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2401. Which agency is the nodal agency for landslide hazard zonation and monitoring in India?
  1. A. Survey of India
  2. B. Central Water Commission
  3. C. Border Roads Organisation
  4. D. Geological Survey of India
Answer: Geological Survey of India
Explanation: GSI, under the Ministry of Mines, is the nodal agency for landslide susceptibility mapping and the National Landslide Susceptibility Mapping programme.
2402. The Malin landslide that buried an entire village in Maharashtra's Pune district occurred in which year?
  1. A. 2010
  2. B. 2019
  3. C. 2005
  4. D. 2014
Answer: 2014
Explanation: The Malin village in Ambegaon taluka of Pune district was buried by a landslide on 30 July 2014 after heavy rain.
2403. The Wayanad landslides that killed hundreds in Mundakkai and Chooralmala occurred in which year?
  1. A. 2018
  2. B. 2020
  3. C. 2022
  4. D. 2024
Answer: 2024
Explanation: The Wayanad landslides occurred in the early hours of 30 July 2024 after extremely heavy rainfall in Kerala.
2404. The Kosi flood of August 2008 in Bihar was caused by a breach of the embankment at which place?
  1. A. Kusaha in Nepal
  2. B. Hirakud in Odisha
  3. C. Farakka in West Bengal
  4. D. Tehri in Uttarakhand
Answer: Kusaha in Nepal
Explanation: The Kosi breached its eastern embankment at Kusaha, Nepal, on 18 August 2008 and shifted course, affecting Supaul, Madhepura, Araria and Saharsa; the river is known as the Sorrow of Bihar.
2405. In which month and year did the Kedarnath flash floods and landslides in Uttarakhand occur?
  1. A. June 2013
  2. B. August 2008
  3. C. September 2014
  4. D. July 2005
Answer: June 2013
Explanation: The Kedarnath disaster occurred in mid-June 2013 due to extremely heavy rain and the Chorabari lake burst; the Kosi flood in Bihar was in August 2008 and the Mumbai deluge in July 2005.
2406. The 26 December 2004 Indian Ocean tsunami was triggered by an undersea earthquake off the coast of which island?
  1. A. Andaman
  2. B. Sumatra
  3. C. Java
  4. D. Sri Lanka
Answer: Sumatra
Explanation: The Mw 9.1-9.3 earthquake occurred off the west coast of northern Sumatra, Indonesia, generating a tsunami that killed over 200,000 people across the region, including in Tamil Nadu and the Andaman and Nicobar Islands.
2407. The 8 October 2005 earthquake that devastated Muzaffarabad and parts of Uri in Jammu and Kashmir had an epicentre near which place?
  1. A. Bhuj in Gujarat
  2. B. Chamoli in Uttarakhand
  3. C. Latur in Maharashtra
  4. D. Muzaffarabad region in Kashmir (Balakot area)
Answer: Muzaffarabad region in Kashmir (Balakot area)
Explanation: The Mw 7.6 earthquake struck on 8 October 2005 with its epicentre in the Muzaffarabad-Balakot region of Kashmir, causing severe damage in Uri and Tangdhar on the Indian side.

2408. The 1993 Killari (Latur) earthquake struck on which date?

  1. A. 30 September 1993
  2. B. 20 October 1991
  3. C. 29 March 1999
  4. D. 8 October 2005
Answer: 30 September 1993
Explanation: Killari earthquake: 30 September 1993 (Maharashtra). Uttarkashi was on 20 October 1991, Chamoli on 29 March 1999 and the Kashmir earthquake on 8 October 2005.
2409. The 2001 Bhuj earthquake of 26 January struck Gujarat with a moment magnitude of about:
  1. A. 8.6
  2. B. 5.8
  3. C. 6.2
  4. D. 7.7
Answer: 7.7
Explanation: The Bhuj earthquake of 26 January 2001 had Mw 7.7; the 1993 Latur (Killari) earthquake, which occurred on 30 September, was about 6.2.

2410. The Modified Mercalli Intensity scale measures an earthquake's:

  1. A. Depth of the hypocentre
  2. B. Energy released at the focus
  3. C. Observed effects and damage at a given location, on a scale of I to XII
  4. D. Duration of aftershocks
Answer: Observed effects and damage at a given location, on a scale of I to XII
Explanation: MMI is a qualitative intensity scale (I to XII) based on shaking effects, unlike magnitude scales such as Richter or moment magnitude which measure source size.
2411. On the Richter scale, an increase of one whole number in magnitude corresponds to roughly how much increase in the energy released?
  1. A. About 32 times
  2. B. About 2 times
  3. C. About 100 times
  4. D. About 10 times
Answer: About 32 times
Explanation: Each whole number increase means tenfold greater ground-motion amplitude and about 31.6 times more energy released.
