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1. Under the BNSS, 2023, if a person released on bail in a bailable offence fails to comply with the conditions of the bond as to time and place of attendance, the Court may:
  1. A. Transfer the case to the Court of Session
  2. B. Refuse to release him on bail when he is again brought before the Court in the same case
  3. C. Convert the case into a non-bailable one automatically
  4. D. Pass a sentence of imprisonment on the spot
Answer: Refuse to release him on bail when he is again brought before the Court in the same case
Explanation: Under the bailable-offence provision (Section 478, old Section 436 CrPC), failure to comply with the bond conditions entitles the Court to refuse bail on a later occasion in the same case, without affecting its power to forfeit the bond.
2. Under the BNSS, 2023, the authority that appoints Executive Magistrates in every district, and one of them as the District Magistrate, is:
  1. A. The Central Government
  2. B. The High Court
  3. C. The State Government
  4. D. The Sessions Judge
Answer: The State Government
Explanation: The State Government appoints as many Executive Magistrates as it thinks fit in every district and designates one of them as the District Magistrate; Judicial Magistrates, by contrast, are appointed by the High Court.
3. Under the BNSS, 2023, when a summons is served by electronic communication, it must bear:
  1. A. The thumb impression of the process server
  2. B. The image of the Court's seal or the digital signature of the presiding officer
  3. C. The countersignature of the Superintendent of Police
  4. D. A notarised stamp of the District Magistrate
Answer: The image of the Court's seal or the digital signature of the presiding officer
Explanation: BNSS recognises electronic service of summons; such a summons must carry the image of the Court's seal or the digital signature of the presiding officer so that its authenticity is assured.
4. Under the BNSS, 2023, a death-sentenced convict may submit a mercy petition first to the Governor within what period from the date the jail Superintendent informs him of the dismissal of his appeal or SLP or the confirmation of the sentence?
  1. A. Sixty days
  2. B. Seven days
  3. C. Thirty days
  4. D. Ninety days
Answer: Thirty days
Explanation: The first mercy petition to the Governor must be filed within 30 days; if it is rejected, a petition may go to the President. The President's decision is final and no appeal lies to any court against it.
5. Under the BNSS, 2023, the panel of names from which Public Prosecutors for a district are appointed is prepared by:
  1. A. The District Magistrate in consultation with the Sessions Judge
  2. B. The Director of Prosecution in consultation with the Governor
  3. C. The Superintendent of Police in consultation with the High Court Registrar
  4. D. The Chief Judicial Magistrate alone
Answer: The District Magistrate in consultation with the Sessions Judge
Explanation: For appointing Public Prosecutors and Additional Public Prosecutors in a district, the District Magistrate prepares a panel of names in consultation with the Sessions Judge, and the State Government appoints only from that panel.
6. Under Section 107 of the BNSS, 2023, an order attaching proceeds of crime is passed by:
  1. A. The Court or Magistrate, on an application by the police officer with the approval of the Superintendent or Commissioner of Police
  2. B. The Executive Magistrate, only after conviction
  3. C. The Station House Officer, subject to ratification by the Governor
  4. D. The investigating officer himself, without any judicial order
Answer: The Court or Magistrate, on an application by the police officer with the approval of the Superintendent or Commissioner of Police
Explanation: BNSS Section 107 is a new judicially supervised mechanism: the police officer, with the approval of the Superintendent or Commissioner of Police, applies, and the Court or Magistrate orders attachment, forfeiture or restoration of proceeds of crime.
7. Under the proviso to Section 223(1) of the BNSS, 2023, before a Magistrate takes cognizance of an offence on a complaint, he must give:
  1. A. The informant a hearing before the High Court
  2. B. The Sessions Judge a chance to approve it
  3. C. The accused an opportunity of being heard
  4. D. The police station a chance to register an FIR first
Answer: The accused an opportunity of being heard
Explanation: BNSS Section 223 adds a new safeguard not found in CrPC Section 200: the Magistrate cannot take cognizance of an offence on a complaint without giving the accused an opportunity of being heard.
8. Which of the following courts is NOT part of the hierarchy of criminal courts listed in Section 6 of the BNSS, 2023?
  1. A. Court of Session
  2. B. Judicial Magistrate of the first class
  3. C. Court of Metropolitan Magistrate
  4. D. Executive Magistrate
Answer: Court of Metropolitan Magistrate
Explanation: BNSS Section 6 lists Courts of Session, Judicial Magistrates of the first class, Judicial Magistrates of the second class and Executive Magistrates. The CrPC category of Metropolitan Magistrates no longer exists.
9. Which Hindi Teaching Scheme examination, if passed, gives an employee deemed working knowledge of Hindi under Rule 10?
  1. A. Pragya
  2. B. Prabodh only
  3. C. Parangat only
  4. D. None of these
Answer: Pragya
Explanation: Passing the Pragya examination (or a lower examination specified by the Central Government for particular posts) confers deemed working knowledge of Hindi.
10. Under Rule 10 of the Official Language Rules, 1976, an employee is deemed to have working knowledge of Hindi if he has passed which of these?
  1. A. A Hindi typing test only
  2. B. Matriculation with Sanskrit only
  3. C. A graduation course in English only
  4. D. Matriculation or an equivalent or higher examination with Hindi as a subject
Answer: Matriculation or an equivalent or higher examination with Hindi as a subject
Explanation: Rule 10 deems working knowledge acquired by passing Matriculation or an equivalent or higher examination with Hindi as a subject, the Pragya examination (or a lower examination specified for certain posts), or by making the prescribed declaration.

11. How does Section 2(a) of the DM Act 2005 define 'affected area'?

  1. A. Only an area declared a national emergency under the Constitution
  2. B. Only an area within 10 km of a coastline
  3. C. Only a district with a population above one million
  4. D. An area or part of the country affected by a disaster
Answer: An area or part of the country affected by a disaster
Explanation: Section 2(a) defines 'affected area' simply as an area or part of the country affected by a disaster; no formal declaration is a precondition in the definition.
