RPF Sub-Inspector Promotion Examination MCQ Practice

1. A. The agent is a practising advocate
2. B. The person has paid a security deposit
3. C. The officer directs that attendance may be in person or by an authorised agent
4. D. The summons concerns only money

1682. Under Section 9(2), a summons to produce documents may call for:

1. A. Only documents of a bank
2. B. Only documents already filed in a court
3. C. Only originals of registered documents
4. D. Certain specified documents, or all documents of a certain description in the possession or control of the person summoned

1. A. Only to furnish sureties for a bond
2. B. Only to give evidence in open court
3. C. Only to identify stolen property at the police station
4. D. To give evidence, or to produce a document or any other thing, for the purposes of the Act

1. A. Section 109
2. B. Section 21
3. C. Section 119
4. D. Section 23(1)

1. A. A police officer whose recorded statements are wholly inadmissible
2. B. Not a 'police officer' within the meaning of Section 25 of the Evidence Act
3. C. A civil court officer under the Code of Civil Procedure
4. D. A Magistrate for purposes of recording confessions

1. A. Commit him to the Sessions Court, or release him on his word
2. B. Release him on personal bond, or convert the case into a civil recovery
3. C. Admit the accused to bail to appear before the Magistrate, or forward him in custody to the Magistrate
4. D. Remand him for 15 days himself, or hand him to the local police

1. A. Release him unconditionally without any record
2. B. Release the person on a bond, with or without sureties, to appear before the Magistrate when required, and report fully to his official superior
3. C. Hold him for 24 hours and then free him by oral order
4. D. Forward him to the Magistrate in custody regardless

1. A. The Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 applicable to civil courts
2. B. The Railways Act inquiry rules for accidents
3. C. The Indian Evidence Act rules for Magistrate trials
4. D. The same powers and provisions as an officer in charge of a police station investigating a cognizable case under the Code of Criminal Procedure

1. A. When a person is arrested by an officer of the Force, or is forwarded to him under Section 7
2. B. When bail is granted, or when the accused surrenders
3. C. When property is seized under Section 10, or a summons is issued under Section 9
4. D. When a complaint is filed before a Magistrate, or a warrant is issued

1. A. Yes, because only an Inspector may inquire
2. B. Yes, because every arrest must be forwarded to the Magistrate through a superior officer
3. C. No, because he must release the man at once on a bond
4. D. No, because Section 7 applies only where the arrest is made by a person other than an officer of the Force; he proceeds to inquire under Section 8(1)

1. A. Any superior officer or member of the Force
2. B. Only a Railway Magistrate
3. C. Only the Station House Officer of the local police
4. D. Only an officer of the Force of the rank of Inspector or above

1. A. The person is a habitual offender, or has been previously convicted
2. B. The person has obstructed an officer, or has escaped from custody
3. C. The person is absconding, or has refused to give his name
4. D. The person has been concerned in an offence under the Act, or a reasonable suspicion exists of his having been so concerned

1. A. The Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023
2. B. The Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973
3. C. The Code of Criminal Procedure, 1898
4. D. The Indian Penal Code, 1860

1. A. Minimum two years and minimum fine Rs. 2,000
2. B. Up to five years, or fine, or both, with no minimum sentence
3. C. Minimum one year and minimum fine Rs. 1,000
4. D. Imprisonment up to three years only, without fine

1695. Section 4 of the RP(UP) Act punishes a person who:

1. A. Obstructs an officer of the Force in his duty
2. B. Abets any person to hold railway property
3. C. Gives false information to an officer of the Force
4. D. Being owner or occupier of land or building, or its managing agent, wilfully connives at an offence against the Act

1. A. The magistrate must presume possession was lawful
2. B. The accused must prove his innocence beyond reasonable doubt
3. C. The onus of proving lawful possession lies on the accused once the foundational facts are established
4. D. The prosecution must additionally prove dishonest intention

1. A. In the charge-sheet
2. B. In the judgment itself
3. C. In a separate confidential note to the High Court
4. D. In the order sheet of the first hearing

1. A. Not permissible, since in the absence of special and adequate reasons imprisonment of at least one year is mandatory
2. B. Permissible if the accused is a railway employee
3. C. Permissible only if the fine exceeds Rs. 10,000
4. D. Permissible, as the first offence allows fine alone as of right