2412. Which seismic wave type travels fastest and is the first to be recorded on a seismograph?
  1. A. Secondary (S) waves
  2. B. Love waves
  3. C. Primary (P) waves
  4. D. Rayleigh waves
Answer: Primary (P) waves
Explanation: P-waves are compressional body waves, faster than S-waves; S-waves cannot travel through liquids, and surface waves (Love and Rayleigh) arrive last but cause the greatest damage.
2413. Approximately what share of India's land area is vulnerable to moderate to severe earthquake intensity (Zones III to V), as stated in NDMA publications?
  1. A. About 10 per cent
  2. B. About 25 per cent
  3. C. About 85 per cent
  4. D. About 59 per cent
Answer: About 59 per cent
Explanation: NDMA states that nearly 59 per cent of India's landmass is prone to moderate to severe seismic hazard, about 12 per cent to floods, and 68 per cent of net sown area to drought.
2414. How many seismic zones does the current BIS earthquake zoning map of India (2002 revision) have?
  1. A. Six
  2. B. Three
  3. C. Four (Zones II to V)
  4. D. Five (Zones I to V)
Answer: Four (Zones II to V)
Explanation: The 2002 revision removed Zone I and merged it into Zone II, leaving four zones: II (low), III (moderate), IV (severe) and V (very severe).
2415. In the BIS seismic zoning of India (IS 1893), which zone factor value is assigned to Zone V, the most severe zone?
  1. A. 0.16
  2. B. 0.10
  3. C. 0.24
  4. D. 0.36
Answer: 0.36
Explanation: IS 1893 (Part 1) assigns zone factors Z of 0.10 (II), 0.16 (III), 0.24 (IV) and 0.36 (V); Zone I was merged into Zone II in the 2002 revision.
2416. Cyclone Biparjoy, which hit Gujarat's Kutch coast in June 2023, was named by which country?
  1. A. Pakistan
  2. B. Oman
  3. C. Bangladesh
  4. D. Thailand
Answer: Bangladesh
Explanation: Biparjoy (meaning disaster in Bengali) was the name contributed by Bangladesh; it made landfall near Jakhau in Kutch on 15 June 2023.
2417. Cyclone names for the North Indian Ocean are proposed by member countries of which regional body, with RSMC New Delhi allotting them?
  1. A. Asian Disaster Preparedness Centre
  2. B. SAARC Disaster Management Centre
  3. C. WMO/ESCAP Panel on Tropical Cyclones
  4. D. BIMSTEC Secretariat
Answer: WMO/ESCAP Panel on Tropical Cyclones
Explanation: The WMO/ESCAP Panel countries contribute names in rotation; India Meteorological Department's RSMC New Delhi names storms forming in the basin. Amphan, for example, was named by Thailand and Tauktae by Myanmar.
2418. Which cyclone struck Odisha in May 2019, leading to the evacuation of over a million people ahead of landfall near Puri?
  1. A. Cyclone Amphan
  2. B. Cyclone Phailin
  3. C. Cyclone Hudhud
  4. D. Cyclone Fani
Answer: Cyclone Fani
Explanation: Fani made landfall near Puri on 3 May 2019; the pre-emptive evacuation by Odisha's OSDMA is cited as a model for early warning dissemination and low casualties.
2419. In the IMD classification of cyclonic disturbances, a 'Very Severe Cyclonic Storm' has maximum sustained wind speed in which range?
  1. A. 62 to 88 km per hour
  2. B. 118 to 165 km per hour
  3. C. 166 to 220 km per hour
  4. D. 89 to 117 km per hour
Answer: 118 to 165 km per hour
Explanation: IMD: cyclonic storm 62-88, severe 89-117, very severe 118-165, extremely severe 166-220 and super cyclonic storm above 220 km/h.
2420. In the IMD's colour-coded weather warning system, which colour indicates 'take action'?
  1. A. Red
  2. B. Orange
  3. C. Yellow
  4. D. Green
Answer: Red
Explanation: IMD uses green (no action), yellow (be aware), orange (be prepared) and red (take action) in its warning bulletins.
2421. The Indian Tsunami Early Warning Centre, operational since 2007, is hosted by which institution?
  1. A. NIO, Goa
  2. B. INCOIS, Hyderabad
  3. C. IMD, New Delhi
  4. D. NDMA, New Delhi
Answer: INCOIS, Hyderabad
Explanation: The Indian National Centre for Ocean Information Services (INCOIS), Hyderabad, under the Ministry of Earth Sciences, runs the ITEWC established after the December 2004 tsunami.
2422. Which organisation, under the DRDO, is responsible for research and forecasting on snow avalanches in the Himalayas?
  1. A. Geological Survey of India
  2. B. Survey of India
  3. C. National Institute of Disaster Management
  4. D. Snow and Avalanche Study Establishment, Chandigarh
Answer: Snow and Avalanche Study Establishment, Chandigarh
Explanation: SASE, a DRDO laboratory based in Chandigarh, studies snow and avalanche hazards and issues avalanche forecasts for the Himalayan region.