12. Under Section 69 of the DM Act 2005, the National Executive Committee and State Executive Committee may do what by general or special order in writing?
  1. A. Transfer their powers to a private company
  2. B. Amend the Act without Parliament
  3. C. Abolish the National Authority
  4. D. Delegate such of their powers and functions under the Act to the Chairperson, any other member or any officer, subject to conditions
Answer: Delegate such of their powers and functions under the Act to the Chairperson, any other member or any officer, subject to conditions
Explanation: Section 69 (Delegation of powers) lets the NEC and SEC delegate, by general or special order in writing, such of their powers and functions as they deem necessary to the Chairperson, any other member or any officer, subject to specified conditions and limitations.
13. Under Section 14(4) of the DM Act 2005, who functions as the Chief Executive Officer of the State Disaster Management Authority, ex officio?
  1. A. The Principal Secretary (Home) of the State
  2. B. The Vice-Chairperson of the SDMA
  3. C. The Chairperson of the State Executive Committee, i.e. the Chief Secretary
  4. D. The State Relief Commissioner
Answer: The Chairperson of the State Executive Committee, i.e. the Chief Secretary
Explanation: Section 14(4) makes the Chairperson of the State Executive Committee the CEO of the State Authority ex officio; under Section 20 the SEC is chaired by the Chief Secretary of the State.
14. Which section of the DM Act 2005 deals with the appointment of officers and other employees of the State Authority?
  1. A. Section 5
  2. B. Section 16
  3. C. Section 43
  4. D. Section 29
Answer: Section 16
Explanation: Section 16 deals with officers and employees of the State Authority; the parallel provisions are Section 5 (National Authority), Section 29 (District Authority) and Section 43 (National Institute).
15. Under Section 6(2)(j) of the DM Act 2005, the National Authority lays down broad policies and guidelines for the functioning of which institution?
  1. A. Indian Meteorological Department
  2. B. Railway Staff College
  3. C. National Disaster Response Force Academy only
  4. D. National Institute of Disaster Management
Answer: National Institute of Disaster Management
Explanation: Section 6(2)(j) lets the National Authority lay down broad policies and guidelines for the functioning of the National Institute of Disaster Management, which under Section 42(8) functions within those policies and guidelines.
16. Under Section 4 of the DM Act 2005, who decides the time and place of meetings of the National Authority, and who presides if the Chairperson cannot attend?
  1. A. The Election Commission decides; the Chief Justice presides
  2. B. The Lok Sabha Speaker decides; the Home Minister presides
  3. C. The Chairperson decides; the Vice-Chairperson presides in the Chairperson's absence
  4. D. The Cabinet Secretary decides; the Union Home Secretary presides
Answer: The Chairperson decides; the Vice-Chairperson presides in the Chairperson's absence
Explanation: Section 4 provides that the National Authority meets as and when necessary at the time and place the Chairperson thinks fit; the Chairperson presides, and the Vice-Chairperson presides if the Chairperson is unable to attend.
17. Under Section 55 of the DM Act 2005, if an offence is committed by a Department of the Government and it is proved to be attributable to the neglect of an officer other than the head of the Department, that officer is deemed guilty. Which parallel provision applies where the offence is committed by a company?
  1. A. Section 58, which holds persons in charge of and responsible to the company liable, subject to a defence of no knowledge or due diligence
  2. B. Section 50, which deals with emergency procurement
  3. C. Section 54, which deals only with false warnings
  4. D. Section 52, which deals only with false claims
Answer: Section 58, which holds persons in charge of and responsible to the company liable, subject to a defence of no knowledge or due diligence
Explanation: Section 55 deals with offences by Government Departments and Section 58 with offences by companies; both fix liability on the responsible person unless the absence of knowledge or due diligence is proved (and consent, connivance or neglect extends it to directors and officers).
18. Under Section 41 of the DM Act 2005, which specific responsibility is cast on local authorities regarding capacity-building of their own employees for disaster management?
  1. A. To ensure that its officers and employees are trained for disaster management and that resources relating to disaster management are maintained for emergency response
  2. B. To rely solely on NDRF for all training needs without internal capacity
  3. C. To outsource all capacity-building to private contractors exclusively
  4. D. No responsibility; capacity-building is entirely a central government function
Answer: To ensure that its officers and employees are trained for disaster management and that resources relating to disaster management are maintained for emergency response
Explanation: Section 41 requires local authorities to ensure their officers/employees are trained in disaster management and that necessary resources are maintained for emergency response.
19. Under Section 30 of the DM Act 2005, the DDMA acts as the planning, coordinating and implementing body for disaster management at which level, and must follow guidelines from which authorities?
  1. A. National level, following only international guidelines
  2. B. District level, following guidelines laid down by the NDMA and the SDMA
  3. C. Village level only, bypassing state guidelines entirely
  4. D. Zonal railway level, following Railway Board guidelines exclusively
Answer: District level, following guidelines laid down by the NDMA and the SDMA
Explanation: Section 30 designates the DDMA as the district-level planning, coordinating and implementing body for disaster management, acting as per guidelines laid down by the NDMA and SDMA.
20. Under Section 2(e) of the DM Act 2005, 'disaster management' expressly includes which continuous and integrated process stages?
  1. A. Planning, organising, coordinating and implementing measures for prevention, mitigation, capacity-building, preparedness, response, assessment and recovery
  2. B. Only military deployment during a crisis
  3. C. Only post-disaster financial compensation disbursal
  4. D. Only meteorological forecasting activities
Answer: Planning, organising, coordinating and implementing measures for prevention, mitigation, capacity-building, preparedness, response, assessment and recovery
Explanation: Section 2(e) defines disaster management as a continuous and integrated process of planning, organising, coordinating and implementing measures across prevention, mitigation, capacity-building, preparedness, response, assessment and recovery.
