RPF Sub-Inspector Promotion Examination MCQ Practice

1. A. Life imprisonment
2. B. Imprisonment up to six months only
3. C. Imprisonment up to three years, or fine, or both
4. D. Imprisonment of at least five years

1. A. Any civil wrong including breach of contract
2. B. Theft, extortion, robbery, cheating, criminal misappropriation or criminal breach of trust
3. C. Only theft, extortion or dacoity
4. D. Only theft or robbery

1. A. Must be punished under both enactments cumulatively
2. B. Must be prosecuted under the later enactment only
3. C. Can be prosecuted only under the special Act
4. D. May be prosecuted and punished under either enactment but shall not be punished twice for the same offence

1. A. BNS Section 303
2. B. BNSS Section 337 (old CrPC s.300) read with Article 20(2)
3. C. BNSS Section 482
4. D. BNSS Section 35

1. A. The person confesses
2. B. A written complaint from the railway administration is filed
3. C. The Magistrate is present at the spot
4. D. Prior permission of an officer not below the rank of Deputy Superintendent of Police is obtained

1. A. Mandatorily obtain a Magistrate's warrant
2. B. Mandatorily detain the person for 24 hours
3. C. Close the case without any step
4. D. Issue a notice directing the person to appear before him or at a specified place

1. A. The Arnesh Kumar guidelines, so arrest is not routine and the Section 41/41A (now BNSS 35) checklist must be followed
2. B. The wishes of the complainant
3. C. The seriousness of the accused's reputation alone
4. D. Automatic arrest within 24 hours of the FIR

1. A. Applies only to persons formally arrested
2. B. Applies only at the trial stage
3. C. Extends to the stage of police interrogation, so a person may refuse to answer questions that tend to incriminate him
4. D. Applies only to written statements

1. A. Selvi v. State of Karnataka (2010)
2. B. D.K. Basu v. State of West Bengal (1997)
3. C. Kathi Kalu Oghad (1961)
4. D. Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India (1978)

1. A. Only the fact that he was arrested
2. B. None of it, since he was in custody
3. C. The entire statement including admission of theft
4. D. Only the portion distinctly relating to the discovery, i.e. where the clips were hidden

1611. Pulukuri Kottaya v. Emperor (1947) is the leading authority on:

1. A. The extent to which information leading to discovery by an accused in custody is provable (Evidence Act s.27, now BSA s.23(2) proviso)
2. B. The doctrine of res ipsa loquitur
3. C. The presumption against receivers of stolen goods
4. D. The meaning of 'possession' in railway property offences

1. A. Is not automatically excluded if relevant and genuine; the court may examine it with caution
2. B. Is admissible only if the Magistrate later ratifies the search
3. C. Is admissible only for civil proceedings
4. D. Is automatically inadmissible

1. A. Always violates Article 20(3)
2. B. Is unconstitutional unless the accused consents
3. C. Is valid only if conducted by a Magistrate personally
4. D. Does not violate Article 20(3) and does not infringe a fundamental right to privacy under Article 19 or 20

1. A. Not testimonial compulsion and so not barred by Article 20(3)
2. B. Permitted only with a Magistrate present and the accused's written consent
3. C. Permitted only after conviction
4. D. Testimonial compulsion barred by Article 20(3)

1. A. Should not be hedged by rigid time limits or inflexible conditions and is a matter of the court's discretion
2. B. Is available only when an FIR has already been registered and chargesheet filed
3. C. Can be granted only for a fixed period of 30 days
4. D. Is automatically available for every non-bailable offence

1. A. 30 days continuously from the date of arrest
2. B. 15 days, only within the first 24 hours
3. C. 15 days, usable in whole or in parts during the first 40 or 60 days of detention
4. D. 7 days in total

1. A. 120 days
2. B. 90 days
3. C. 60 days
4. D. 45 days

1. A. Is permitted only for women arrestees
2. B. Is prima facie inhuman and violates Article 21 unless it is shown to be absolutely necessary
3. C. Is permitted for every arrestee as a matter of routine
4. D. Is a matter solely for the discretion of the arresting officer with no judicial review

