4 per cent
- D. 37.2 per cent
Answer: 29.5 per cent
Explanation: The Rangarajan Committee used a higher poverty line than the Tendulkar Committee, giving 29.5 per cent for 2011-12 against Tendulkar's 21.9 per cent.
12. The Union Budget 2018-19 promised that the Minimum Support Price for kharif crops would be set at a minimum of what level?
- A. 1.5 times the A2+FL cost of production
- B. Equal to the A2 cost
- C. 1.5 times the C2 cost of production
- D. 2 times the A2+FL cost
Answer: 1.5 times the A2+FL cost of production
Explanation: Since 2018-19 MSP has been fixed at least 1.5 times the A2+FL cost (paid-out costs plus imputed family labour); the Swaminathan Commission had suggested C2 plus 50 per cent.
13. Under the GST regime, the Centre guaranteed compensation to States for five years at what annual growth rate of SGST revenue over the 2015-16 base year?
- A. 14 per cent
- B. 18 per cent
- C. 12 per cent
- D. 10 per cent
Answer: 14 per cent
Explanation: The GST (Compensation to States) Act, 2017 assured States 14 per cent annual growth in revenue over the 2015-16 base for the first five years, funded by the compensation cess.
14. Debt Recovery Tribunals (DRTs) in India were established under which law?
- A. Recovery of Debts Due to Banks and Financial Institutions Act, 1993
- B. Banking Regulation Act, 1949
- C. Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016
- D. SARFAESI Act, 2002
Answer: Recovery of Debts Due to Banks and Financial Institutions Act, 1993
Explanation: The RDDBFI Act, 1993 created DRTs and the Debt Recovery Appellate Tribunals for speedy recovery of dues of Rs 10 lakh and above owed to banks and financial institutions.
15. Under Section 13(2) of the SARFAESI Act, 2002, a secured creditor must give the borrower a demand notice of how many days before enforcing the security interest?
- A. 15 days
- B. 90 days
- C. 60 days
- D. 30 days
Answer: 60 days
Explanation: A secured creditor can take possession of secured assets without court intervention, but only after a 60-day notice to discharge the full liability.
16. Section 29A of the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code was inserted mainly to:
- A. Create the National Company Law Tribunal
- B. Bar wilful defaulters and promoters with NPA accounts from submitting resolution plans
- C. Permit promoters to bid with a discount
- D. Allow banks to sell NPAs to foreign investors
Answer: Bar wilful defaulters and promoters with NPA accounts from submitting resolution plans
Explanation: Inserted in 2017, Section 29A disqualifies wilful defaulters, persons with long-overdue NPA accounts and their connected persons, preventing errant promoters from regaining control cheaply.
17. Under the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016, the corporate insolvency resolution process must ordinarily be completed within 180 days, extendable once by up to:
- A. 30 days
- B. 60 days
- C. 90 days
- D. 120 days
Answer: 90 days
Explanation: The adjudicating authority may extend the 180-day CIRP period once by up to 90 days; the 2019 amendment capped the overall limit, including litigation, at 330 days.
18. The 'Twin Balance Sheet problem' highlighted in the Economic Survey 2016-17 refers to:
- A. Over-leveraged corporate balance sheets and NPA-burdened bank balance sheets
- B. Current account and fiscal deficits together
- C. Union and State government deficits together
- D. Public and private sector investment slump
Answer: Over-leveraged corporate balance sheets and NPA-burdened bank balance sheets
Explanation: The Survey described stressed, over-indebted corporates on one side and banks with high non-performing assets on the other, both constraining credit and investment.
19. As per the Basel III norms implemented in India, the Capital Conservation Buffer to be maintained over the minimum capital requirement is:
- A. 4.5 per cent
- B. 1.25 per cent
- C. 2.5 per cent of risk-weighted assets
- D. 9 per cent
Answer: 2.5 per cent of risk-weighted assets
Explanation: Indian banks must hold a minimum total capital of 9 per cent of RWA plus a 2.5 per cent Capital Conservation Buffer, giving 11.5 per cent in total.
20. In the GST Council, decisions require what majority of the weighted votes of members present and voting?
- A. Unanimity
- B. Simple majority, with equal weight for Centre and States
- C. Three-fourths, with the Centre having one-third and all States together two-thirds weightage
- D. Two-thirds, with the Centre having half weightage
Answer: Three-fourths, with the Centre having one-third and all States together two-thirds weightage
Explanation: Under Article 279A, the Union has one-third weightage and States together two-thirds, and every decision needs three-fourths of weighted votes, so neither side can decide alone.