21. The 2nd Battalion of the National Disaster Response Force, raised from the BSF, is located in which state?
  1. A. Maharashtra
  2. B. Uttar Pradesh
  3. C. Gujarat
  4. D. West Bengal (Nadia district)
Answer: West Bengal (Nadia district)
Explanation: The 2nd Battalion NDRF, raised from the BSF, is based in Nadia district (Haringhata), West Bengal, and covers the eastern region.
22. Under Section 6(2)(h) of the DM Act 2005, what support may the National Authority provide in relation to other countries?
  1. A. Taking over the disaster management of neighbouring states
  2. B. Such support to other countries affected by major disasters as may be determined by the Central Government
  3. C. Levying taxes on affected foreign countries
  4. D. No external support is permitted under the Act
Answer: Such support to other countries affected by major disasters as may be determined by the Central Government
Explanation: Section 6(2)(h) allows the National Authority to provide such support to other countries affected by major disasters as may be determined by the Central Government.
23. Under Section 46 of the DM Act 2005, the National Disaster Response Fund shall be applied by the National Executive Committee for meeting expenses related to which of the following?
  1. A. Only salaries of permanent government staff
  2. B. Emergency response, relief and rehabilitation in accordance with guidelines laid down by the Central Government
  3. C. Only pension payments to retired officials
  4. D. Only infrastructure construction unrelated to disasters
Answer: Emergency response, relief and rehabilitation in accordance with guidelines laid down by the Central Government
Explanation: Section 46 provides that the National Disaster Response Fund shall be applied by the NEC towards meeting expenses for emergency response, relief and rehabilitation, per Central Government guidelines.
24. Under the first proviso to Section 14(4) of the DM Act 2005, who is the Chairperson of the State Disaster Management Authority in the Union territory of Delhi?
  1. A. The Chief Minister, with the Lieutenant Governor as Vice-Chairperson
  2. B. The Chief Secretary alone
  3. C. The Union Home Secretary
  4. D. The Lieutenant Governor, with the Chief Minister as Vice-Chairperson
Answer: The Lieutenant Governor, with the Chief Minister as Vice-Chairperson
Explanation: The provisos to Section 14 provide that for a Union territory with a Legislative Assembly (except Delhi) the Chief Minister chairs the authority, while for Delhi the Lieutenant Governor is Chairperson and the Chief Minister is Vice-Chairperson.
25. Under Section 49 of the DM Act 2005, what are Ministries and Departments of the Government of India required to provide for in their annual budgets?
  1. A. Funds for carrying out the activities and programmes set out in their disaster management plans
  2. B. Funds only for foreign travel of officials
  3. C. Funds for the Election Commission
  4. D. Funds for the salaries of High Court judges
Answer: Funds for carrying out the activities and programmes set out in their disaster management plans
Explanation: Section 49 (Allocation of funds by Ministries and Departments) requires every Ministry or Department of the Government of India to provide in its annual budget for funds to carry out the activities and programmes set out in its disaster management plan.
26. Which item is part of the minimum standards of relief that Section 12 of the DM Act 2005 requires the National Authority to recommend, besides relief camp requirements?
  1. A. Appointment of High Court judges
  2. B. Fixing railway fares for evacuees
  3. C. Setting income tax rates for affected areas
  4. D. Ex gratia assistance on account of loss of life, damage to houses and restoration of means of livelihood
Answer: Ex gratia assistance on account of loss of life, damage to houses and restoration of means of livelihood
Explanation: Section 12 requires guidelines on minimum relief-camp requirements (shelter, food, drinking water, medical cover, sanitation), special provisions for widows and orphans, and ex gratia assistance for loss of life, damage to houses and restoration of livelihood.

27. How does Section 2(o) of the DM Act 2005 define 'reconstruction'?

  1. A. Evacuation of people before a disaster
  2. B. Construction or restoration of any property after a disaster
  3. C. Measures aimed at reducing the risk of a disaster
  4. D. Training of personnel for rescue operations
Answer: Construction or restoration of any property after a disaster
Explanation: Section 2(o) defines 'reconstruction' as construction or restoration of any property after a disaster; 'mitigation' (Section 2(i)) is the separate pre-disaster concept of reducing risk, impact or effects.
28. Under Section 21 of the DM Act 2005, the State Executive Committee may, for efficient discharge of its functions, constitute how many sub-committees?
  1. A. Exactly three sub-committees, no more and no less
  2. B. As many sub-committees as it considers necessary
  3. C. Only one sub-committee for finance
  4. D. Sub-committees are prohibited under the Act
Answer: As many sub-committees as it considers necessary
Explanation: Section 21 allows the State Executive Committee to constitute as many sub-committees as it considers necessary for efficient discharge of its functions.
29. Under Section 20 of the DM Act 2005, the composition of the State Executive Committee includes the Chief Secretary as Chairperson and how many secretaries to the state government as other members?
  1. A. Not exceeding four secretaries to the state government, to be nominated by the state government
  2. B. Only one secretary, the Home Secretary
  3. C. No secretaries; only elected MLAs
  4. D. Exactly ten secretaries from every department
Answer: Not exceeding four secretaries to the state government, to be nominated by the state government
Explanation: Section 20 provides the State Executive Committee consists of the Chief Secretary as Chairperson and not more than four secretaries to the state government nominated by it.