2423. Which agency issues flood forecasts for major rivers in India and is under the Ministry of Jal Shakti?
  1. A. Snow and Avalanche Study Establishment
  2. B. National Remote Sensing Centre
  3. C. Central Water Commission
  4. D. India Meteorological Department
Answer: Central Water Commission
Explanation: CWC operates a network of flood forecasting stations and issues level forecasts on major rivers; IMD supplies rainfall inputs.
2424. Which agency is the nodal agency under the NDMP for early warning and forecasting of cyclones, heat waves and cold waves?
  1. A. Indian National Centre for Ocean Information Services
  2. B. India Meteorological Department
  3. C. Central Water Commission
  4. D. Geological Survey of India
Answer: India Meteorological Department
Explanation: IMD under the Ministry of Earth Sciences issues cyclone, heat wave and cold wave warnings; CWC handles flood forecasts, GSI landslides, and INCOIS tsunami and ocean state advisories.
2425. The NDMA guidelines on management of crowds at events and venues of mass gathering were published in which year?
  1. A. 2019
  2. B. 2014
  3. C. 2010
  4. D. 2007
Answer: 2014
Explanation: NDMA published 'Managing Crowds at Events and Venues of Mass Gathering: A Guide for State Governments, Local Administration, Event Organizers and Police' in 2014.
2426. Which NDMA guideline year corresponds to 'Management of Nuclear and Radiological Emergencies'?
  1. A. 2009
  2. B. 2012
  3. C. 2005
  4. D. 2016
Answer: 2009
Explanation: NDMA issued guidelines on Nuclear and Radiological Emergencies in 2009, alongside landslides and snow avalanches; guidelines on earthquakes (2007) and floods and cyclones (2008) came earlier.
2427. In the IRS, who is the Responsible Officer at the district level?
  1. A. The Superintendent of Police
  2. B. The Chief Medical Officer
  3. C. The District Magistrate
  4. D. The Divisional Railway Manager
Answer: The District Magistrate
Explanation: The IRS guidelines designate the District Magistrate as the Responsible Officer (RO) at the district level, who appoints the Incident Commander for a specific incident.
2428. In the IRS, the Information and Media Officer, Safety Officer and Liaison Officer form part of which group?
  1. A. The Command Staff
  2. B. The Finance Unit
  3. C. The General Staff of Operations
  4. D. The Staging Area team
Answer: The Command Staff
Explanation: These three officers are Command Staff reporting directly to the Incident Commander, as distinct from the General Staff (Section Chiefs).
2429. In the Incident Response System, what is the recommended optimum span of control for a supervisor?
  1. A. One supervisor for about five subordinates (range three to seven)
  2. B. One supervisor for a single subordinate
  3. C. One supervisor for ten to fifteen subordinates
  4. D. One supervisor for twenty subordinates
Answer: One supervisor for about five subordinates (range three to seven)
Explanation: IRS, like the ICS, adopts a manageable span of control of 3 to 7, with 5 considered ideal; when exceeded the structure is expanded by creating new branches or divisions.
2430. Under the IRS, which Section is responsible for preparing the Incident Action Plan (IAP)?
  1. A. Planning Section
  2. B. Finance and Administration Section
  3. C. Logistics Section
  4. D. Operations Section
Answer: Planning Section
Explanation: The Planning Section collects and evaluates information, maintains resource status and prepares the Incident Action Plan; Operations executes it and Logistics supplies resources.
2431. Which five functional sections make up the Incident Response System structure in India?
  1. A. Command, Operations, Planning, Logistics, and Finance and Administration
  2. B. Command, Intelligence, Police, Medical, and Media
  3. C. Operations, Rescue, Relief, Rehabilitation, and Reconstruction
  4. D. Alert, Evacuation, Shelter, Food, and Health
Answer: Command, Operations, Planning, Logistics, and Finance and Administration
Explanation: IRS has Command staff and the Operations, Planning, Logistics and Finance/Administration sections; the Intelligence/Investigation function of the US ICS is not a separate IRS section.
2432. The Incident Response System guidelines issued by the NDMA were released in which year?
  1. A. 2019
  2. B. 2010
  3. C. 2005
  4. D. 2014
Answer: 2010
Explanation: NDMA issued the National Disaster Management Guidelines on the Incident Response System in 2010 to introduce a standardised, scalable command structure for disasters.
2433. The International Day for Disaster Risk Reduction is observed every year on:
  1. A. 13 October
  2. B. 26 December
  3. C. 14 April
  4. D. 5 June
Answer: 13 October
Explanation: 13 October is the International Day for Disaster Risk Reduction (UN General Assembly); 14 April is the National Fire Service Day in India, remembering the 1944 Bombay Docks explosion.
2434. Which UN body is the focal point for coordinating implementation of the Sendai Framework, and where is it headquartered?
  1. A. UN Office for Disaster Risk Reduction (UNDRR), Geneva
  2. B. World Meteorological Organization, Vienna
  3. C. UN Development Programme, New York
  4. D. UN Environment Programme, Nairobi
Answer: UN Office for Disaster Risk Reduction (UNDRR), Geneva
Explanation: UNDRR (formerly UNISDR, renamed in 2019) is the UN focal point for DRR coordination and Sendai follow-up, headquartered in Geneva.