1. A. Presence of the advocate only after the chargesheet is filed
2. B. Meeting the advocate during interrogation, though not throughout the interrogation
3. C. Only a State-appointed legal aid lawyer, not one of his choice
4. D. Presence of the advocate throughout every question put to him

1. A. Section 43
2. B. Section 35
3. C. Section 36
4. D. Section 38

1. A. Section 47 (old CrPC s.50)
2. B. Section 106 (old CrPC s.102)
3. C. Section 58 (old CrPC s.57)
4. D. Section 36 (old CrPC s.41B)

1. A. The local panchayat head
2. B. Any of his relatives, friends or such other person as he may disclose or nominate
3. C. Only the railway Divisional Security Commissioner
4. D. Only the Magistrate having jurisdiction

1. A. That he must execute a personal bond only
2. B. That the arrest has been approved by a Magistrate
3. C. That he will be released after 24 hours automatically
4. D. That he is entitled to be released on bail and may arrange sureties on his behalf

1. A. To remain silent and to be examined by a medical officer
2. B. To be produced before a Magistrate and to have a free lawyer at State cost
3. C. To be released on bail and to be tried within 60 days
4. D. To be informed of the grounds of arrest as soon as may be, and to consult and be defended by a legal practitioner of his choice

1. A. It is counted only if travel is by road
2. B. It is excluded from the 24 hours
3. C. It is excluded only if the arrest was made at night
4. D. It is included, so the arrestee must be produced within 20 hours of court travel

1. A. Police may arrest anyone merely on a complaint
2. B. Power to arrest is distinct from justification for arrest; an arrest must be justified, not routine
3. C. Arrest cannot be made after sunset
4. D. A Magistrate's warrant is always essential

1. A. The Force officer inquires only on the complaint of the railway
2. B. The Force officer must wait for the Magistrate's order before inquiring
3. C. The Force officer may on his own inquire, arrest-related decisions included, without a Magistrate's order
4. D. The Force officer may never examine witnesses

1. A. It completely bars prosecution
2. B. None by itself; a licence to trade does not prove that this particular lot came into his possession lawfully
3. C. It shifts the burden to the railway
4. D. It converts the offence into a civil matter

1. A. The identity of the original thief
2. B. The character of the property, i.e. whether it was stolen or unlawfully obtained
3. C. The criminal history of the accused
4. D. The value of the property

1. A. Short title and commencement
2. B. Power to remove difficulties
3. C. Amendment of the Railways Act
4. D. Repeal and savings

1. A. Protection of action taken in good faith
2. B. Power to make rules
3. C. Act not to affect other laws
4. D. Act to override other laws

1. A. Power of courts to order forfeiture of vehicles, etc.
2. B. Power of the Force to seize vehicles
3. C. Compensation to the railway for loss
4. D. Disposal of unclaimed property

1. A. Officers required to report
2. B. Obligation of railway servants to give information
3. C. Officers required to assist
4. D. Power of courts to order forfeiture

1. A. Procedure for seizure of vehicles
2. B. Searches and arrests how to be made
3. C. Searches and arrests to be made only by day
4. D. Power of the Force to search any railway premises

1. A. Officers required to assist
2. B. Seizure of vehicles
3. C. Issue of search warrant
4. D. Searches without warrant in urgent cases

1. A. Power to summon persons to give evidence and produce documents
2. B. Power to attach property
3. C. Power to issue search warrants
4. D. Power to examine witnesses on oath

1. A. Trial of arrested persons by the Force
2. B. Inquiry how to be made against arrested persons
3. C. Production of arrested persons before the Magistrate
4. D. Investigation of cognizable offences

1. A. Disposal of persons arrested
2. B. Disposal of seized property
3. C. Power to release on bail
4. D. Disposal of persons convicted

