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81. Under Section 148 BNSS (CrPC Section 129), who may command an unlawful assembly to disperse?
- A. Only the Chief Justice of the High Court
- B. Only a Public Prosecutor
- C. Any Executive Magistrate, or the officer in charge of a police station
- D. Only a Judicial Magistrate of the second class
Answer: Any Executive Magistrate, or the officer in charge of a police station
Explanation: Section 148 BNSS allows any Executive Magistrate or the officer in charge of a police station (or, in his absence, a police officer not below the rank of sub-inspector) to command an unlawful assembly to disperse.
82. Which of the following best describes the powers of police officers superior in rank to an officer in charge of a police station under BNSS?
- A. A superior officer can never exercise powers of an officer in charge of a police station
- B. A superior officer may exercise the same powers as an officer in charge of a police station within the local area of such station
- C. Only the Director General of Police has such powers
- D. Superior officers' powers are limited to administrative matters only
Answer: A superior officer may exercise the same powers as an officer in charge of a police station within the local area of such station
Explanation: BNSS retains the CrPC Section 36 scheme under which police officers superior in rank to an officer in charge of a police station may exercise the same powers throughout the local area to which they are appointed.
83. Security for keeping the peace and for good behaviour under BNSS broadly corresponds to which Chapter of the CrPC?
- A. Chapter X (Sections 129-148)
- B. Chapter XII (Sections 154-176)
- C. Chapter IX (Sections 125-128)
- D. Chapter VIII (Sections 106-124)
Answer: Chapter VIII (Sections 106-124)
Explanation: CrPC Chapter VIII (Sections 106-124) dealt with security for keeping the peace and good behaviour; BNSS carries these provisions forward with renumbering.
84. Under Section 187 BNSS, for offences punishable with death, life imprisonment or imprisonment for ten years or more, an accused becomes entitled to default bail if the investigation is not completed within how many days?
- A. 90 days
- B. 120 days
- C. 60 days
- D. 30 days
Answer: 90 days
Explanation: Section 187 BNSS (CrPC Section 167) gives the right to default bail after 90 days for offences punishable with death, life imprisonment or imprisonment of ten years or more, and after 60 days for other offences, if the chargesheet is not filed.
85. Under Section 173 BNSS, for offences punishable with imprisonment of three years or more but less than seven years, before registering an FIR the officer in charge may, with prior permission of an officer not below the rank of:
- A. No permission needed; FIR must be registered instantly in all cases
- B. Inspector General of Police, within 90 days
- C. Deputy Superintendent of Police, conduct a preliminary inquiry within 14 days to ascertain a prima facie case
- D. Additional Director General, within 6 months
Answer: Deputy Superintendent of Police, conduct a preliminary inquiry within 14 days to ascertain a prima facie case
Explanation: Section 173(3) BNSS introduces a preliminary inquiry option for offences punishable with three years or more but less than seven years, requiring permission from an officer not below the rank of DySP and completion within 14 days, a provision absent in CrPC.
86. A victim of a sexual offence is temporarily or permanently mentally or physically disabled. Under Section 183(6)(a) BNSS, how is her statement recorded by the Magistrate?
- A. Only after a doctor certifies the disability in open court
- B. Only in the officer's own narrative without any assistance
- C. It cannot be recorded and is excluded from evidence
- D. With the assistance of an interpreter or special educator, with the statement video-recorded
Answer: With the assistance of an interpreter or special educator, with the statement video-recorded
Explanation: Section 183(6)(a) BNSS (corresponding to CrPC Section 164(5A)(a)) requires the Magistrate to record the statement of a mentally or physically disabled victim with the help of an interpreter or special educator, and to video-record it.
87. Which of the following is one of the conditions in Section 35(1)(b) BNSS justifying arrest without warrant for an offence punishable up to 7 years?