2435. Sendai Framework Target (d) relates to which outcome?

  1. A. Reducing the number of affected people
  2. B. Reducing disaster damage to critical infrastructure and disruption of basic services
  3. C. Increasing international cooperation
  4. D. Reducing disaster mortality
Answer: Reducing disaster damage to critical infrastructure and disruption of basic services
Explanation: Target (d) calls for substantially reducing damage to critical infrastructure and disruption of basic services such as health and education facilities, relevant to railways as lifeline infrastructure.

2436. Sendai Framework Target (g) concerns:

  1. A. Reducing direct disaster economic loss relative to global GDP
  2. B. Reducing damage to critical infrastructure
  3. C. Substantially increasing the availability of and access to multi-hazard early warning systems and disaster risk information
  4. D. Reducing global disaster mortality
Answer: Substantially increasing the availability of and access to multi-hazard early warning systems and disaster risk information
Explanation: Of the seven Sendai targets, (a) mortality, (b) number of affected people, (c) economic loss, (d) damage to critical infrastructure and disruption of services, (e) national and local strategies, (f) international cooperation, and (g) multi-hazard early warning and risk information.
2437. Sendai Framework Target (e) aims to substantially increase the number of countries with national and local disaster risk reduction strategies by which year?
  1. A. 2030
  2. B. 2025
  3. C. 2020
  4. D. 2015
Answer: 2020
Explanation: Target (e) sets the year 2020, while the overall Framework runs 2015-2030 and Target (g) on multi-hazard early warning systems is due by 2030.
2438. The International Decade for Natural Disaster Reduction (IDNDR) was observed during which period?
  1. A. 2000-2009
  2. B. 1990-1999
  3. C. 1995-2004
  4. D. 1980-1989
Answer: 1990-1999
Explanation: The UN General Assembly declared the 1990s the IDNDR; the 1994 Yokohama Strategy was its mid-term outcome, and the ISDR succeeded it from 2000.
2439. How many priorities for action did the Hyogo Framework for Action 2005-2015 contain?
  1. A. Five
  2. B. Three
  3. C. Seven
  4. D. Four
Answer: Five
Explanation: HFA had five priorities for action (institutional basis, risk identification and early warning, knowledge and education, reducing underlying risk factors, and preparedness for response) whereas Sendai has four priorities and seven targets.
2440. The Hyogo Framework for Action 2005-2015 was adopted at the World Conference on Disaster Reduction held in which Japanese city?
  1. A. Yokohama
  2. B. Sendai
  3. C. Tokyo
  4. D. Kobe
Answer: Kobe
Explanation: The HFA was adopted at the World Conference on Disaster Reduction at Kobe, Hyogo, in January 2005; Yokohama hosted the 1994 conference and Sendai the 2015 conference.
2441. The Coalition for Disaster Resilient Infrastructure (CDRI) was launched by India at which international event?
  1. A. The Paris climate conference, 2015
  2. B. The UN Climate Action Summit, New York, 2019
  3. C. The Sendai World Conference, 2015
  4. D. The Kobe World Conference, 2005
Answer: The UN Climate Action Summit, New York, 2019
Explanation: India launched CDRI at the UN Climate Action Summit in September 2019; its secretariat is in New Delhi and it works on resilience of infrastructure systems, including railways.
2442. The Asian Ministerial Conference on Disaster Risk Reduction 2016, held in New Delhi, is remembered in India for which declaration?
  1. A. The Prime Minister's Ten Point Agenda on Disaster Risk Reduction
  2. B. The Kobe Action Charter
  3. C. The Yokohama Message
  4. D. The Delhi Declaration on Flood Control
Answer: The Prime Minister's Ten Point Agenda on Disaster Risk Reduction
Explanation: At AMCDRR 2016 (New Delhi, November 2016) the Prime Minister announced a Ten-Point Agenda on DRR, and the conference adopted the Asian Regional Plan for implementing the Sendai Framework.
2443. How many thematic areas for action does the National Disaster Management Plan 2016 identify to align with the Sendai Framework priorities?
  1. A. Five
  2. B. Three
  3. C. Ten
  4. D. Seven
Answer: Five
Explanation: The NDMP groups actions into five thematic areas: understanding risk, inter-agency coordination, investing in DRR through structural measures, investing in DRR through non-structural measures, and capacity development.
2444. The National Disaster Management Plan released in June 2016 was notable for being:
  1. A. The first ever national plan prepared under the DM Act 2005, aligned with the Sendai Framework
  2. B. A plan limited to natural disasters only
  3. C. A plan drafted by the UNDRR for India
  4. D. The first plan to create the NDRF
Answer: The first ever national plan prepared under the DM Act 2005, aligned with the Sendai Framework
Explanation: Released by the Prime Minister on 1 June 2016, the NDMP is the first national plan under the DM Act; it is aligned with the Sendai Framework and covers natural and human-induced disasters. A revised version followed in 2019.