30. Under Section 7 of the DM Act 2005, the NDMA is empowered to constitute Advisory Committees consisting of whom?
  1. A. Experts in the field of disaster management, as it deems necessary
  2. B. Only elected Members of Parliament
  3. C. Only officers of the Indian Administrative Service
  4. D. Only retired judges of the Supreme Court
Answer: Experts in the field of disaster management, as it deems necessary
Explanation: Section 7 empowers the NDMA to constitute one or more Advisory Committees of experts in disaster management, to render advice as needed.
31. Under Section 3(4) of the DM Act 2005, the NDMA's term and conditions of service of members are determined by whom?
  1. A. The Election Commission of India
  2. B. Each state's SDMA independently
  3. C. The President of India directly without rules
  4. D. The Central Government, as may be prescribed
Answer: The Central Government, as may be prescribed
Explanation: Section 3(4) provides that the term of office and conditions of service of NDMA members shall be such as may be prescribed by the Central Government.
32. Under Section 2(h) of the DM Act 2005, 'local authority' includes which of the following bodies?
  1. A. Only private industrial associations
  2. B. Only the NDMA and SDMA
  3. C. Only central government ministries
  4. D. Panchayati Raj institutions, Municipalities, District Boards, Cantonment Boards and Town Planning Authorities
Answer: Panchayati Raj institutions, Municipalities, District Boards, Cantonment Boards and Town Planning Authorities
Explanation: Section 2(h) defines 'local authority' broadly to include Panchayati Raj institutions, Municipalities, District Boards, Cantonment Boards, and Town Planning Authorities which control/manage civic services.
33. Under Section 2(f) of the DM Act 2005, who qualifies as a 'District Authority'?
  1. A. Only the District Development Officer
  2. B. Only the Superintendent of Police of the district
  3. C. The District Disaster Management Authority constituted under Section 25
  4. D. Only the Chief Medical Officer of the district
Answer: The District Disaster Management Authority constituted under Section 25
Explanation: Section 2(f) defines 'District Authority' as the District Disaster Management Authority constituted under Section 25 of the Act.
34. How does Section 2(c) of the DM Act 2005 define 'Central Government'?
  1. A. The Ministry or Department of the Government of India having administrative control of disaster management
  2. B. The Prime Minister's Office only
  3. C. The Ministry of Railways only
  4. D. The Cabinet Secretariat only
Answer: The Ministry or Department of the Government of India having administrative control of disaster management
Explanation: Section 2(c) defines 'Central Government' for the Act as the Ministry or Department of the Government of India having administrative control of disaster management (in practice the Ministry of Home Affairs).
35. The 7th Battalion of the National Disaster Response Force, raised from the ITBP, is headquartered in which state?
  1. A. Assam (Guwahati)
  2. B. Odisha (Cuttack)
  3. C. Tamil Nadu (Arakkonam)
  4. D. Punjab (Bhatinda)
Answer: Punjab (Bhatinda)
Explanation: The 7th Battalion NDRF, raised from the ITBP, is based at Bhatinda in Punjab, serving the north-western region.
36. The 1st Battalion of the National Disaster Response Force, raised from the BSF, is headquartered at which location in the north-east?
  1. A. Guwahati, Assam
  2. B. Patna, Bihar
  3. C. Pune, Maharashtra
  4. D. Bhatinda, Punjab
Answer: Guwahati, Assam
Explanation: The 1st Battalion NDRF, raised from the BSF, is headquartered at Guwahati, Assam, and covers disaster response in the north-eastern region.
37. Under Section 77 of the DM Act 2005, rules made by the Central Government under the Act must be laid before which body?
  1. A. The NDMA governing council only
  2. B. The Comptroller and Auditor General
  3. C. Each House of Parliament
  4. D. The Supreme Court of India
Answer: Each House of Parliament
Explanation: Section 77 requires every rule made under the Act by the Central Government to be laid before each House of Parliament, as is standard for delegated legislation.
38. Under Section 73 of the DM Act 2005, members, officers and employees of the NDMA/SEC/DDMA acting in good faith are protected from legal proceedings under which provision type?
  1. A. Immunity only from civil suits, not criminal prosecution
  2. B. No protection is provided under the Act
  3. C. A good-faith protection clause barring suit, prosecution or legal proceeding for actions done in good faith under the Act
  4. D. Absolute immunity even for acts done in bad faith
Answer: A good-faith protection clause barring suit, prosecution or legal proceeding for actions done in good faith under the Act
Explanation: Section 73 (good faith clause) bars suit, prosecution or other legal proceeding against any person for anything done in good faith under the Act.
39. Under Section 63 of the DM Act 2005, what must an officer or authority of the Union or a State do when requested by the NEC, a State Executive Committee or a District Authority?
  1. A. Transfer all its funds to the requesting body
  2. B. Nothing; compliance is purely voluntary
  3. C. Refuse unless a court orders otherwise
  4. D. Make available such officers and employees as requested for functions connected with prevention, mitigation, rescue or relief
Answer: Make available such officers and employees as requested for functions connected with prevention, mitigation, rescue or relief
Explanation: Section 63 (Powers to be made available for rescue operations) requires such officer or authority to make available the officers and employees requested, to perform functions in connection with prevention of disaster, mitigation, rescue or relief work.
40. For the purposes of Section 58 of the DM Act 2005 (offences by companies), how is 'company' defined in the Explanation?
  1. A. Only a public sector undertaking
  2. B. Any body corporate, including a firm or other association of individuals
  3. C. Only a company registered under the Companies Act with share capital above a threshold
  4. D. Only a foreign company
Answer: Any body corporate, including a firm or other association of individuals
Explanation: The Explanation to Section 58 states that 'company' means any body corporate and includes a firm or other association of individuals, and 'director' in relation to a firm means a partner in the firm.
41. Under Section 52 of the DM Act 2005, whoever makes a false claim for obtaining any relief, assistance, repair, reconstruction or other benefits is punishable with imprisonment up to what term?