21. The Committee on Public Undertakings of Parliament has how many members?
- A. 30 (all from Lok Sabha)
- B. 22 (all from Lok Sabha)
- C. 30 (20 from Lok Sabha and 10 from Rajya Sabha)
- D. 22 (15 from Lok Sabha and 7 from Rajya Sabha)
Answer: 22 (15 from Lok Sabha and 7 from Rajya Sabha)
Explanation: The Committee on Public Undertakings, like the Public Accounts Committee, has 22 members: 15 elected by the Lok Sabha and 7 by the Rajya Sabha. The Estimates Committee has 30, all from the Lok Sabha.
22. In parliamentary procedure, the 'guillotine' refers to:
- A. Removal of a member from the House
- B. Putting all outstanding demands for grants to vote at once when the allotted time ends
- C. Cutting the salary of a Minister
- D. Immediate adjournment sine die
Answer: Putting all outstanding demands for grants to vote at once when the allotted time ends
Explanation: When the time allotted for discussing demands for grants ends, the Speaker puts all remaining demands to vote without discussion; this is known as the guillotine.
23. Article 16(4B), inserted by the 81st Amendment (2000), allows:
- A. Ten per cent reservation for economically weaker sections
- B. Carry-forward of unfilled reserved vacancies to later years as a separate class outside the 50 per cent ceiling
- C. Reservation in private sector jobs
- D. Reservation in promotion with consequential seniority
Answer: Carry-forward of unfilled reserved vacancies to later years as a separate class outside the 50 per cent ceiling
Explanation: Article 16(4B) treats carried-forward backlog vacancies as a separate class, so they are not counted against the 50 per cent ceiling of the year in which they are filled.
24. Article 15(5), inserted by the 93rd Amendment (2005), enables the State to make special provisions for admission to:
- A. Only government colleges
- B. Educational institutions including private unaided ones, other than minority institutions
- C. Only minority institutions
- D. Only central universities
Answer: Educational institutions including private unaided ones, other than minority institutions
Explanation: The amendment overcame the P.A. Inamdar ruling by allowing reservations for SEBCs, SCs and STs in admissions to private unaided institutions, except minority educational institutions under Article 30(1).
25. The 100th Constitutional Amendment (2015) gave effect to which international agreement?
- A. Simla Agreement
- B. Tashkent Declaration
- C. Land Boundary Agreement with Bangladesh
- D. Indus Waters Treaty
Answer: Land Boundary Agreement with Bangladesh
Explanation: The 100th Amendment amended the First Schedule to give effect to the exchange of enclaves and adverse possessions under the 1974 Land Boundary Agreement and its 2011 Protocol.
26. Following the Maratha reservation verdict (Jaishri Patil, 2021), the 105th Constitutional Amendment (2021) restored the power of States and Union Territories to:
- A. Define creamy layer for central services
- B. Appoint the National Commission for Backward Classes
- C. Raise reservation beyond 50 per cent
- D. Identify and specify their own list of socially and educationally backward classes
Answer: Identify and specify their own list of socially and educationally backward classes
Explanation: Article 342A(3), added by the 105th Amendment, lets States and UTs prepare their own SEBC lists, overcoming the reading of the 102nd Amendment in the Maratha quota case.
27. In the 2018 Aadhaar judgment (Puttaswamy II), the majority upheld the Aadhaar Act's passage as a Money Bill, while which judge dissented on this point?
- A. Justice Ashok Bhushan
- B. Justice A.M. Khanwilkar
- C. Justice A.K. Sikri
- D. Justice D.Y. Chandrachud
Answer: Justice D.Y. Chandrachud
Explanation: The 4:1 majority upheld Aadhaar's validity (with limits on private use) and the Money Bill route; Justice Chandrachud held the Act was not a Money Bill under Article 110.
28. In the 2018 Sabarimala verdict (Indian Young Lawyers Association v. State of Kerala), which judge of the five-judge bench delivered the lone dissent?
- A. Justice R.F. Nariman
- B. Justice D.Y. Chandrachud
- C. Justice Indu Malhotra
- D. Justice A.M. Khanwilkar
Answer: Justice Indu Malhotra
Explanation: By a 4:1 majority the Court allowed entry of women of all ages; Justice Indu Malhotra dissented, saying courts should not interfere in essential religious practices.
29. In National Legal Services Authority v. Union of India (2014), the Supreme Court:
- A. Struck down triple talaq
- B. Recognised transgender persons as a 'third gender' and directed reservation as socially and educationally backward classes
- C. Decriminalised homosexuality
- D. Held privacy to be a fundamental right
Answer: Recognised transgender persons as a 'third gender' and directed reservation as socially and educationally backward classes
Explanation: The NALSA judgment recognised self-identified gender and directed that transgender persons be treated as a third gender and as socially and educationally backward for reservation.