2445. Which of the following is outside the bar on jurisdiction of courts created by Section 71 of the DM Act 2005?
  1. A. Proceedings before a Civil Judge
  2. B. Proceedings before a Magistrate
  3. C. Suits before a District Court
  4. D. Proceedings before the Supreme Court and High Courts
Answer: Proceedings before the Supreme Court and High Courts
Explanation: Section 71 bars every court other than the Supreme Court and the High Courts from entertaining suits or proceedings on anything done under the Act, so constitutional courts remain available.
2446. Which section of the DM Act 2005 confers the power to requisition resources, premises and vehicles for rescue and relief operations?
  1. A. Section 65
  2. B. Section 61
  3. C. Section 71
  4. D. Section 67
Answer: Section 65
Explanation: Section 65 empowers the authorities (and officers authorised by them) to requisition resources, provisions, vehicles and premises needed for rescue operations or relief; compensation provisions follow in section 66.
2447. Under Section 51 of the DM Act 2005, what is the maximum punishment for refusing to comply with a direction given under the Act, if the refusal results in loss of lives or imminent danger?
  1. A. Imprisonment up to two years
  2. B. Imprisonment up to five years
  3. C. Fine only
  4. D. Imprisonment up to one year
Answer: Imprisonment up to two years
Explanation: Section 51 prescribes imprisonment up to one year or fine or both for obstruction or refusal to comply with directions, extended to imprisonment up to two years where loss of lives or imminent danger results.
2448. Which section of the DM Act 2005 deals with emergency procurement and accounting during a threatening disaster situation?
  1. A. Section 70
  2. B. Section 46
  3. C. Section 50
  4. D. Section 62
Answer: Section 50
Explanation: Section 50 allows the NEC, SEC or District Authority, when satisfied that immediate procurement of provisions or materials or the immediate application of resources is necessary, to authorise the department concerned to procure them without the usual tender procedure.
2449. Section 12 of the DM Act 2005 requires the NDMA to recommend guidelines for minimum standards of relief. Which of the following is specifically included?
  1. A. Free higher education for all affected persons
  2. B. Permanent government employment
  3. C. Exemption of all taxes for one year
  4. D. Special provision for widows and orphans
Answer: Special provision for widows and orphans
Explanation: Section 12 minimum standards cover shelter, food, drinking water, medical cover and sanitation, special provisions for widows and orphans, and ex gratia assistance for loss of life and damage to houses and livelihood.
2450. Does the statutory definition of 'disaster' in the DM Act 2005 prescribe a minimum number of casualties or a monetary loss threshold?
  1. A. Yes, at least 100 deaths
  2. B. No, it relies on the event being beyond the coping capacity of the affected community
  3. C. Yes, at least 50,000 persons affected
  4. D. Yes, a loss of at least Rs 100 crore
Answer: No, it relies on the event being beyond the coping capacity of the affected community
Explanation: Section 2(d) contains no numerical threshold; the test is substantial loss or damage of such nature or magnitude as to be beyond the coping capacity of the community.
2451. Under Section 2(d) of the DM Act 2005, a 'disaster' may arise from which of the following causes?
  1. A. Natural or man-made causes, or by accident or negligence
  2. B. Natural causes only
  3. C. Only causes of foreign origin
  4. D. Only events declared by the President
Answer: Natural or man-made causes, or by accident or negligence
Explanation: The definition covers a catastrophe, mishap, calamity or grave occurrence arising from natural or man-made causes, or accident or negligence, causing substantial loss of life, suffering, damage to property or environment beyond the coping capacity of the affected community.
2452. Which of the following is a duty of a local authority under Section 41 of the DM Act 2005?
  1. A. Approving the State Plan
  2. B. Appointing the Director General of the NDRF
  3. C. Granting sanction for prosecution under the Act
  4. D. Carrying out relief, rehabilitation and reconstruction activities in the affected area per the State and District plans
Answer: Carrying out relief, rehabilitation and reconstruction activities in the affected area per the State and District plans
Explanation: Section 41 requires local authorities to train their staff, keep resources ready, ensure construction projects conform to prescribed standards, and carry out relief, rehabilitation and reconstruction in the affected area.
2453. Which of the following authorities is included in the definition of 'local authority' under the DM Act 2005?
  1. A. Railway Zonal Offices
  2. B. Public Service Commissions
  3. C. High Courts
  4. D. Cantonment Boards
Answer: Cantonment Boards
Explanation: The Act's definition covers Panchayati Raj Institutions, municipalities, district boards, cantonment boards and town planning authorities that control and manage civic services within a specified local area.
2454. Under Section 30 of the DM Act 2005, which of the following is a specific function of the District Disaster Management Authority?