- A. To satisfy a departmental performance target
- B. To prevent the person from making any inducement, threat or promise to any person to disclose facts of the case to the Court or police officer
- C. To recover stolen property in every theft case
- D. To comply with a media request for arrest visuals
Answer: To prevent the person from making any inducement, threat or promise to any person to disclose facts of the case to the Court or police officer
Explanation: Section 35(1)(b) BNSS permits arrest if necessary to prevent further offence, ensure proper investigation, prevent disappearance of evidence, prevent inducement, threat or promise to a witness or to disclose facts, or ensure court appearance.
88. A police officer may arrest without a warrant a person who is found in possession of:
- A. A valid railway ticket
- B. A government identity card
- C. Any implement of house-breaking without lawful excuse
- D. A library membership card
Answer: Any implement of house-breaking without lawful excuse
Explanation: Section 35 BNSS (CrPC Section 41) permits arrest without warrant of a person found in possession, without lawful excuse (the burden being on him), of any implement of house-breaking.
89. Under BNSS Section 218 (corresponding to CrPC Section 197), a Government must decide on a request for sanction to prosecute a public servant (including RPF personnel) within what period, failing which sanction is deemed accorded?
- A. 30 days
- B. 5 years
- C. 120 days
- D. 24 hours
Answer: 120 days
Explanation: BNSS Section 218 adds a time limit: the Government must take a decision within 120 days of receiving the request for sanction, and if it fails to do so, sanction is deemed to have been accorded, addressing indefinite delays.
90. Under BNSS, a Magistrate may order any person, including one who has not been arrested, to give specimen signatures, handwriting, finger impressions or voice samples for investigation. Which section governs this power?
- A. No such power exists; consent is always mandatory
- B. Section 183 BNSS
- C. Section 349 BNSS (replacing CrPC Section 311A)
- D. Section 58 BNSS
Answer: Section 349 BNSS (replacing CrPC Section 311A)
Explanation: Section 349 BNSS replaces CrPC Section 311A and widens it: a Magistrate can direct any person, including one not under arrest, to give specimen signatures, handwriting, finger impressions or voice samples.
91. Under BNSS, in relation to appeals from convictions in petty cases, which principle applies where the sentence is only a small fine?
- A. Appeal lies only to the President of India
- B. Appeal lies only if the accused was RPF personnel
- C. No appeal lies where a Magistrate imposes a fine not exceeding a prescribed limit in specified petty cases
- D. Every conviction is appealable regardless of sentence amount
Answer: No appeal lies where a Magistrate imposes a fine not exceeding a prescribed limit in specified petty cases
Explanation: BNSS retains the CrPC bar on appeal in petty cases where only a small fine (up to a prescribed limit) is imposed, to prevent trivial matters from clogging appellate courts, subject to the High Court's revisional power.
92. Under BNSS, when a person dies in police custody, whose inquiry into the cause of death is mandatory in addition to the police inquest under Section 194?
- A. No additional inquiry beyond the police inquest is ever required
- B. Only a private forensic lab's inquiry
- C. A local municipal officer's inquiry
- D. A Judicial Magistrate's inquiry is now mandatory in cases of death in police custody, in addition to police inquest
Answer: A Judicial Magistrate's inquiry is now mandatory in cases of death in police custody, in addition to police inquest
Explanation: BNSS Section 196 (corresponding to CrPC Section 176) makes an inquiry by a Magistrate mandatory into a death, disappearance or rape in police custody, in addition to the police inquest under Section 194, strengthening accountability.
93. The standard English equivalent of the Hindi administrative term 'सत्यापन' is
- A. Vigilance
- B. Verification
- C. Variation
- D. Validation
Answer: Verification
Explanation: 'सत्यापन' corresponds to 'Verification' in the official glossary.
94. In 1955 the President issued an order under the proviso to Article 343(2). What did that order authorise?
- A. Use of Hindi in addition to English for specified purposes such as correspondence with the public, administrative reports and treaties
- B. Discontinuance of English for all Union purposes
- C. Use of Sanskrit as the sole language of treaties
- D. Use of regional languages in the Supreme Court
Answer: Use of Hindi in addition to English for specified purposes such as correspondence with the public, administrative reports and treaties
Explanation: The 1955 order, issued under the proviso to Article 343(2), authorised Hindi in addition to English for purposes including correspondence with the public, administrative reports and treaties. The order under Article 344(6) came only in 1960.