30. Article 329(b) of the Constitution provides that:
- A. Election Commission decisions are final in all matters
- B. Election disputes go directly to the Supreme Court
- C. No election to Parliament or a State Legislature may be questioned except by an election petition
- D. Courts may stay elections once notified
Answer: No election to Parliament or a State Legislature may be questioned except by an election petition
Explanation: Article 329(b) bars interference by courts in electoral process after notification; the remedy lies only in an election petition presented to the appropriate High Court.
31. In Lalita Kumari v. Government of Uttar Pradesh (2013), a Constitution Bench held that:
- A. FIR can never be registered without a preliminary inquiry
- B. Registration of an FIR is mandatory when information discloses a cognizable offence, with preliminary inquiry allowed only in limited categories
- C. Only a Magistrate can direct registration of an FIR
- D. FIR is optional for cognizable offences
Answer: Registration of an FIR is mandatory when information discloses a cognizable offence, with preliminary inquiry allowed only in limited categories
Explanation: The Court made FIR registration mandatory for cognizable offences, permitting a time-bound preliminary inquiry (about a week) only in categories such as matrimonial, commercial, medical negligence and corruption cases.
32. In Joseph Shine v. Union of India (2018), the Supreme Court struck down which provision?
- A. Section 66A of the IT Act
- B. Section 497 of the IPC (adultery)
- C. Section 124A of the IPC
- D. Section 377 of the IPC in its entirety
Answer: Section 497 of the IPC (adultery)
Explanation: A five-judge bench unanimously struck down Section 497 IPC as violating Articles 14, 15 and 21 because it treated the wife as the husband's property.
33. D.K. Basu v. State of West Bengal (1997) laid down guidelines on:
- A. Arrest and detention, including an arrest memo and informing a relative, to prevent custodial torture
- B. Sexual harassment at workplace
- C. Reservation in promotions
- D. Electoral funding
Answer: Arrest and detention, including an arrest memo and informing a relative, to prevent custodial torture
Explanation: The Court issued mandatory arrest and detention safeguards: an arrest memo attested by a witness, informing a relative, and medical examination of the arrestee at regular intervals.
34. Which Supreme Court judgment (2006) on police reforms directed a minimum tenure for the Director General of Police and the creation of State Security Commissions?
- A. D.K. Basu v. State of West Bengal
- B. Arnesh Kumar v. State of Bihar
- C. Vineet Narain v. Union of India
- D. Prakash Singh v. Union of India
Answer: Prakash Singh v. Union of India
Explanation: Prakash Singh (2006) issued seven directives including a two-year minimum tenure for the DGP, State Security Commissions, and separation of investigation from law and order.
35. Hussainara Khatoon v. State of Bihar (1979) is landmark for establishing which principle under Article 21?
- A. Right to privacy
- B. Right to speedy trial and free legal aid, leading to release of undertrials
- C. Right to strike
- D. Right to clean environment
Answer: Right to speedy trial and free legal aid, leading to release of undertrials
Explanation: Following reports on thousands of undertrials languishing in Bihar jails, the Court held that speedy trial is part of Article 21 and the State must provide free legal aid.
36. Unni Krishnan J.P. v. State of Andhra Pradesh (1993) held that the right to education is a fundamental right flowing from Article 21 up to what age?
- A. 6 years
- B. 18 years
- C. 16 years
- D. 14 years
Answer: 14 years
Explanation: The Court read the right to free education up to age 14 into Article 21 read with Article 45; this paved the way for Article 21A through the 86th Amendment (2002).
37. Waman Rao v. Union of India (1981) fixed which date as the cut-off for testing Ninth Schedule laws on the basic structure doctrine?
- A. 25 June 1975
- B. 24 April 1973
- C. 26 January 1950
- D. 3 April 1993
Answer: 24 April 1973
Explanation: The Court held that Ninth Schedule laws placed before 24 April 1973 (the Kesavananda Bharati judgment date) are immune, while later additions can be tested against the basic structure.
38. Under the Third Judges Case opinion (1998, on a Presidential reference under Article 143), the Supreme Court collegium for appointments consists of the Chief Justice of India and how many senior-most judges?
- A. Three
- B. Six
- C. Two
- D. Four
Answer: Four
Explanation: The 1998 opinion enlarged the collegium from the CJI plus two (Second Judges Case, 1993) to the CJI plus four senior-most judges.
39. Rameshwar Prasad v. Union of India (2006) held which of the following unconstitutional?
- A. The Ninth Schedule amendments
- B. The 42nd Amendment in its entirety
- C. The 2005 dissolution of the Bihar Assembly on a mala fide Governor's report
- D. The Presidential reference on Ayodhya
Answer: The 2005 dissolution of the Bihar Assembly on a mala fide Governor's report
Explanation: The Court held the dissolution of the Bihar Assembly (2005) under Article 356 unconstitutional, stressing that the Governor's report was based on extraneous considerations to prevent a post-poll alliance.