  1. A. Constituting the National Disaster Response Force
  2. B. Approving the National Plan
  3. C. Identifying buildings and places that can be used as relief centres or camps and arranging water supply and sanitation there
  4. D. Declaring a national disaster
Answer: Identifying buildings and places that can be used as relief centres or camps and arranging water supply and sanitation there
Explanation: Section 30(2) lists DDMA functions that include identifying buildings and places for relief centres or camps and making arrangements for drinking water and sanitation there.
2455. The Fifteenth Finance Commission recommended restructuring disaster funds into State and National Disaster Risk Management Funds. What share of the State fund was earmarked for mitigation (the Disaster Mitigation Fund component)?
  1. A. 50 per cent
  2. B. 5 per cent
  3. C. 20 per cent
  4. D. 10 per cent
Answer: 20 per cent
Explanation: Under the Fifteenth Finance Commission scheme, the SDRMF comprises the SDRF (80 per cent) and the SDMF (20 per cent) for mitigation, with sub-windows for response, recovery and preparedness within the SDRF.
2456. What proportion of SDRF may a State use for disasters it notifies as 'local disasters' within its geographical area, outside the Centrally notified list?
  1. A. Up to 25 per cent
  2. B. Up to 10 per cent
  3. C. Up to 50 per cent
  4. D. Up to 1 per cent
Answer: Up to 10 per cent
Explanation: States may use up to 10 per cent of annual SDRF funds for providing immediate relief for natural disasters they consider local in the state context and which are not in the notified list.
2457. Under the SDRF norms of the Ministry of Home Affairs (2015 onwards), what is the ex gratia assistance for each person killed in a notified disaster?
  1. A. Rs 1.5 lakh
  2. B. Rs 4 lakh
  3. C. Rs 2 lakh
  4. D. Rs 10 lakh
Answer: Rs 4 lakh
Explanation: The 2015 revision raised ex gratia for loss of human life from Rs 1.5 lakh to Rs 4 lakh per deceased person under SDRF/NDRF norms.
2458. Under the fund-sharing pattern applied by the Government of India for the State Disaster Response Fund, what is the Centre-State share for general category states?
  1. A. 50 per cent Centre and 50 per cent State
  2. B. 75 per cent Centre and 25 per cent State
  3. C. 90 per cent Centre and 10 per cent State
  4. D. 60 per cent Centre and 40 per cent State
Answer: 75 per cent Centre and 25 per cent State
Explanation: General category states contribute 25 per cent and the Centre 75 per cent of SDRF; for north-eastern and Himalayan states the Centre bears 90 per cent and the State 10 per cent.
2459. Section 48 of the DM Act 2005 provides for how many categories of funds at the State and District levels together?
  1. A. Two: only a State Response Fund and a State Mitigation Fund
  2. B. Four: State and District Response Funds, and State and District Mitigation Funds
  3. C. One: a single State Disaster Fund
  4. D. Three: State, District and Municipal Funds
Answer: Four: State and District Response Funds, and State and District Mitigation Funds
Explanation: Section 48(1) provides for a State Disaster Response Fund, a District Disaster Response Fund, a State Disaster Mitigation Fund and a District Disaster Mitigation Fund.
2460. Which levy is the principal dedicated source of finance for the National Disaster Response Fund of the Central Government?
  1. A. Securities Transaction Tax
  2. B. Swachh Bharat cess
  3. C. National Calamity Contingent Duty
  4. D. Goods and Services Tax compensation cess
Answer: National Calamity Contingent Duty
Explanation: The NCCD, a duty on specified items such as pan masala, cigarettes and crude oil, has historically been credited to the Fund for calamity relief, supplemented by budget grants.
2461. The State Disaster Response Fund constituted under Section 48 of the DM Act 2005 replaced which earlier fund?
  1. A. Calamity Relief Fund
  2. B. Prime Minister's National Relief Fund
  3. C. Chief Minister's Distress Relief Fund
  4. D. National Calamity Contingency Fund
Answer: Calamity Relief Fund
Explanation: The statutory SDRF under Section 48 took over the role of the earlier Calamity Relief Fund of the states, while the NDRF fund under Section 46 took over from the National Calamity Contingency Fund.
2462. Under Section 44 of the DM Act 2005, the National Disaster Response Force is constituted for what purpose?
  1. A. Specialist response to a threatening disaster situation or disaster
  2. B. Maintaining law and order in disaster-hit areas
  3. C. Prosecuting offences under the DM Act
  4. D. Distributing compensation to victims
Answer: Specialist response to a threatening disaster situation or disaster
Explanation: Section 44(1) provides for a National Disaster Response Force for the purpose of specialist response to a threatening disaster situation or disaster; Section 44(2) leaves its constitution and service conditions to be prescribed.
2463. Prosecution of an officer under Section 56 of the DM Act 2005 cannot be instituted without whose previous sanction?
  1. A. The High Court
  2. B. The Comptroller and Auditor General
  3. C. The Central Government or the State Government, or an officer authorised by it
  4. D. The Chairperson of the NDMA alone
Answer: The Central Government or the State Government, or an officer authorised by it
Explanation: Section 59 requires previous sanction of the Central or State Government (or an authorised officer) for prosecution under sections 55 and 56.