  1. A. Imprisonment which may extend to six months only
  2. B. Imprisonment which may extend to five years, and fine
  3. C. Imprisonment which may extend to two years, and fine
  4. D. Life imprisonment
Answer: Imprisonment which may extend to two years, and fine
Explanation: Section 52 prescribes punishment of imprisonment up to two years, or fine, or both, for making a false claim for relief, assistance, repair, reconstruction or other benefits.
42. Under Section 54 of the DM Act 2005, which act amounts to an offence if a person, knowing a false alarm of a disaster, causes panic?
  1. A. Civil tort only, not a criminal offence
  2. B. Non-cognizable offence with no punishment prescribed
  3. C. Punishable offence of making or circulating a false alarm or warning as to disaster or its severity leading to panic
  4. D. Act punishable only under the Indian Penal Code, not the DM Act
Answer: Punishable offence of making or circulating a false alarm or warning as to disaster or its severity leading to panic
Explanation: Section 54 makes it a punishable offence for any person to make or circulate a false alarm or warning as to a disaster or its severity leading to panic, without reasonable ground.
43. Under Section 48 of the DM Act 2005, the State Government is empowered to constitute which fund for meeting expenses related to emergency response, relief and rehabilitation at state level?
  1. A. State Industrial Compensation Fund
  2. B. State Contingency Pension Fund
  3. C. State Disaster Response Fund
  4. D. State Mitigation Reserve Fund
Answer: State Disaster Response Fund
Explanation: Section 48 provides for the constitution of the State Disaster Response Fund (SDRF) by every State Government for meeting expenses of emergency response, relief and rehabilitation.
44. Under Section 65 of the DM Act 2005, the Central Government or State Government may requisition the services of which category of persons for disaster management purposes?
  1. A. Only foreign nationals residing in India
  2. B. Only employees of private insurance companies
  3. C. Any person for rendering assistance in dealing with a disaster or threatening disaster situation
  4. D. Only serving members of Parliament
Answer: Any person for rendering assistance in dealing with a disaster or threatening disaster situation
Explanation: Section 65 empowers requisitioning of resources, provisions, vehicles, or services of any person for rendering assistance in dealing with a disaster or threatening disaster situation.
45. Under Section 41(1)(c) of the DM Act 2005, subject to the directions of the District Authority, what must a local authority ensure about construction projects under it or within its jurisdiction?
  1. A. That they conform to the standards and specifications laid down for prevention of disasters and mitigation by the National, State and District Authorities
  2. B. That they are exempt from all building standards
  3. C. That they are completed within one month
  4. D. That they are funded only by the Central Government
Answer: That they conform to the standards and specifications laid down for prevention of disasters and mitigation by the National, State and District Authorities
Explanation: Section 41(1)(c) requires a local authority to ensure that all construction projects under it or within its jurisdiction conform to the standards and specifications laid down by the National, State and District Authorities for prevention of disasters and mitigation.
46. Under Section 25(4) of the DM Act 2005, the Chief Executive Officer of the District Authority is an officer of what minimum rank, appointed by the State Government?
  1. A. Not below the rank of Chief Secretary
  2. B. Not below the rank of Superintendent of Police
  3. C. Any Tehsildar
  4. D. Not below the rank of Additional Collector, Additional District Magistrate or Additional Deputy Commissioner
Answer: Not below the rank of Additional Collector, Additional District Magistrate or Additional Deputy Commissioner
Explanation: Section 25(4) requires the State Government to appoint an officer not below the rank of Additional Collector, Additional District Magistrate or Additional Deputy Commissioner as Chief Executive Officer of the District Authority.
47. Under Section 30 of the DM Act 2005, the District Disaster Management Authority is required to ensure that which entities carry out relief/rehabilitation measures?
  1. A. Different departments of the Government at the district level and local authorities, in accordance with district plan guidelines
  2. B. Only private NGOs registered under the Societies Act
  3. C. Only the judiciary
  4. D. Only central armed police forces
Answer: Different departments of the Government at the district level and local authorities, in accordance with district plan guidelines
Explanation: Section 30 requires DDMA to ensure district-level government departments and local authorities carry out relief and rehabilitation measures per district plan guidelines.
48. Under Section 17 of the DM Act 2005, the State Government is empowered to constitute which body to advise the SDMA?
  1. A. A State Armed Reserve Force
  2. B. A State Advisory Committee consisting of experts in disaster management
  3. C. A State Relief Tribunal
  4. D. A State Judicial Commission
Answer: A State Advisory Committee consisting of experts in disaster management
Explanation: Section 17 enables the State Government to constitute a State Advisory Committee comprising experts in disaster management to advise the SDMA.
49. Under Section 5 of the DM Act 2005, the Central Government is required to make available to the NDMA which of the following?
  1. A. Judicial officers to adjudicate disaster compensation claims
  2. B. Only financial grants, with staffing left to state governments
  3. C. A standing army unit for immediate deployment
  4. D. Such officers and employees as it considers necessary for the efficient performance of NDMA's functions
Answer: Such officers and employees as it considers necessary for the efficient performance of NDMA's functions
Explanation: Section 5 mandates the Central Government to make available to the NDMA such officers and employees as it considers necessary for efficient discharge of NDMA's functions under the Act.
50. The 1995 Firozabad rail collision (Kalindi Express colliding into the stationary Purushottam Express) is frequently discussed in railway disaster literature because it highlighted which specific operational gap?
  1. A. A complete absence of any track infrastructure in India at the time
  2. B. A deliberate act of international terrorism
  3. C. A failure attributable solely to passenger misconduct
  4. D. Failure of signal visibility/driver response in foggy conditions, highlighting the need for improved anti-collision and fog-safety devices
Answer: Failure of signal visibility/driver response in foggy conditions, highlighting the need for improved anti-collision and fog-safety devices
Explanation: The 1995 Firozabad collision, occurring in dense winter fog, exposed gaps in signal visibility and driver response under low-visibility conditions, accelerating the push for anti-collision devices and fog-safe signalling/GPS-based systems in Indian Railways.