95. Section 1 of the Official Languages Act, 1963 gave Section 3 a fixed commencement date. When did the remaining provisions of the Act come into force?
- A. At once, on enactment in May 1963
- B. On 26 January 1950 retrospectively
- C. On 26 January 1965 together with Section 3
- D. On 1 April 1976 with the Rules
Answer: At once, on enactment in May 1963
Explanation: Section 3 came into force on 26 January 1965 (the 'appointed day'), while the remaining provisions came into force at once on enactment.
96. Under Rule 10 of the Official Language Rules, 1976, which of the following does NOT by itself make an employee deemed to possess a working knowledge of Hindi?
- A. Having passed matriculation or an equivalent or higher examination with Hindi as one of the subjects
- B. Having passed the Praveen examination, where the Central Government has not specified it as sufficient for his category of post
- C. Having passed the Pragya examination under the Hindi Teaching Scheme
- D. Declaring himself to have acquired such knowledge in the form set out in the Rules
Answer: Having passed the Praveen examination, where the Central Government has not specified it as sufficient for his category of post
Explanation: Rule 10 deems working knowledge where the employee (a) passed matriculation or equivalent/higher with Hindi as a subject, (b) passed Pragya, or a lower examination specified by the Central Government for particular categories of posts, or (c) makes the prescribed declaration. A lower examination like Praveen counts only where so specified.
97. Under Section 42(4) of the DM Act 2005, who constitutes the governing body of the National Institute of Disaster Management, and from whom?
- A. The NDRF Director General, from NDRF officers
- B. The Supreme Court, from serving judges
- C. The Central Government, from amongst the members of the Institute in the prescribed manner
- D. The Election Commission, from State officials
Answer: The Central Government, from amongst the members of the Institute in the prescribed manner
Explanation: Section 42(4) provides that the governing body of the NIDM is constituted by the Central Government from amongst the members of the Institute in such manner as may be prescribed.
98. Under Section 45 of the DM Act 2005, the general superintendence, direction and control of the NDRF vests with which authority, while its command and supervision vests with the Director General?
- A. Ministry of Defence
- B. Ministry of Home Affairs directly without NDMA role
- C. National Disaster Management Authority
- D. Cabinet Secretariat
Answer: National Disaster Management Authority
Explanation: Section 45 (Control, direction, etc.) provides that the general superintendence, direction and control of the NDRF vest in the National Authority (NDMA), while its command and supervision vest in a Director General appointed by the Central Government; Section 44 constitutes the Force.
99. Under Section 45 of the DM Act 2005, the National Disaster Response Force (NDRF) is placed under the general superintendence, direction and control of which authority?
- A. National Disaster Management Authority (NDMA)
- B. Railway Protection Force Directorate General
- C. State Disaster Management Authority of the state where deployed
- D. Ministry of Railways
Answer: National Disaster Management Authority (NDMA)
Explanation: Section 45 (Control, direction, etc.) provides that the general superintendence, direction and control of the NDRF vest in the National Authority (NDMA), while its command and supervision vest in a Director General appointed by the Central Government; Section 44 constitutes the Force.
100. An accused is convicted under Section 3 by the Chief Judicial Magistrate and sentenced to two years. Under the BNSS appeal provisions, his appeal lies to the:
- A. High Court directly
- B. District Collector
- C. Court of Session
- D. Supreme Court directly
Answer: Court of Session
Explanation: Under the BNSS (old CrPC s.374), appeals from convictions by Magistrates lie to the Court of Session; the High Court hears direct appeals only from Sessions Court convictions or sentences above seven years from other courts.