1. A. Offences to be tried summarily
2. B. Offences under the Act to be cognizable and non-bailable
3. C. Offences under the Act not to be cognizable
4. D. Cognizance of offences by Magistrates

1. A. Punishment for connivance of offences
2. B. Power to arrest without warrant
3. C. Penalty for obstructing an officer of the Force
4. D. Penalty for abetment of offences

1. A. Section 187
2. B. Section 58
3. C. Section 47
4. D. Section 94

1. A. Article 32: right to constitutional remedies
2. B. Article 20(1): no ex post facto penalty
3. C. Article 22(2): production before the nearest Magistrate within 24 hours, excluding journey time
4. D. Article 21A: right to education

1. A. The arrested person must be taken to the nearest Magistrate
2. B. The arrested person must be taken to the nearest railway station master
3. C. The arrested person goes to the closest available ASI or higher officer of the Force, not necessarily the one in his own post
4. D. The arrested person must go to the Inspector in charge of the post

1. A. Not authorised, because the inquiry and the release or forwarding decision belong to an officer of the Force
2. B. Authorised under Section 6
3. C. Authorised under Section 12
4. D. Authorised if the fuses are of low value

1. A. The Magistrate having jurisdiction in the case
2. B. The Superintendent of Police of the district
3. C. The Station Master
4. D. The Divisional Security Commissioner

1. A. Either the thief or the receiver of the goods, unless he accounts for his possession
2. B. Innocent unless the prosecution proves theft
3. C. Always the thief, with no explanation allowed
4. D. A mere custodian

1. A. Forwarded without delay to the District Magistrate, Sub-Divisional Magistrate or Judicial Magistrate of the first class
2. B. Destroyed after the seizure memo is signed
3. C. Shared with the accused's employer
4. D. Kept only with the seizing officer until trial

1. A. The accused
2. B. The person in charge of the device and an expert
3. C. Two independent witnesses
4. D. The Magistrate alone

1. A. Section 103
2. B. Section 106
3. C. Section 105
4. D. Section 185

1. A. Section 106
2. B. Section 497
3. C. Section 174
4. D. Section 210

1. A. Any Magistrate
2. B. The Court of Session only
3. C. The High Court
4. D. A Magistrate of the first class

1. A. He is never entitled to it
2. B. One-third of the maximum period
3. C. One-half of the maximum period, i.e. two and a half years
4. D. One year in all cases

1. A. One-third of the maximum sentence, i.e. about 20 months
2. B. Six months in every case
3. C. One-half of the maximum sentence, i.e. 30 months
4. D. The full maximum sentence of five years

1. A. Every 7 days
2. B. Once at the end of detention only
3. C. Every 48 hours during detention
4. D. Every 6 hours

1. A. Signed only by the arresting officer
2. B. Filed in the High Court within a week
3. C. Approved in advance by the Chief Judicial Magistrate
4. D. Attested by at least one witness (a family member or respectable local person) and countersigned by the arrestee

1. A. Arrest in every case to prevent absconding
2. B. Not arrest automatically but satisfy herself, and record reasons, that arrest is necessary under the statutory criteria
3. C. Release every accused on police bail within an hour
4. D. Obtain a Magistrate's warrant before every arrest

1. A. A person accused of an offence cannot be compelled to be a witness against himself, so the duty to answer cannot override that protection
2. B. Section 9 overrides the Constitution through Section 14
3. C. Article 20(3) applies only after conviction
4. D. Article 20(3) never applies to inquiries by the RPF

1. A. Goods
2. B. Land and building
3. C. Valuable security belonging to the railway administration
4. D. Animal

1. A. It is outside the definition because currency is not goods
2. B. 'Money' belonging to or in the charge of the railway administration
3. C. 'Animal'
4. D. 'Valuable security'

1. A. Because bales are 'valuable security'
2. B. Because ownership passes to the railway on loading
3. C. Because goods in the charge or possession of a railway administration are covered even if owned by someone else
4. D. Because the consignor is a railway servant