40. In Nabam Rebia v. Deputy Speaker (2016), a Constitution Bench held that the Governor of Arunachal Pradesh:
- A. Could dissolve the Assembly without Cabinet advice
- B. Could not advance or summon the Assembly session on his own, without the aid and advice of the Council of Ministers
- C. Could remove the Speaker
- D. Could dismiss the Chief Minister at will
Answer: Could not advance or summon the Assembly session on his own, without the aid and advice of the Council of Ministers
Explanation: The Court held that Article 174 powers of summoning the House are exercised on ministerial advice, and the Governor's discretion under Article 163 is limited to cases the Constitution expressly provides.
41. In Shamsher Singh v. State of Punjab (1974), the Supreme Court held that the President and the Governor:
- A. Can ignore ministerial advice in all executive matters
- B. Act on the aid and advice of the Council of Ministers except where the Constitution requires discretion
- C. Are bound by the Chief Justice's advice
- D. Act independently on all appointments
Answer: Act on the aid and advice of the Council of Ministers except where the Constitution requires discretion
Explanation: A seven-judge bench held that the President and Governors are constitutional heads who exercise powers through the Council of Ministers, save in the limited spheres of constitutional discretion.
42. Which Constitutional Amendment abolished the classification of States into Parts A, B, C and D and created States and Union Territories?
- A. Third Amendment (1954)
- B. First Amendment (1951)
- C. Fourteenth Amendment (1962)
- D. Seventh Amendment (1956)
Answer: Seventh Amendment (1956)
Explanation: The Seventh Amendment, passed alongside the States Reorganisation Act 1956, replaced the four-fold classification with 14 States and 6 Union Territories.
43. Article 31C, inserted by the 25th Amendment (1971), gave primacy over Articles 14 and 19 to laws implementing which Directive Principles?
- A. Article 39(b) and 39(c)
- B. Articles 43 and 44
- C. Articles 41 and 45
- D. Articles 38 and 39A
Answer: Article 39(b) and 39(c)
Explanation: Article 31C originally protected laws giving effect to Article 39(b) and (c). The 42nd Amendment extended it to all Directive Principles, but Minerva Mills (1980) struck down that extension.
44. The 24th Constitutional Amendment (1971), enacted after the Golak Nath case, did which of the following?
- A. Added the Ninth Schedule
- B. Made the President's assent to a Constitution Amendment Bill obligatory
- C. Inserted Article 31C
- D. Abolished the privy purses of former rulers
Answer: Made the President's assent to a Constitution Amendment Bill obligatory
Explanation: The 24th Amendment amended Article 368 and Article 13 so that Parliament's amending power covers Fundamental Rights, and made the President's assent to an amendment Bill compulsory.
45. In Koppen's classification as applied to India, the 'Am' (tropical monsoon) climate is characteristic of:
- A. The Thar desert
- B. The western coastal strip (Konkan and Malabar)
- C. The Ganga plain
- D. The Kashmir valley
Answer: The western coastal strip (Konkan and Malabar)
Explanation: The Am type with heavy monsoon rain and a short dry season covers the Western Ghats' windward coast; the Thar is BWhw and the Ganga plain Cwg.
46. The Alai Darwaza in the Qutb complex, built in 1311, is noted in Indo-Islamic architecture for:
- A. The first use of true arch and dome with voussoirs and red sandstone with white marble inlay
- B. The first Charbagh garden
- C. The first use of the double dome
- D. The first pietra dura work
Answer: The first use of true arch and dome with voussoirs and red sandstone with white marble inlay
Explanation: Built by Alauddin Khalji, the Alai Darwaza shows the first scientific use of true arches and domes in India, with Seljuk-influenced decoration of red sandstone and white marble.
47. The Ramappa (Rudreshwara) Temple in Telangana, inscribed as a UNESCO World Heritage Site in 2021, was built under which dynasty?
- A. Hoysala
- B. Chola
- C. Kakatiya
- D. Chalukya of Badami
Answer: Kakatiya
Explanation: The temple was built around 1213 CE under the Kakatiya ruler Ganapati Deva, with his general Recherla Rudra as the patron, and is known for its floating bricks and sandbox foundation.
48. Which Sanskrit theatre tradition of Kerala, performed by the Chakyar community with the mizhavu drum, was proclaimed a UNESCO Masterpiece of Intangible Heritage in 2001 (inscribed 2008)?
- A. Koodiyattam
- B. Kathakali
- C. Yakshagana
- D. Theyyam
Answer: Koodiyattam
Explanation: Koodiyattam is India's oldest surviving Sanskrit theatre, performed in temple theatres (koothambalams) by Chakyars and Nangiars, with the mizhavu accompanying the actors.
49. 'Phad' paintings, long cloth scrolls used by bhopas to narrate folk epics, mainly depict the story of which folk deity of Rajasthan?