101. After a Section 8 inquiry the accused is forwarded to the Magistrate. At the trial, the inquiry officer's role is to:
- A. Act as the defence counsel
- B. Appear as a prosecution witness and prove the recovery, arrest and inquiry
- C. Sit with the Magistrate as assessor
- D. Decide the sentence
Answer: Appear as a prosecution witness and prove the recovery, arrest and inquiry
Explanation: The officer of the Force is a witness; guilt or innocence and sentence are determined only by the court.
102. Under Section 16 of the RP(UP) Act, 1966, which earlier Act was repealed and which Act number does it bear?
- A. Railways Act, 1989 (Act 24 of 1989)
- B. Railway Stores (Unlawful Possession) Act, 1955 (Act 51 of 1955)
- C. Railway Protection Force Act, 1957 (Act 23 of 1957)
- D. Indian Railways Act, 1890 (Act 9 of 1890)
Answer: Railway Stores (Unlawful Possession) Act, 1955 (Act 51 of 1955)
Explanation: Section 16(1) repeals the Railway Stores (Unlawful Possession) Act, 1955 (Act 51 of 1955); the other options are enactments that remain in force.
103. Under Section 147 of the Railways Act, 1989, what is the maximum punishment for trespassing on railway premises and refusing to leave when asked by a railway servant?
- A. Imprisonment up to six months or fine up to Rs 1,000, or both
- B. Imprisonment up to three years
- C. Imprisonment up to two years and fine
- D. Fine up to Rs 50 only
Answer: Imprisonment up to six months or fine up to Rs 1,000, or both
Explanation: Section 147 of the Railways Act, 1989 punishes trespass on railway property and refusal to desist with imprisonment up to six months or fine up to Rs 1,000, or both; it is distinct from the RP(UP) Act offence of unlawful possession.
104. Under Section 141 of the Railways Act, 1989, what is the maximum punishment for pulling the alarm chain without reasonable and sufficient cause?
- A. Fine up to Rs 100 only
- B. Imprisonment up to one year or fine up to Rs 1,000, or both
- C. Imprisonment up to six months only
- D. Imprisonment up to five years
Answer: Imprisonment up to one year or fine up to Rs 1,000, or both
Explanation: Section 141 of the Railways Act, 1989 penalises improper use of the alarm chain with imprisonment up to one year or fine up to Rs 1,000, or both.
105. Within how many days must the preliminary enquiry permitted by BNSS Section 173(3) be completed for a cognizable offence punishable with three years or more but less than seven years?
- A. Thirty days
- B. Fourteen days
- C. Sixty days
- D. Seven days
Answer: Fourteen days
Explanation: BNSS s.173(3) lets the officer in charge, with the permission of an officer not below the rank of Deputy Superintendent of Police, hold a preliminary enquiry within fourteen days to ascertain whether a prima facie case exists in such offences.
106. Bolts bearing only the stamp 'N.R.' are recovered from a scrapyard. The prosecution produces no stock register or witness from the railway. The likely result under Section 3 is:
- A. Conviction, since the stamp is conclusive
- B. Discharge only if the dealer pays the market value
- C. Failure of the prosecution, as railway ownership or possession of the bolts is not proved
- D. Conviction, since the burden is wholly on the dealer
Answer: Failure of the prosecution, as railway ownership or possession of the bolts is not proved
Explanation: The first limb - that the goods are railway property - must be proved by evidence (stock records, railway witness). The reverse onus arises only afterwards.
107. What is the maximum imprisonment under BNS Section 306 for theft by a clerk or servant of property in the possession of his master or employer?
- A. Seven years, and fine
- B. Fourteen years
- C. Ten years
- D. Three years
Answer: Seven years, and fine
Explanation: BNS s.306 (old IPC s.381) punishes theft by a clerk or servant of property in the possession of the master or employer with imprisonment up to seven years and fine.
108. Under the proviso to BNS Section 303(2), what is the consequence for a first-time convict of theft where the value of the property is below Rs 5,000 and he returns the property or its value?