51. Under Section 44(2) of the DM Act 2005, the manner of constituting the National Disaster Response Force and the conditions of service of its members, including disciplinary provisions, are determined how?
  1. A. By the State Governments individually
  2. B. By the Director General alone, without any rules
  3. C. As may be prescribed
  4. D. By the Supreme Court
Answer: As may be prescribed
Explanation: Section 44(2) provides that, subject to the Act, the Force shall be constituted in such manner, and its members' conditions of service including disciplinary provisions shall be such, as may be prescribed.
52. Which section of the DM Act 2005 gives the State Government the power to make rules?
  1. A. Section 78
  2. B. Section 75
  3. C. Section 61
  4. D. Section 72
Answer: Section 78
Explanation: Section 78 gives the State Government the power to make rules, while Section 75 is the corresponding rule-making power of the Central Government.
53. Under Section 58 of the DM Act 2005, if an offence under the Act is committed by a company, who, in addition to the company, shall be deemed guilty unless proven otherwise?
  1. A. Only the company's auditors
  2. B. No individual, only the company as a legal entity
  3. C. Every person who was in charge of and responsible for the conduct of the business of the company at the time of the offence
  4. D. Only shareholders who own less than 1% of shares
Answer: Every person who was in charge of and responsible for the conduct of the business of the company at the time of the offence
Explanation: Section 58 provides that where an offence is committed by a company, every person in charge of and responsible to the company for the conduct of its business at the time of the offence shall be deemed guilty, unless they prove the offence was committed without their knowledge.
54. Under Section 46 of the DM Act 2005, which source of credit to the National Disaster Response Fund, besides the amount provided by the Central Government after due appropriation by Parliament, is specified?
  1. A. Any grants made by any person or institution for the purpose of disaster management
  2. B. Only foreign government loans
  3. C. Only contributions of State Governments
  4. D. Only fines recovered from offenders under Chapter X
Answer: Any grants made by any person or institution for the purpose of disaster management
Explanation: Section 46(1) provides that the fund is credited with an amount provided by the Central Government after due appropriation by Parliament, and any grants made by any person or institution for the purpose of disaster management.
55. Under Section 38 of the DM Act 2005, which obligation is placed on the State Government in relation to a threatening disaster situation within its territory?
  1. A. To suspend all railway operations nationwide
  2. B. To immediately dissolve the state legislature
  3. C. To transfer all state revenue to NDMA permanently
  4. D. To take all necessary measures for the purpose of disaster management in accordance with the guidelines laid down by NDMA
Answer: To take all necessary measures for the purpose of disaster management in accordance with the guidelines laid down by NDMA
Explanation: Section 38 requires every State Government to take all necessary measures for effective disaster management, consistent with the guidelines issued by NDMA, within its respective territory.
56. Under Section 41 of the DM Act 2005, local authorities are required to ensure that their employees are trained for disaster management and that resources relevant to disaster management are maintained in what manner?
  1. A. Exclusively for sale to private contractors
  2. B. In a state of readiness for use in the event of a disaster or threatening disaster situation
  3. C. Stored permanently without ever being used
  4. D. Only for use in annual budget audits
Answer: In a state of readiness for use in the event of a disaster or threatening disaster situation
Explanation: Section 41 mandates that every local authority ensure its officers/employees are trained and resources relevant to disaster management are maintained in a state of readiness for immediate use when a disaster or threatening disaster situation arises.
57. Under Section 31 of the DM Act 2005, which specific function relating to the District Plan is assigned to the District Disaster Management Authority?
  1. A. To prepare the District Disaster Management Plan and monitor its implementation
  2. B. To draft the Union Budget for disaster relief
  3. C. To regulate international treaties on disaster response
  4. D. To appoint the Prime Minister's advisors
Answer: To prepare the District Disaster Management Plan and monitor its implementation
Explanation: Section 31 requires the DDMA to prepare a District Disaster Management Plan, including a district response plan, and to monitor its implementation in accordance with the guidelines laid down by NDMA and SDMA.
58. The 3rd Battalion of the National Disaster Response Force, raised from the CISF, is headquartered at Mundali near which city?
  1. A. Patna, Bihar
  2. B. Cuttack, Odisha
  3. C. Pune, Maharashtra
  4. D. Guwahati, Assam
Answer: Cuttack, Odisha
Explanation: The 3rd Battalion NDRF, raised from the CISF, is based at Mundali near Cuttack in Odisha, which has been a key base for cyclone response on the east coast.
59. Under Section 68 of the DM Act 2005, how are orders and decisions of the National Authority, NEC, State Authority, SEC or District Authority authenticated?
  1. A. They need no authentication
  2. B. By such officers as the respective body has authorised in this behalf
  3. C. Only by the President of India
  4. D. Only by a Magistrate's seal
Answer: By such officers as the respective body has authorised in this behalf
Explanation: Section 68 (Authentication of orders or decisions) requires every order or decision of these bodies to be authenticated by the officers authorised by that body in this behalf.
60. On what basis is compensation determined when a vehicle is requisitioned for rescue operations under Section 65 read with Section 66(2) of the DM Act 2005?
  1. A. The fares or rates prevailing in the locality for the hire of such vehicle
  2. B. No compensation is payable for vehicles
  3. C. The vehicle's original purchase price
  4. D. A flat sum of one rupee per day
Answer: The fares or rates prevailing in the locality for the hire of such vehicle
Explanation: Section 66(2) provides that compensation for a requisitioned vehicle is determined by the Central or State Government on the basis of fares or rates prevailing in the locality for the hire of such vehicle, with arbitration available to an aggrieved owner.