- A. Gogaji
- B. Pabuji
- C. Tejaji
- D. Ramdevji
Answer: Pabuji
Explanation: Pabuji ki Phad of Bhilwara-Shahpura is the best-known; the bhopa sings and dances before the scroll at night, lit by a lamp, while his wife points to the scenes.
50. Which Assam silk, prized for its natural golden-yellow lustre and a Geographical Indication product, is produced only in Assam?
- A. Mulberry silk
- B. Tussar silk
- C. Muga silk
- D. Eri silk
Answer: Muga silk
Explanation: Muga silk is produced by the semi-domesticated silkworm Antheraea assamensis, fed on som and soalu leaves; it is famous for durability and a golden sheen that improves with washing.
51. The National Disaster Response Force (NDRF) is a specialist force. What is the correct administrative arrangement under Section 45 of the DM Act, 2005?
- A. Command vests in the National Authority; control vests in the Army Chief
- B. Both control and command vest in the State Chief Secretary
- C. Command vests in the Railway Board Chairman during rail accidents
- D. General superintendence, direction and control vest in the National Authority; command and supervision vest in a Director-General appointed by the Central Government
Answer: General superintendence, direction and control vest in the National Authority; command and supervision vest in a Director-General appointed by the Central Government
Explanation: Section 45 splits the two functions: the National Authority holds general superintendence, direction and control, while the Director-General appointed by the Central Government holds command and supervision of the force.
52. Under Section 45 of the DM Act, 2005, how are control and command of the National Disaster Response Force divided?
- A. Control vests in the District Magistrate and command in the senior-most CAPF officer present
- B. General superintendence, direction and control vest in the National Authority, while command and supervision vest in a Director General appointed by the Central Government
- C. Both control and command vest in the Chief of Army Staff
- D. Both control and command vest in the State Disaster Management Authority of the state of deployment
Answer: General superintendence, direction and control vest in the National Authority, while command and supervision vest in a Director General appointed by the Central Government
Explanation: Section 45 vests the general superintendence, direction and control of the NDRF in the National Authority (NDMA), and its command and supervision in an officer appointed by the Central Government as Director General of the Force.
53. Which of the following best describes the legal position where an accused convicted under Section 3 of the RP(UP) Act seeks suspension of sentence pending appeal, in terms of the factors a court weighs?
- A. Suspension of sentence is completely barred by law for any RP(UP) Act conviction
- B. Courts weigh factors such as the nature and gravity of the offence, the length of sentence already undergone, whether the appeal raises arguable substantial questions, and the likelihood of the appellant absconding, applying the same general principles used for suspension of sentence under ordinary criminal appellate practice
- C. Only the Railway Board can decide on suspension of sentence, not any court
- D. Suspension is automatic and mandatory the moment an appeal is filed, with no judicial discretion
Answer: Courts weigh factors such as the nature and gravity of the offence, the length of sentence already undergone, whether the appeal raises arguable substantial questions, and the likelihood of the appellant absconding, applying the same general principles used for suspension of sentence under ordinary criminal appellate practice
Explanation: Suspension of sentence pending appeal under an RP(UP) Act conviction follows the same general appellate principles applicable to criminal convictions — courts weigh offence gravity, sentence length, arguability of the appeal, and flight risk — rather than being governed by any special automatic bar or automatic grant unique to this Act.
54. Under Section 8 of the RP(UP) Act, where an officer of the Force inquiring into a charge forwards the accused to a Magistrate, which of the following correctly describes what must ALSO accompany the forwarding, consistent with the Act's evidentiary scheme?
- A. The property must be destroyed before forwarding to avoid storage costs
- B. The relevant case records, seized property/property list, and statements/evidence gathered during the inquiry, so the Magistrate has the material necessary to take cognizance and proceed with trial
- C. Nothing further is required; the Magistrate must try the case with no supporting material at all
- D. Only an oral briefing by telephone is sufficient, with no written record
Answer: The relevant case records, seized property/property list, and statements/evidence gathered during the inquiry, so the Magistrate has the material necessary to take cognizance and proceed with trial
Explanation: Proper forwarding under Section 8 requires that the Magistrate receive the inquiry records, seized property particulars, and evidence/statements gathered, enabling the Magistrate to take cognizance and conduct trial on a complete record — an undocumented or evidence-less forwarding undermines the entire prosecution.
55. On which date did the Railway Property (Unlawful Possession) Act, 1966 come into force, the Central Government having appointed the date by notification under Section 1(3)?
- A. 16 September 1966
- B. 26 January 1967
- C. 1 April 1968
- D. 1 July 1957
Answer: 1 April 1968
Explanation: Though enacted in 1966 (Act 29 of 1966), the Act came into force on 1 April 1968 on the date appointed by the Central Government by notification; the Railway Stores (Unlawful Possession) Act, 1955 was repealed from then.