- A. Automatic acquittal
- B. Community service may be awarded
- C. Imprisonment of at least three years
- D. A mandatory minimum of one year's imprisonment
Answer: Community service may be awarded
Explanation: BNS s.303(2) provides that for a first conviction of theft where the value of the stolen property is below Rs 5,000 and the convict returns the property or its value, the sentence may be community service.
109. Besides wilful connivance by an owner or occupier of land or building, which other conduct is made punishable by Section 4 of the RP(UP) Act, 1966?
- A. Failure to appear before a Magistrate on bail
- B. Obstructing a village officer in his duty
- C. Abetment of, or conspiracy to commit, an offence under the Act
- D. Making a false report to the Railway Board
Answer: Abetment of, or conspiracy to commit, an offence under the Act
Explanation: Section 4 punishes abetment of or conspiracy to commit an offence under the Act (abet and conspire carry their Indian Penal Code meanings) as well as wilful connivance by an owner, occupier or managing agent of land or building; the maximum is five years, or fine, or both.
110. An accused convicted under the RP(UP) Act seeks to challenge his conviction. Which forum would hear a FIRST APPEAL against a conviction recorded by a Magistrate trying the offence?
- A. Directly the Supreme Court of India in every case, bypassing all intermediate courts
- B. The Zonal Railway General Manager acting in a quasi-judicial capacity
- C. The Court of Session having appellate jurisdiction over that Magistrate, as per the ordinary appellate hierarchy under the general criminal procedure code, since the RP(UP) Act creates no special appellate forum of its own
- D. The Railway Board sitting as an appellate tribunal
Answer: The Court of Session having appellate jurisdiction over that Magistrate, as per the ordinary appellate hierarchy under the general criminal procedure code, since the RP(UP) Act creates no special appellate forum of its own
Explanation: Since the RP(UP) Act does not create its own special court or appellate hierarchy, trial takes place before ordinary criminal courts and appeals follow the standard procedural-code hierarchy — to the Court of Session from a Magistrate's conviction.
111. An SI wants to know how long after the alleged unlawful possession a prosecution under Section 3 of the RP(UP) Act can be launched, given the offence's prescribed maximum punishment. Which principle under the CrPC/BNSS limitation scheme is MOST relevant?
- A. Since Section 3's maximum sentence exceeds the statutory ceilings that attract a limitation bar, no period of limitation under the CrPC/BNSS scheme applies, and prosecution may be launched at any time
- B. The Act has its own self-contained three-year limitation clause located in Section 15
- C. Prosecution must be launched within thirty days, mirroring summons-case limitation
- D. Prosecution must be launched within exactly six months, with no exceptions whatsoever
Answer: Since Section 3's maximum sentence exceeds the statutory ceilings that attract a limitation bar, no period of limitation under the CrPC/BNSS scheme applies, and prosecution may be launched at any time
Explanation: The general CrPC/BNSS limitation-for-prosecution provision applies only to offences punishable with fine or imprisonment up to three years; since Section 3 prescribes a higher ceiling, no limitation period bars prosecution, so it may be launched at any time, subject to normal investigative diligence.
112. Which of the following correctly explains why an SI should treat Article 20(2) of the Constitution (protection against double jeopardy) as NOT a bar when an accused faces both an RP(UP) Act prosecution AND a separate departmental removal-from-service inquiry for the same conduct?
- A. Article 20(2) bars only a second PROSECUTION AND PUNISHMENT for the same offence by a court of law; a departmental inquiry is a distinct, non-penal disciplinary proceeding and does not count as a 'prosecution' under that clause
- B. Article 20(2) applies only to offences committed before 1966 and has no application to the RP(UP) Act
- C. Article 20(2) applies only to capital offences, so it is irrelevant to a Section 3 case
- D. A departmental inquiry is legally a 'second prosecution' but is permitted because the railways are a central government department
Answer: Article 20(2) bars only a second PROSECUTION AND PUNISHMENT for the same offence by a court of law; a departmental inquiry is a distinct, non-penal disciplinary proceeding and does not count as a 'prosecution' under that clause
Explanation: Double jeopardy under Article 20(2) applies strictly to successive criminal prosecutions and punishments for the same offence before a court; a parallel departmental/disciplinary inquiry, being non-penal in character, is well-settled as a separate track that can proceed independently of (and even before/after) a criminal trial.