1. A. The sentence is valid because maximum is five years
2. B. The imprisonment is below the two-year minimum for a second offence, so the sentence is not sustainable
3. C. The sentence is valid since fine is at the minimum
4. D. The sentence is invalid because fine must be Rs. 5,000

1. A. Valid, as it meets both statutory minimums
2. B. Invalid, as imprisonment and fine cannot be combined for a first offence
3. C. Invalid, as the minimum imprisonment is two years
4. D. Invalid, as the minimum fine is Rs. 5,000

1. A. The accused was found or proved to have been in possession of it
2. B. The property is reasonably suspected of having been stolen or unlawfully obtained
3. C. The property is railway property
4. D. Proof that the accused himself committed the original theft

1. A. Five
2. B. Two
3. C. Three
4. D. Four

1. A. Act No. 29 of 1966; 16 September 1966
2. B. Act No. 23 of 1966; 16 September 1966
3. C. Act No. 23 of 1957; 16 September 1957
4. D. Act No. 29 of 1966; 1 April 1968

1. A. The meaning assigned to it in the Indian Railways Act, 1890
2. B. The Code of Criminal Procedure, 1898
3. C. The Railway Protection Force Act, 1957 only
4. D. The General Clauses Act, 1897 only

1. A. Section 6 of the RPF Act, 1957, plus any Inspector confirmed in service
2. B. Section 4 of the RPF Act, 1957, plus any other officer appointed by the Central Government as a superior officer of the Force
3. C. Section 11 of the RPF Act, 1957, plus any officer designated by a Divisional Railway Manager
4. D. Section 3 of the RPF Act, 1957, plus any officer of the rank of Sub-Inspector

1. A. Any gazetted railway commercial officer
2. B. A superior officer
3. C. Any state police officer deputed to the Force
4. D. A Head Constable with over ten years' service

1. A. He is neither a 'member' nor an 'officer' of the Force
2. B. He is both a 'member of the Force' and an 'officer of the Force'
3. C. He is an 'officer of the Force' but not a 'member of the Force'
4. D. He is a 'superior officer' by virtue of rank alone

1. A. A superior officer
2. B. An Assistant Sub-Inspector
3. C. A Naik or Lance Naik
4. D. A Head Constable

1. A. Only a High Court Judge
2. B. Only the Chief Judicial Magistrate of the State capital
3. C. Any Magistrate in India
4. D. The Magistrate having jurisdiction to try the case or commit it for trial

1. A. Only offences punishable under Section 4
2. B. All offences under the Act, by virtue of BNSS Section 210(1)(a)
3. C. Only offences by railway employees
4. D. None, as only the police may complain

1. A. No, nobody may arrest without warrant
2. B. Yes, every railway employee has Section 6 power
3. C. No, Section 6 is vested in a superior officer or member of the Force; the Station Master may detain and hand him over under Section 7
4. D. Yes, but only after the Magistrate's order

1. A. Section 8 of the RP(UP) Act
2. B. Section 13 of the RP(UP) Act
3. C. Section 10 of the RP(UP) Act
4. D. Section 6 of the RP(UP) Act

1. A. 2, 1, 4, 3
2. B. 4, 3, 2, 1
3. C. 1, 2, 3, then 4 (if the inquiry points to a godown)
4. D. 3, 1, 4, 2

1714. Section 14 of the RP(UP) Act opens with which type of clause?

1. A. A non-obstante clause
2. B. A sunset clause
3. C. A proviso
4. D. A definition clause

1. A. Contained in the Constitution
2. B. Contained in State Police Manuals only
3. C. Contained in the Railways Act only
4. D. Inconsistent with the Act contained in any other law for the time being in force

1. A. The order can be made only by the High Court
2. B. Only the owner of the goods can seek forfeiture
3. C. Vehicles can never be forfeited
4. D. He had no knowledge or connivance and the vehicle was used without his knowledge, so the Court should consider this before ordering forfeiture

1. A. Only the property involved
2. B. The property involved, its packaging and any animal or vehicle used in carrying it
3. C. Only the vehicle
4. D. The accused's entire estate