56. Under Section 12 of the RP(UP) Act, 1966, which persons are empowered and required to assist superior officers and members of the Force in enforcing the Act?
- A. Only officers of the State police
- B. Only railway servants of the commercial department
- C. All officers of Government and all village officers
- D. Only members of the Railway Claims Tribunal
Answer: All officers of Government and all village officers
Explanation: Section 12 (officers required to assist) empowers and requires all officers of Government and all village officers to assist superior officers and members of the Force in enforcing the Act.
57. An Inspector is reviewing whether a prosecution under the RP(UP) Act can proceed even though the specific railway zone from which the property was allegedly stolen cannot be conclusively identified, but its being 'railway property' is established. Which is correct?
- A. Identification of the originating zone is legally irrelevant even to the choice of which railway officials testify
- B. Yes, prosecution can proceed; the offence under the Act turns on the property being railway property and unlawfully possessed, not on pinpointing the exact originating zone/division, though the originating zone may matter for which railway administration's officials provide ownership evidence
- C. The case can proceed only if the Railway Board itself certifies the zone of origin in writing
- D. No, the case must fail entirely unless the exact zone of origin is proved beyond doubt
Answer: Yes, prosecution can proceed; the offence under the Act turns on the property being railway property and unlawfully possessed, not on pinpointing the exact originating zone/division, though the originating zone may matter for which railway administration's officials provide ownership evidence
Explanation: The offence is defined by the property's status as railway property and the accused's unlawful possession, not by conclusively tracing the exact originating railway zone. Practically, however, identifying which railway administration owns/controls the property helps secure competent ownership witnesses and documentary proof, so investigators still try to establish it where feasible.
58. An Inspector is asked to distinguish between the RP(UP) Act offence and the offence of 'dishonestly receiving stolen property' applicable under criminal law, for a scrap dealer who buys railway fishplates knowing them to be stolen. Which is the most precise statement?
- A. Both offences may be simultaneously available on the same facts; the RP(UP) Act offence does not require proof that the dealer specifically knew the property was stolen (reasonable suspicion plus failure to account suffices), whereas the general receiving-stolen-property offence requires proof of actual guilty knowledge, making the RP(UP) Act often easier to prove and hence preferred
- B. The RP(UP) Act offence can never apply to scrap dealers, only to the original thief
- C. General receiving-stolen-property law is always easier to prove than the RP(UP) Act because it also has a reverse-onus clause
- D. The two offences are mutually exclusive and a prosecutor must elect one before filing the chargesheet
Answer: Both offences may be simultaneously available on the same facts; the RP(UP) Act offence does not require proof that the dealer specifically knew the property was stolen (reasonable suspicion plus failure to account suffices), whereas the general receiving-stolen-property offence requires proof of actual guilty knowledge, making the RP(UP) Act often easier to prove and hence preferred
Explanation: The RP(UP) Act's distinctive strength is that it does not require proof of actual knowledge that property was stolen — only possession plus reasonable suspicion plus failure to satisfactorily account. General receiving-stolen-property offences require mens rea (knowledge/belief it was stolen) to be proved affirmatively by the prosecution, which is harder. This is precisely why the RP(UP) Act was enacted as a supplementary, easier-to-prosecute special law.
59. For which Indian Penal Code provisions does Section 9 of the RP(UP) Act deem an inquiry by an officer of the Force to be a judicial proceeding, and what are their BNS 2023 counterparts?
- A. IPC 193 and 228, corresponding to BNS 229 and 267
- B. IPC 420 and 468, corresponding to BNS 318 and 336
- C. IPC 186 and 353, corresponding to BNS 221 and 132
- D. IPC 302 and 304, corresponding to BNS 103 and 105
Answer: IPC 193 and 228, corresponding to BNS 229 and 267
Explanation: Section 9 deems the inquiry a judicial proceeding for the purposes of IPC sections 193 (false evidence) and 228 (intentional insult or interruption to a public servant sitting in a judicial proceeding); these correspond to BNS sections 229 and 267.
60. Under proviso (a) to Section 8(2) of the RP(UP) Act, 1966, what may the officer of the Force do when the inquiry discloses sufficient evidence or reasonable ground of suspicion against the arrested person?
- A. Close the case after taking an undertaking
- B. Admit him to bail to appear before the Magistrate, or forward him in custody to the Magistrate
- C. Convict him and impose a fine on the spot
- D. Hand him over to the railway administration for departmental penalty
Answer: Admit him to bail to appear before the Magistrate, or forward him in custody to the Magistrate
Explanation: Where there is sufficient evidence or reasonable ground of suspicion, the officer of the Force either admits the person to bail to appear before the Magistrate having jurisdiction or forwards him in custody to the Magistrate; he has no power to convict or fine.