113. In January 2024 the RBI acted against Paytm Payments Bank by invoking its supervisory powers under which section of the Banking Regulation Act, 1949?
- A. Section 56
- B. Section 35A
- C. Section 45
- D. Section 21
Answer: Section 35A
Explanation: RBI barred new deposits and credit transactions in Paytm Payments Bank accounts after persistent compliance concerns.
114. In January 2022 the Government completed the privatisation of Air India by handing it over to:
- A. Adani Group
- B. SpiceJet promoters
- C. Jindal Group
- D. Tata Group
Answer: Tata Group
Explanation: Tata Sons' subsidiary Talace won the bid of about Rs 18,000 crore; the airline returned to Tata hands on 27 January 2022.
115. India announced the Panchamrit climate commitments at COP26 in Glasgow (2021). Which long-term target was part of them?
- A. Net-zero emissions by 2070
- B. Net-zero emissions by 2050
- C. Coal phase-out by 2030
- D. Zero plastic by 2025
Answer: Net-zero emissions by 2070
Explanation: At COP26 (November 2021) the PM announced the 'Panchamrit' goals including net-zero by 2070 and 500 GW non-fossil capacity by 2030.
116. The European Union's Artificial Intelligence Act, which entered into force on 1 August 2024, is regarded as:
- A. A treaty signed by the G20
- B. The world's first comprehensive legal framework on AI
- C. A voluntary code of conduct
- D. A ban on all generative AI
Answer: The world's first comprehensive legal framework on AI
Explanation: The Act follows a risk-based approach with obligations rising for high-risk systems.
117. The Coalition for Disaster Resilient Infrastructure (CDRI), an India-led initiative launched in September 2019, has its secretariat in:
- A. New Delhi
- B. Geneva
- C. Paris
- D. Gurugram
Answer: New Delhi
Explanation: CDRI was launched at the UN Climate Action Summit, New York, and is headquartered in New Delhi.
118. National Sports Day in India, 29 August, commemorates the birth anniversary of:
- A. K. D. Jadhav
- B. Major Dhyan Chand
- C. Pullela Gopichand
- D. Milkha Singh
Answer: Major Dhyan Chand
Explanation: Dhyan Chand, born 29 August 1905, won hockey Olympic golds in 1928, 1932 and 1936; the Khel Ratna was renamed after him in 2021.
119. The 'Loss and Damage' fund for vulnerable countries was agreed in principle at which climate conference?
- A. COP27, Sharm el-Sheikh (2022)
- B. COP25, Madrid (2019)
- C. COP21, Paris (2015)
- D. COP26, Glasgow (2021)
Answer: COP27, Sharm el-Sheikh (2022)
Explanation: COP27 in Egypt agreed to establish the fund, and it was operationalised on the first day of COP28 in Dubai.
120. The Kunming-Montreal Global Biodiversity Framework, adopted at COP15 in December 2022, sets the '30 by 30' target, which means protecting:
- A. 30 per cent fewer emissions by 2030
- B. 30 per cent of land and oceans by 2030
- C. 30 species per country by 2030
- D. 30 per cent of forests by 2050
Answer: 30 per cent of land and oceans by 2030
Explanation: COP15 of the Convention on Biological Diversity (Montreal) adopted the framework with 23 targets for 2030.
121. Neeraj Chopra's gold at the Tokyo 2020 Olympics with a throw of 87.58 m was India's first Olympic medal in:
- A. Athletics (track and field)
- B. Wrestling
- C. Boxing
- D. Shooting
Answer: Athletics (track and field)
Explanation: Neeraj's 7 August 2021 gold was India's first-ever Olympic medal in athletics.