1. A. Section 13 of the RP(UP) Act
2. B. Section 5 of the RP(UP) Act
3. C. Section 14 of the RP(UP) Act
4. D. Section 12 of the RP(UP) Act, the duty of village officers to assist

1. A. Only advocates
2. B. Only railway employees
3. C. Only members of the public with an RPF identity card
4. D. All Government officers and village officers

1. A. A press note
2. B. Handwritten notes only
3. C. A sketch map only
4. D. Audio-video electronic means, preferably a mobile phone

1. A. Only the officer's own subordinates
2. B. The Station Master only
3. C. The press
4. D. Two or more independent and respectable inhabitants of the locality

1. A. Railway Board circulars alone
2. B. RPF Rules alone
3. C. The provisions of the Code of Criminal Procedure (now BNSS) relating to searches and arrests
4. D. Orders of the Station Master

1. A. Nothing, as the Force may search at will
2. B. Permission of the Station Master
3. C. A warrant from a Magistrate
4. D. A Magistrate's order only for night searches

1. A. Return it to the occupier
2. B. Auction it immediately
3. C. Destroy it as evidence
4. D. Convey it before a Magistrate, or guard it on the spot until the offender is taken before a Magistrate, or otherwise dispose of it in a place of safety

1. A. Enter with needed assistance, search, and seize railway property reasonably suspected to be stolen or unlawfully obtained
2. B. Demolish the building
3. C. Arrest every person in the locality
4. D. Attach the owner's bank account

1. A. Reason to believe that the place is used for deposit or sale of stolen or unlawfully obtained railway property
2. B. Proof beyond reasonable doubt
3. C. A confession by the owner
4. D. Absolute certainty of guilt

1. A. Enter at once on the Station Master's permission
2. B. Apply to the Magistrate having jurisdiction for a search warrant
3. C. Ask the nearest village officer to search
4. D. Seek an order from the Railway Board

1. A. Makes every statement an oath-bound deposition in court
2. B. Deems the inquiry a judicial proceeding for those provisions
3. C. Exempts the witness from the oath
4. D. Converts the officer into a Magistrate

1. A. Sections 193 and 228 IPC (false evidence; insult or interruption to a public servant in judicial proceeding)
2. B. Sections 302 and 304 IPC
3. C. Sections 420 and 468 IPC
4. D. Sections 379 and 411 IPC

1. A. Sections 80 and 89
2. B. Sections 100 and 115
3. C. Sections 10 and 11
4. D. Sections 132 and 133

1. A. To attend and to state the truth on the subject of examination
2. B. To pay a fee for the summons
3. C. To attend only if accompanied by a lawyer
4. D. To attend but he may remain silent on everything

1. A. Summon any person to give evidence or produce a document or thing
2. B. Try the accused summarily
3. C. Grant anticipatory bail
4. D. Award compensation

1. A. Only his name and father's name
2. B. The full particulars of the offence and the grounds of arrest
3. C. The salary of the arresting officer
4. D. The cost of the proceeding

1. A. 15 days of arrest
2. B. 24 hours of arrest, excluding journey time
3. C. 48 hours of arrest
4. D. 7 days of arrest

1. A. Yes, if the Magistrate allows
2. B. Yes, any member of the Force may inquire
3. C. No, he must forward the person to an officer of the Force (ASI or above) who inquires
4. D. No, only the Director-General can inquire

1. A. Both are exercisable only by the Director-General
2. B. Arrest only by an officer; inquiry by any member
3. C. Arrest by any superior officer or member; inquiry by an officer of the Force
4. D. Both are exercisable by any constable

1. A. A Judicial Magistrate of the first class
2. B. A Sessions Judge
3. C. An officer in charge of a police station investigating a cognizable case
4. D. A Collector

1. A. Detain him for 15 days
2. B. Hand him to the State police
3. C. Forward him in custody to the Magistrate anyway
4. D. Release the person on a bond and report to the superior officer

1. A. Order him to be dismissed from service
2. B. Fine him on the spot
3. C. Admit him to bail to appear before the Magistrate, or forward him in custody to the Magistrate
4. D. Close the file and issue a caution

1. A. Passing sentence
2. B. Compounding the offence
3. C. Inquiring into the charge against the person
4. D. Trying the offence summarily