61. Under Section 7 of the RP(UP) Act, 1966, where a person is arrested for an offence under the Act by someone who is not an officer of the Force, to whom must he be forwarded?
- A. To the District Collector
- B. To the nearest Sessions Judge within seven days
- C. To the Railway Board for departmental action
- D. Without delay, to the nearest officer of the Force
Answer: Without delay, to the nearest officer of the Force
Explanation: Section 7 (disposal of persons arrested) requires a person arrested by someone other than an officer of the Force to be forwarded without delay to the nearest officer of the Force, who then proceeds under Section 8.
62. Section 14 of the RP(UP) Act, 1966 provides that the Act has effect notwithstanding anything inconsistent with it contained in which of the following?
- A. Any other law for the time being in force
- B. Only the Constitution of India
- C. Only the rules of the Railway Board
- D. Only the Railways Act, 1989
Answer: Any other law for the time being in force
Explanation: Section 14 is a non-obstante clause: the provisions of the Act have effect notwithstanding anything inconsistent therewith contained in any other law for the time being in force. It cannot, of course, override the Constitution.
63. An Inspector notices that in one case, the accused was a railway employee found with railway property from their own place of work. How does this fact pattern affect the analysis?
- A. Employees can never be prosecuted under any law for workplace-related property matters
- B. Railway employees are entirely exempt from the RP(UP) Act by virtue of their employment
- C. Only non-employees can be prosecuted under this Act
- D. Employment does not confer blanket immunity; if the possession is unauthorized and outside the scope of legitimate duties, the Act can still apply, though the employment relationship may be relevant to assessing intent, authorization, or an innocent explanation
Answer: Employment does not confer blanket immunity; if the possession is unauthorized and outside the scope of legitimate duties, the Act can still apply, though the employment relationship may be relevant to assessing intent, authorization, or an innocent explanation
Explanation: Being a railway employee does not exempt a person from the Act; unauthorized possession outside legitimate duties can still attract liability, while the employment context is relevant evidence for assessing the explanation offered.
64. An Inspector is reviewing whether a case under the RP(UP) Act was correctly triable by a Magistrate rather than a Sessions Court. Which principle governs this?
- A. Only cases involving locomotives go to Sessions Court
- B. The forum for trial is determined by the punishment prescribed for the offence and the classification (cognizable/non-cognizable, bailable/non-bailable) under the Act read with the general criminal procedure code, with most such cases triable by Magistrates given the punishment range
- C. All RP(UP) Act cases must always go directly to the High Court
- D. Trial forum depends solely on the accused's request
Answer: The forum for trial is determined by the punishment prescribed for the offence and the classification (cognizable/non-cognizable, bailable/non-bailable) under the Act read with the general criminal procedure code, with most such cases triable by Magistrates given the punishment range
Explanation: Trial forum allocation under Indian criminal procedure follows the severity of prescribed punishment; RP(UP) Act offences, given their punishment range, are triable by Magistrates.
65. Under Section 10 of the RP(UP) Act, 1966, on what ground may an officer of the Force apply to a Magistrate for a search warrant?
- A. He has received an anonymous complaint about any railway employee
- B. The occupier has refused to pay a railway claim
- C. He has reason to believe that a place is used for the deposit or sale of stolen or unlawfully obtained railway property
- D. The place lies within five kilometres of a railway line
Answer: He has reason to believe that a place is used for the deposit or sale of stolen or unlawfully obtained railway property
Explanation: Section 10 of the Act lets an officer of the Force who has reason to believe that a place is used for the deposit or sale of stolen or unlawfully obtained railway property apply to the Magistrate having jurisdiction for a search warrant; the warrant authorises entry, search and seizure.
66. The Atal Pension Yojana, launched on 9 May 2015 for unorganised-sector workers, guarantees a fixed monthly pension after age 60 in the range of:
- A. Rs 3,000 to Rs 15,000
- B. Rs 500 to Rs 2,000
- C. Rs 2,000 to Rs 10,000
- D. Rs 1,000 to Rs 5,000
Answer: Rs 1,000 to Rs 5,000
Explanation: APY is open to subscribers aged 18-40 with a bank account and is administered by PFRDA.
67. The Pradhan Mantri Ujjwala Yojana, providing LPG connections to women of poor households, was launched on 1 May 2016 from:
- A. Panipat, Haryana
- B. Patna, Bihar
- C. Varanasi, Uttar Pradesh
- D. Ballia, Uttar Pradesh
Answer: Ballia, Uttar Pradesh
Explanation: Ujjwala was launched at Ballia; Panipat is where Beti Bachao Beti Padhao began in January 2015.