1. A. Yes, but only if its market value exceeds Rs. 1,000
2. B. No, because only inanimate goods can be railway property
3. C. No, because the Force is not a railway administration
4. D. Yes, because an animal belonging to or in the charge of a railway administration is expressly covered

1. A. Seize documents
2. B. Summon persons acquainted with the facts
3. C. Arrest without a warrant
4. D. Examine witnesses

1. A. A non-cognizable case in its entirety
2. B. A cognizable case, notwithstanding that the other offences are non-cognizable
3. C. A case triable only by a Court of Session
4. D. A case that requires prior sanction of the Central Government

1664. The RP(UP) Act, 1966 as published contains how many sections?

1. A. Twelve
2. B. Fourteen
3. C. Sixteen
4. D. Twenty

1. A. Section 8 of the General Clauses Act, 1897
2. B. Article 20 of the Constitution
3. C. Section 6 of the General Clauses Act, 1897
4. D. Section 3 of the Indian Railways Act, 1890

1. A. The Indian Railways Act, 1890
2. B. The Railways Stores (Unlawful Possession) Act, 1955 (51 of 1955)
3. C. The Railway Protection Force Act, 1957
4. D. The Railway Property (Protection) Act, 1949

1. A. The Magistrate chooses either at will
2. B. The RP(UP) Act's provisions prevail to the extent of the inconsistency
3. C. The State law prevails because it is later
4. D. Both apply cumulatively to reduce the penalty

1. A. The Railway Protection Force
2. B. The Magistrate personally
3. C. Government
4. D. The complainant

1. A. The land on which the property was stored
2. B. The ration card of the accused
3. C. The bank accounts of the accused
4. D. Receptacles, packages or coverings containing it, and animals, vehicles or other conveyances used in carrying it

1. A. All officers of Government and all village officers
2. B. Only railway employees
3. C. Only police officers of the State
4. D. Only members of the Gram Panchayat

1. A. BNSS Section 173
2. B. BNSS Section 47
3. C. BNSS Section 185
4. D. BNSS Section 58

1. A. In accordance with the Code of Criminal Procedure provisions relating respectively to searches and arrests under that Code
2. B. In the presence of a railway Station Master
3. C. In accordance with the Railways Act, 1989
4. D. As the Director General may prescribe

1. A. Section 12 allows a village officer to authorise the search
2. B. The Act provides search through a Magistrate's warrant under Section 10; Section 6 gives only arrest, not search, without a warrant
3. C. Section 6 permits search of any premises without a warrant
4. D. Section 5 permits search because the offence is non-cognizable

1674. Before issuing a warrant under Section 10(2), the Magistrate:

1. A. Must hold a full trial
2. B. May make such inquiry as he thinks necessary
3. C. Must hear the owner of the premises
4. D. Must obtain the consent of the railway administration

1. A. Two: enter and arrest
2. B. Five: enter, search, seize, arrest and prosecute
3. C. Four: enter, search, take possession, and convey/guard/dispose of the property
4. D. Three: enter, arrest and seize persons

1. A. The Director General of the RPF
2. B. The Divisional Railway Manager
3. C. The Magistrate having jurisdiction over the area in which the place is situated
4. D. The Superintendent of Police of the district

1. A. He may refuse if the cable is of small value
2. B. He must answer only before the Magistrate
3. C. He may refuse because the inquiry is not judicial
4. D. Persons summoned are bound to state the truth on any subject on which they are examined

1. A. Section 303
2. B. Section 221
3. C. Section 267
4. D. Section 229

1. A. Sections 182 and 211
2. B. Sections 191 and 192
3. C. Sections 193 and 228
4. D. Sections 201 and 203

1. A. Persons residing outside the district
2. B. Persons above seventy years of age
3. C. Women who, according to the customs and manners of the country, ought not to be compelled to appear in public
4. D. Serving military personnel