2464. Section 56 of the DM Act 2005 punishes an officer's failure in duty. What is the maximum imprisonment prescribed?
  1. A. Six months
  2. B. One year
  3. C. Two years
  4. D. Three years
Answer: One year
Explanation: Section 56 provides imprisonment up to one year or fine for an officer who, without lawful excuse or permission, fails to perform or abandons the duty imposed under the Act or colludes in contravention. No enhanced term for loss of life applies to s.56.
2465. Under Section 55 of the DM Act 2005, what defence can the head of a Department prove to escape liability for an offence by the Department?
  1. A. That the disaster had already ended
  2. B. That the Department had no budget
  3. C. That the offence was committed without his knowledge or that he exercised all due diligence to prevent it
  4. D. That the offence was committed by a subordinate officer on written orders
Answer: That the offence was committed without his knowledge or that he exercised all due diligence to prevent it
Explanation: The Section 55 proviso protects the head of Department who proves lack of knowledge or exercise of all due diligence to prevent the offence; otherwise he is deemed guilty with the Department.
2466. A private citizen wants to prosecute an offence under the DM Act 2005. Under Section 60, what must he do before filing the complaint?
  1. A. Obtain permission from the Supreme Court
  2. B. Give notice of at least thirty days of the alleged offence and of his intention to complain
  3. C. Deposit a security with the District Authority
  4. D. Obtain a sanction from the President of India
Answer: Give notice of at least thirty days of the alleged offence and of his intention to complain
Explanation: Section 60 bars cognizance except on a complaint by the specified authorities or by any person who has given not less than thirty days' notice of the offence and of his intention to make a complaint.
2467. Under Section 67 of the DM Act 2005, who issues the direction to media to carry disaster warnings, once a Disaster Management Authority recommends it?
  1. A. The Central Government or the State Government
  2. B. The Press Council of India
  3. C. The NDMA directly, without any Government
  4. D. The Supreme Court
Answer: The Central Government or the State Government
Explanation: Section 67 works in two steps: the National, State or District Authority recommends, and the Government then directs the persons in control of audio or audio-visual media to carry the warnings or advisories.
2468. Section 61 of the DM Act 2005 prohibits discrimination in respect of which activity?
  1. A. Providing compensation and relief to persons affected by disaster
  2. B. Recruitment to the National Disaster Response Force
  3. C. Appointment of State Authority members
  4. D. Allocation of seats in the National Executive Committee
Answer: Providing compensation and relief to persons affected by disaster
Explanation: Section 61 is about the beneficiary side: compensation and relief must be given without discrimination on grounds of sex, caste, community, descent or religion.
2469. Which of the following is NOT a ground of discrimination listed in Section 61 of the DM Act 2005 for compensation and relief?
  1. A. Descent
  2. B. Place of birth
  3. C. Sex
  4. D. Community
Answer: Place of birth
Explanation: Section 61 bars discrimination on grounds of sex, caste, community, descent or religion. Unlike Article 15 of the Constitution it speaks of community and descent and does not mention race or place of birth.
2470. How often must the National Plan for disaster management be reviewed and updated under Section 11 of the DM Act 2005?
  1. A. Annually
  2. B. Every five years
  3. C. Only after a major disaster
  4. D. Every two years
Answer: Annually
Explanation: Section 11 requires the National Plan to be reviewed and updated annually; the analogous State and District plans carry the same annual-review duty.
2471. Which body approves the disaster management plans prepared by the Ministries and Departments of the Government of India under the DM Act 2005?
  1. A. The Comptroller and Auditor General
  2. B. The National Disaster Management Authority
  3. C. The National Executive Committee
  4. D. The Cabinet Secretariat
Answer: The National Disaster Management Authority
Explanation: Under Section 6(2) the National Authority approves the National Plan and the plans prepared by Central Ministries and Departments; the NEC prepares the National Plan under Section 11.
2472. Which military officer sits ex officio on the National Executive Committee under Section 8(2) of the DM Act 2005?
  1. A. The Director General of the NDRF
  2. B. The Director General of the CRPF
  3. C. The Chief of Army Staff
  4. D. The Chief of the Integrated Defence Staff to the Chairman, Chiefs of Staff Committee
Answer: The Chief of the Integrated Defence Staff to the Chairman, Chiefs of Staff Committee
Explanation: Section 8(2) lists the Secretaries of specified ministries and, ex officio, the Chief of the Integrated Defence Staff of the Chiefs of Staff Committee as NEC members.
2473. Who is the ex officio Chairperson of the National Executive Committee constituted under Section 8 of the DM Act 2005?