68. The Swachh Bharat Mission, launched on 2 October 2014, was started to mark the birth anniversary of Mahatma Gandhi, and its target year was:
- A. 2025
- B. 2047
- C. 2022, 75 years of Independence
- D. 2019, Gandhi's 150th birth anniversary
Answer: 2019, Gandhi's 150th birth anniversary
Explanation: The mission targeted an Open Defecation Free India by 2 October 2019; Phase II (2020-21 to 2024-25) focuses on sustaining ODF status and waste management.
69. The PM POSHAN scheme, approved in September 2021, is the renamed and expanded version of which scheme?
- A. Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan
- B. Beti Bachao Beti Padhao
- C. Integrated Child Development Services
- D. Mid-Day Meal Scheme
Answer: Mid-Day Meal Scheme
Explanation: PM POSHAN (Pradhan Mantri Poshan Shakti Nirman) covers pre-primary to Class 8 children in government and aided schools.
70. Cyclone Mocha, which struck Myanmar and Bangladesh in May 2023, received its name from:
- A. India
- B. Yemen
- C. Saudi Arabia
- D. Sri Lanka
Answer: Yemen
Explanation: The name refers to the Yemeni port city of Mokha, famous for coffee.
71. The Unified Payments Interface (UPI), developed by NPCI, was launched in which year?
- A. 2012
- B. 2020
- C. 2018
- D. 2016
Answer: 2016
Explanation: UPI was launched on 11 April 2016, with Raghuram Rajan as RBI Governor, and enables instant interbank transfers through a virtual payment address.
72. The Beti Bachao Beti Padhao scheme, aimed at improving the child sex ratio, was launched on 22 January 2015 from:
- A. Chandigarh
- B. Jaipur, Rajasthan
- C. Ballia, Uttar Pradesh
- D. Panipat, Haryana
Answer: Panipat, Haryana
Explanation: The scheme was started in Haryana, one of the states with the lowest child sex ratio, and is run jointly by the Women and Child Development, Health and Education ministries.
73. The Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana for universal access to bank accounts was launched on:
- A. 2 October 2014
- B. 28 August 2014
- C. 26 January 2016
- D. 15 August 2015
Answer: 28 August 2014
Explanation: PMJDY, launched on 28 August 2014, offers zero-balance accounts with RuPay debit cards and accident insurance.
74. ChatGPT, the chatbot that popularised generative AI, was publicly released on 30 November 2022 by:
- A. Anthropic
- B. Meta
- C. Google DeepMind
- D. OpenAI
Answer: OpenAI
Explanation: OpenAI released ChatGPT, initially based on the GPT-3.5 model, in late November 2022.
75. The James Webb Space Telescope, launched on 25 December 2021 from French Guiana, is operated by NASA together with:
- A. Roscosmos and CNSA
- B. ESA and ISRO
- C. ESA and the Canadian Space Agency
- D. ISRO and JAXA
Answer: ESA and the Canadian Space Agency
Explanation: JWST, an infrared observatory, is stationed at the Sun-Earth L2 point and was launched on an Ariane 5 rocket.
76. Draupadi Murmu, sworn in on 25 July 2022, is India's which President and the first from which community?
- A. 16th President; first tribal
- B. 14th President; first Dalit
- C. 15th President; first tribal
- D. 15th President; first Muslim
Answer: 15th President; first tribal
Explanation: Murmu succeeded Ram Nath Kovind as the 15th President and is the second woman to hold the office after Pratibha Patil.
77. Cyclone Michaung, which made landfall near Bapatla in Andhra Pradesh in December 2023, was named by:
- A. Thailand
- B. Yemen
- C. Oman
- D. Myanmar
Answer: Myanmar
Explanation: Michaung (pronounced 'Migjaum') was contributed by Myanmar from the WMO/ESCAP panel list.
78. The International Solar Alliance, launched at COP21 in Paris in November 2015 by India and France, has its headquarters at:
- A. New Delhi
- B. Gurugram, Haryana
- C. Abu Dhabi
- D. Paris
Answer: Gurugram, Haryana
Explanation: The ISA, a treaty-based body, is headquartered at the National Institute of Solar Energy campus in Gurugram.
79. Land subsidence in January 2023 forced the evacuation of many families from which Himalayan town in Uttarakhand's Chamoli district?
- A. Almora
- B. Mussoorie
- C. Joshimath
- D. Pithoragarh
Answer: Joshimath
Explanation: Joshimath, the gateway to Badrinath and Hemkund Sahib, developed deep cracks in houses and roads in January 2023.
80. A District Magistrate exercising Section 34 powers of the DM Act during a disaster can direct which of the following in an affected area?
- A. Amend the Constitution
- B. Remove debris and rescue by controlling entry and evacuating people from vulnerable places
- C. Alter railway tariff
- D. Cancel the election schedule of the state
Answer: Remove debris and rescue by controlling entry and evacuating people from vulnerable places
Explanation: Section 34 powers include evacuation, controlling traffic and access, removing debris, providing relief and ensuring communication links.
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