61. Under the DM Act 2005, the National Executive Committee, State Executive Committee or District Authority may requisition resources, premises or vehicles for rescue operations (Section 65). Which related obligation does Section 66 impose?
  1. A. No compensation is ever payable under any circumstance
  2. B. Requisition is permitted only after a court order
  3. C. Only property belonging to foreign nationals may be requisitioned
  4. D. Payment of compensation as may be determined for requisitioned property
Answer: Payment of compensation as may be determined for requisitioned property
Explanation: Section 65 empowers requisitioning by written order; Section 66 requires compensation to be paid - for premises based on rent payable, and for vehicles based on prevailing hire rates - with an arbitrator available if the person is aggrieved.
62. Under Section 2(e) of the DM Act 2005, which of the following is explicitly included in the definition of 'disaster management'?
  1. A. Appointment of district judges in disaster zones
  2. B. Collection of agricultural revenue in affected areas
  3. C. Evaluation of disaster severity and its effects
  4. D. Regulation of railway fare structures
Answer: Evaluation of disaster severity and its effects
Explanation: Section 2(e) defines disaster management as a continuous and integrated process that includes prevention, mitigation, capacity-building, preparedness, prompt response, assessing the severity or magnitude of effects of any disaster, evacuation, rescue and relief, and rehabilitation and reconstruction.
63. How does Section 2(s) of the DM Act 2005 define 'State Government' for the purposes of the Act?
  1. A. The Chief Justice of the State High Court
  2. B. Only the State Legislative Assembly
  3. C. The Department of Government of the State having administrative control of disaster management, including the Administrator of a Union territory appointed under Article 239
  4. D. Only the Governor acting alone
Answer: The Department of Government of the State having administrative control of disaster management, including the Administrator of a Union territory appointed under Article 239
Explanation: Section 2(s) defines State Government as the Department of Government of the State having administrative control of disaster management and includes the Administrator of the Union territory appointed by the President under Article 239.
64. Section 61 of the DM Act 2005 prohibits discrimination on which of the following grounds while providing compensation and relief to disaster victims?
  1. A. Sex, caste, community, descent or religion
  2. B. Only political affiliation
  3. C. Only age and occupation
  4. D. Only language and place of residence
Answer: Sex, caste, community, descent or religion
Explanation: Section 61 (Prohibition against discrimination) provides that while providing compensation and relief to victims of disaster there shall be no discrimination on the ground of sex, caste, community, descent or religion.
65. Under Section 13 of the DM Act 2005, in which type of case may the National Authority recommend relief in repayment of loans or grant of fresh loans on concessional terms to affected persons?
  1. A. Only offences punishable under Chapter X
  2. B. Disasters of severe magnitude
  3. C. Only disasters outside India
  4. D. Any minor local incident
Answer: Disasters of severe magnitude
Explanation: Section 13 lets the National Authority, in cases of disasters of severe magnitude, recommend relief in repayment of loans or grant of fresh loans to persons affected by disaster on such concessional terms as may be appropriate.
66. Which statement about the term 'threatening disaster situation' in the DM Act 2005 is correct?
  1. A. It is defined only in the Railways Act 1989
  2. B. Section 2(l) defines it as a biological epidemic
  3. C. The term is used in provisions such as Sections 24 and 34, but Section 2 contains no separate definition of it
  4. D. It is defined in Section 2(d) as the same thing as a disaster
Answer: The term is used in provisions such as Sections 24 and 34, but Section 2 contains no separate definition of it
Explanation: Section 2 of the Act defines 'disaster' in clause (d) but has no definition of 'threatening disaster situation'; the phrase is used in operative provisions (for example, Section 24 for the SEC and Section 34 for the District Authority) to allow action before a disaster fully occurs.
67. Under Section 64 of the DM Act 2005, if the NEC, SEC or District Authority finds that a rule, regulation, notification, guideline or order needs to be made or amended for prevention or mitigation of disasters, what may it do?
  1. A. Amend the Constitution directly
  2. B. Only recommend it to the High Court
  3. C. Require its amendment, and the appropriate department or authority must take necessary action to comply
  4. D. Do nothing, as only Parliament can act
Answer: Require its amendment, and the appropriate department or authority must take necessary action to comply
Explanation: Section 64 (Making or amending rules, etc., in certain circumstances) lets the NEC, SEC or District Authority require amendment of such instruments for prevention or mitigation, and the appropriate department or authority must comply.
68. Under Section 79 of the DM Act 2005, the Central Government has the power to do what if any difficulty arises in giving effect to the provisions of the Act?
  1. A. Suspend the entire Act permanently
  2. B. Amend the Constitution directly
  3. C. Make such provisions, by order published in the Official Gazette, as appear necessary or expedient for removing the difficulty (removal of difficulties clause)
  4. D. Dissolve Parliament
Answer: Make such provisions, by order published in the Official Gazette, as appear necessary or expedient for removing the difficulty (removal of difficulties clause)
Explanation: Section 79 is the standard 'removal of difficulties' clause, empowering the Central Government to issue orders (within a time limit from commencement) to resolve any difficulty in implementing the Act's provisions, subject to being laid before Parliament.
69. Under Section 71 of the DM Act 2005, which courts retain jurisdiction in respect of anything done or action taken under the Act by the Central Government, National Authority, State Government, State Authority or District Authority?
  1. A. Only Magistrate courts
  2. B. The Supreme Court and the High Courts only
  3. C. Only the Railway Claims Tribunal
  4. D. Every civil court in the country
Answer: The Supreme Court and the High Courts only
Explanation: Section 71 (Bar of jurisdiction of court) provides that no court except the Supreme Court or a High Court has jurisdiction to entertain any suit or proceeding in respect of anything done, action taken, or orders, directions or guidelines issued under the Act.