  1. A. The Chief of the Integrated Defence Staff
  2. B. The Vice-Chairperson of the NDMA
  3. C. The Cabinet Secretary
  4. D. The Secretary to the Government of India in the Ministry or Department having administrative control of disaster management
Answer: The Secretary to the Government of India in the Ministry or Department having administrative control of disaster management
Explanation: Section 8(2) makes the Union Secretary in charge of disaster management (in practice the Union Home Secretary) the ex officio Chairperson of the NEC, which comprises secretaries of specified ministries.
2474. Who designates the Vice-Chairperson of the National Disaster Management Authority under Section 3 of the DM Act 2005?
  1. A. The Cabinet Secretary
  2. B. The President of India on the advice of the Home Minister
  3. C. The Chairperson of the NDMA, from among its members
  4. D. The National Executive Committee
Answer: The Chairperson of the NDMA, from among its members
Explanation: Section 3(3) lets the Chairperson of the National Authority designate one of the members as Vice-Chairperson; it is not an independent appointment.
2475. Under Section 3 of the DM Act 2005, the National Disaster Management Authority consists of the Chairperson and members not exceeding how many?
  1. A. Nine
  2. B. Seven
  3. C. Five
  4. D. Twelve
Answer: Nine
Explanation: Section 3(2) provides for the Prime Minister as ex officio Chairperson and not more than nine other members; the Chairperson may designate one of them as Vice-Chairperson.
2476. The Disaster Management Act, 2005 (Act 53 of 2005) received the assent of the President on which date?
  1. A. 26 January 2006
  2. B. 12 December 2005
  3. C. 23 December 2005
  4. D. 27 September 2006
Answer: 23 December 2005
Explanation: The Act was assented to on 23 December 2005 and is numbered Act 53 of 2005. The NDMA itself was formally constituted later, in September 2006.
2477. Which of the following best describes the role of the 'Divisional Railway Manager (DRM)' in the immediate aftermath of a major train accident within their division, as per Indian Railways' crisis management protocol?
  1. A. Handles only ticket refund processing for affected passengers
  2. B. Is responsible solely for drafting the final CRS inquiry report
  3. C. Acts as the senior-most accountable authority for immediately mobilizing ART/ARMV, coordinating rescue, and liaising with state authorities and media
  4. D. Has no role until the Railway Board formally assigns responsibility days later
Answer: Acts as the senior-most accountable authority for immediately mobilizing ART/ARMV, coordinating rescue, and liaising with state authorities and media
Explanation: The DRM, as the senior divisional authority, is responsible for immediately mobilizing accident relief resources, coordinating with state/district authorities, and overseeing on-ground response in their division.
2478. Which of the following best describes the key insight from post-incident reviews regarding why railway disaster response sometimes suffers from 'communication silos' between RPF, GRP, railway operations staff, and state disaster agencies?
  1. A. All agencies always use identical communication systems with no coordination issues ever reported
  2. B. The issue is entirely resolved by having a single agency handle all aspects alone
  3. C. Communication silos exist only in fictional scenarios, never in real incidents
  4. D. Different agencies often use separate radio frequencies, protocols and command hierarchies, requiring deliberate interoperability measures (joint control rooms, common frequencies) to overcome
Answer: Different agencies often use separate radio frequencies, protocols and command hierarchies, requiring deliberate interoperability measures (joint control rooms, common frequencies) to overcome
Explanation: Post-incident reviews commonly find that different agencies use distinct radio frequencies and protocols, causing coordination delays; interoperability measures like joint control rooms and shared frequencies are recommended fixes.
2479. Which of the following best describes the term 'Disaster Resilient Infrastructure' as promoted through the Coalition for Disaster Resilient Infrastructure (CDRI), an international initiative India helped launch, relevant to railway asset planning?
  1. A. Infrastructure (including railways) designed and built to withstand and quickly recover from the impacts of natural hazards, reducing future disaster losses
  2. B. A financial instrument unrelated to physical infrastructure
  3. C. Infrastructure built exclusively using foreign materials
  4. D. A scheme for infrastructure built only in non-disaster-prone regions
Answer: Infrastructure (including railways) designed and built to withstand and quickly recover from the impacts of natural hazards, reducing future disaster losses
Explanation: CDRI, launched by India at the UN Climate Action Summit 2019, promotes infrastructure (including transport/railways) designed to withstand climate and disaster risks and recover quickly, reducing future losses.
2480. Which of the following best describes the purpose of 'Standard Operating Procedures for Hospitals' near railway stations, as part of mass-casualty disaster preparedness coordinated with Indian Railways?
  1. A. Scheduling routine outpatient appointments only
  2. B. Managing hospital billing software exclusively
  3. C. Ensuring hospitals can rapidly scale up surge capacity, activate mass casualty protocols, and coordinate triage reception for victims of a major rail accident
  4. D. Training hospital staff only in railway ticketing procedures
Answer: Ensuring hospitals can rapidly scale up surge capacity, activate mass casualty protocols, and coordinate triage reception for victims of a major rail accident
Explanation: Hospital SOPs for mass casualty events ensure rapid surge capacity activation, resource reallocation and organized triage reception, critical when a major rail accident produces sudden large numbers of casualties.

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