1. A. Release him at the next station
2. B. Keep him until morning
3. C. Forward him without delay to the nearest officer of the Force
4. D. File a complaint with the Railway Board

1. A. Hand him to the Station Master
2. B. Forward him without delay to the nearest officer of the Force
3. C. Release him after a warning
4. D. Produce him before the Railway Board

1743. Who can exercise the Section 6 power of arrest without warrant?

1. A. Any superior officer or member of the Force
2. B. Only an 'officer of the Force' of ASI rank or above
3. C. Only a Magistrate
4. D. Only the Station Master of the railway station concerned

1. A. Neither a Magistrate's order nor a warrant is required
2. B. A Magistrate's order is required but a warrant is not
3. C. Both a warrant and a Magistrate's order are required
4. D. A warrant is required but a Magistrate's order is not

1. A. Transfer the case to the Railway Board
2. B. Register an FIR and arrest without a warrant
3. C. Investigate without any order
4. D. Enter the substance in the prescribed book and refer the informant to the Magistrate

1746. Section 5 of the RP(UP) Act declares offences under the Act:

1. A. Cognizable but bailable
2. B. Compoundable by the Station Master
3. C. Cognizable and non-bailable
4. D. Non-cognizable, notwithstanding the Code of Criminal Procedure

1. A. A railway ticket examiner on a different train
2. B. A passer-by who saw the crime
3. C. A court clerk handling the case
4. D. An agent in charge of managing the land or building of the owner

1. A. Shop-fronts are not 'land or building'
2. B. Section 4 applies only to railway employees
3. C. Connivance requires wilful acquiescence with knowledge, which is absent
4. D. Bolts are not railway property

1. A. Section 4 carries a mandatory minimum of one year; Section 3 has none
2. B. Both prescribe identical minimums
3. C. Neither Section authorises a fine
4. D. Section 3 carries mandatory minimums absent special reasons; Section 4 has none

1. A. They must be re-registered under Section 3 of the 1966 Act
2. B. They may be investigated, inquired into and tried as if the 1966 Act had not been passed
3. C. They are tried only by the Railway Claims Tribunal
4. D. They are extinguished and cannot be tried

1. A. The Indian Railways Act, 1890
2. B. The Railway Servants Act, 1920
3. C. The Railway Protection Force Act, 1957
4. D. The Railway Stores (Unlawful Possession) Act, 1955

1. A. Strict liability without any regard to knowledge
2. B. Constructive liability of every household member
3. C. Conscious possession, i.e. knowledge and control over the thing
4. D. Vicarious liability of the neighbour

1. A. Allow courts to draw adverse inferences
2. B. Apply to any criminal trial
3. C. Relieve the prosecution of its duty to prove the case beyond reasonable doubt
4. D. Apply to facts within an accused's knowledge

1. A. The accused must disprove guilt beyond reasonable doubt
2. B. Reverse-onus clauses are always unconstitutional
3. C. Possession alone, without any suspicion, is sufficient for conviction
4. D. Such a provision is valid but the prosecution must first establish the foundational facts

1. A. Accused proves innocence first, then prosecution proves property
2. B. Magistrate presumes guilt, then police prove possession
3. C. Prove theft by a named person, then prove possession
4. D. Prove railway property, prove possession, show reasonable suspicion of theft/unlawful acquisition, then accused must prove lawful possession

1. A. In the charge or possession of the railway administration
2. B. Declared by the Magistrate to be railway property
3. C. Owned by the Railway Board
4. D. Insured with the Railways

1. A. They become railway property only after being laid
2. B. They are 'animals' in railway custody
3. C. They are 'goods' belonging to or in the charge of the railway administration
4. D. They are 'valuable security'

1. A. No, because the Act applies only to moving trains
2. B. Yes, because a building is railway property
3. C. Yes, but only if the building is a station
4. D. No, because buildings and land are outside the definition of railway property in Section 2

1. A. Land, buildings, locomotives and rolling stock
2. B. Goods, immovable property, land and animal
3. C. Goods, money, valuable security and animal
4. D. Rolling stock, track, signals and stations

1. A. Only the Divisional Railway Manager
2. B. Only the Railway Board
3. C. Only the General Manager of a zone
4. D. The Central Government or a Railway Company, as the case may be, owning or working the railway