70. Under Section 56 of the DM Act 2005, an officer on whom a duty is imposed under the Act is NOT liable for ceasing or refusing to perform it if he has obtained what?
  1. A. Prior approval of the Election Commission
  2. B. The express written permission of his official superior, or has other lawful excuse
  3. C. Verbal approval from any colleague
  4. D. A court order after resigning
Answer: The express written permission of his official superior, or has other lawful excuse
Explanation: Section 56 punishes an officer who ceases or refuses to perform or withdraws from his duties, with imprisonment up to one year or fine, unless he has the express written permission of his official superior or other lawful excuse.
71. Which section of the DM Act 2005 empowers the National Executive Committee to constitute sub-committees?
  1. A. Section 7
  2. B. Section 17
  3. C. Section 9
  4. D. Section 28
Answer: Section 9
Explanation: Section 9 (Constitution of sub-committees) lets the National Executive Committee constitute sub-committees; Section 7 relates to the National Authority's advisory committee.
72. Which section of the DM Act 2005 empowers the National Authority to constitute an Advisory Committee of experts in the field of disaster management?
  1. A. Section 65
  2. B. Section 5
  3. C. Section 7
  4. D. Section 13
Answer: Section 7
Explanation: Section 7 allows NDMA to constitute an Advisory Committee consisting of experts in the field of disaster management to make recommendations on different aspects of disaster management.
73. Under Section 37 of the DM Act 2005, which bodies are required to prepare a disaster management plan?
  1. A. Only educational institutions
  2. B. Only the National Disaster Response Force
  3. C. Every Ministry or Department of the Government of India
  4. D. Only private companies with railway contracts
Answer: Every Ministry or Department of the Government of India
Explanation: Section 37 (Disaster management plans of Ministries or Departments of Government of India) requires every Ministry or Department to prepare a disaster management plan in accordance with the National Plan and guidelines; the corresponding State provisions are Sections 38 to 40.
74. Under Section 30 of the DM Act 2005, which of the following best describes the DDMA's core mandate?
  1. A. Formulating the national budget for disaster relief
  2. B. Only maintaining law and order in the district
  3. C. Acting as the district planning, coordinating and implementing body for disaster management, subject to directions of SDMA
  4. D. Approving state-level infrastructure projects unrelated to disasters
Answer: Acting as the district planning, coordinating and implementing body for disaster management, subject to directions of SDMA
Explanation: Section 30 makes the DDMA the district-level planning, coordinating and implementing body for disaster management, acting in accordance with the guidelines laid down by NDMA and SDMA.
75. Under Section 70 of the DM Act 2005, the Central Government must cause the annual report of the National Authority to be laid before both Houses of Parliament within what period of its receipt?
  1. A. Three months
  2. B. Six months
  3. C. Fifteen days
  4. D. One month
Answer: One month
Explanation: Section 70(1) requires the National Authority to prepare an annual report each year and forward it to the Central Government, which causes it to be laid before both Houses of Parliament within one month of receipt.
76. Under Section 74 of the DM Act 2005, officers and employees of the Central Government, NDMA, NEC, State Government, SDMA, SEC or District Authority are immune from legal process in regard to what?
  1. A. Any offence of obstruction under Section 51 committed by them
  2. B. Any claim of misappropriation of relief materials
  3. C. Any warning of an impending disaster communicated or disseminated in their official capacity, or any action taken pursuant to it
  4. D. Any dispute about their service conditions
Answer: Any warning of an impending disaster communicated or disseminated in their official capacity, or any action taken pursuant to it
Explanation: Section 74 (immunity from legal process) protects officers and employees in respect of any warning of an impending disaster communicated in their official capacity and any action or direction issued in pursuance of it.

77. How does Section 2(p) of the DM Act 2005 define 'resources'?

  1. A. Resources means only foreign aid received by India
  2. B. Resources means only equipment owned by the Armed Forces
  3. C. Resources includes manpower, services, materials and provisions
  4. D. Resources means only cash held in the National Disaster Response Fund
Answer: Resources includes manpower, services, materials and provisions
Explanation: Section 2(p) provides that 'resources' includes manpower, services, materials and provisions.
78. Under Section 18 of the DM Act 2005, the State Disaster Management Authority is responsible for which of the following at the state level?
  1. A. Commanding the Indian Army
  2. B. Laying down the State Disaster Management Policy and approving the State Plan
  3. C. Enacting central legislation
  4. D. Appointing the President of India
Answer: Laying down the State Disaster Management Policy and approving the State Plan
Explanation: Section 18 (functions) read with the SDMA's role under the Act includes laying down the state disaster management policy and approving the State Disaster Management Plan prepared by the State Executive Committee.
79. Under Section 3(4) of the DM Act 2005, how are the term of office and conditions of service of the members of the National Disaster Management Authority determined?
  1. A. Decided by the Supreme Court on a case-by-case basis
  2. B. As may be prescribed
  3. C. Decided by the Prime Minister by an oral order
  4. D. Fixed by the Act itself at five years for every member
Answer: As may be prescribed
Explanation: Section 3(4) leaves the term of office and conditions of service of NDMA members to be prescribed (by rules made by the Central Government under Section 75), rather than fixing them in the Act.
80. Which fund, constituted under Section 47 of the DM Act 2005, is meant for meeting expenses of mitigation activities?
  1. A. Prime Minister's National Relief Fund
  2. B. National Disaster Mitigation Fund
  3. C. National Disaster Response Fund
  4. D. Calamity Relief Fund
Answer: National Disaster Mitigation Fund
Explanation: Section 47 of the DM Act 2005 provides for a National Disaster Mitigation Fund exclusively for mitigation activities, separate from the response-oriented National Disaster Response Fund.

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