122. India's men's hockey team won the Tokyo 2020 Olympic bronze medal (August 2021) by defeating which team, ending a 41-year medal drought?
- A. Germany
- B. Belgium
- C. Australia
- D. Great Britain
Answer: Germany
Explanation: India beat Germany 5-4 on 5 August 2021; its previous Olympic medal had been the 1980 Moscow gold.
123. Train 18, later named Vande Bharat Express, was flagged off on its first commercial run between which two stations on 15 February 2019?
- A. New Delhi and Agra Cantt
- B. Mumbai Central and Gandhinagar
- C. Howrah and New Jalpaiguri
- D. New Delhi and Varanasi
Answer: New Delhi and Varanasi
Explanation: The first Vande Bharat Express was flagged off on 15 February 2019 on the New Delhi-Varanasi route; the Mumbai Central-Gandhinagar service followed later in 2022.
124. Kolkata Metro, India's first metro railway, opened for passenger service on 24 October 1984 on which stretch?
- A. Howrah to Sealdah
- B. Dum Dum to Tollygunge (full 16.5 km)
- C. Esplanade to Bhowanipur (about 3.4 km)
- D. Dakshineswar to Esplanade
Answer: Esplanade to Bhowanipur (about 3.4 km)
Explanation: Kolkata Metro opened on 24 October 1984 with a short 3.4 km stretch between Esplanade and Bhowanipur (now Netaji Bhavan); the full Dum Dum-Tollygunge line was completed in stages later.
125. Under BNSS Section 173(3), for a cognizable offence punishable with three years or more but less than seven years, the officer in charge of the police station may, with prior permission of a superior officer, do what before registering the FIR?
- A. Conduct a preliminary enquiry to ascertain whether a prima facie case exists
- B. Transfer the case to a civil court
- C. Hold an immediate trial
- D. Refuse to register the case permanently
Answer: Conduct a preliminary enquiry to ascertain whether a prima facie case exists
Explanation: BNSS Section 173(3) permits a preliminary enquiry, with prior permission of a superior officer, for offences punishable with three years or more but less than seven years, to decide whether a prima facie case exists.
126. Which of the following offences falls within the Railway Protection Force's statutory mandate of protecting railway property?
- A. A property dispute between two private citizens in town
- B. A civil contract dispute between two vendors
- C. Theft of railway property such as fittings, fixtures or signalling equipment
- D. A murder committed in a village adjoining the railway station
Answer: Theft of railway property such as fittings, fixtures or signalling equipment
Explanation: Theft or damage of railway property such as fittings, fixtures or signalling equipment falls within RPF's mandate to protect railway property, whereas general crimes in the surrounding area are handled by GRP/state police.
127. Under the Railways Act, 1989, compensation for death or injury in a railway 'accident' such as a collision or derailment is provided by which section?
- A. Section 124A
- B. Section 137
- C. Section 150
- D. Section 124
Answer: Section 124
Explanation: Section 124 covers compensation for accidents such as collisions and derailments, while Section 124A, inserted later, covers 'untoward incidents' on a no-fault basis.
128. The Railways Act, 1989 came into force on:
- A. 1 July 1990
- B. 1 April 1989
- C. 15 August 1989
- D. 26 January 1990
Answer: 1 July 1990
Explanation: The Railways Act, 1989 was brought into force on 1 July 1990, repealing the Indian Railways Act, 1890 and the Indian Railway Board Act, 1905.
129. Which section of the Railways Act, 1989 penalises a male person entering a compartment reserved for females?
- A. Section 151
- B. Section 145
- C. Section 162
- D. Section 156
Answer: Section 162
Explanation: Section 162 deals with a male person entering a compartment or carriage reserved for females, which RPF enforces actively; Section 156 concerns travelling on the roof, step or engine.
130. The Head-On Generation (HOG) system on electrified routes supplies coach power by:
- A. Using a diesel generator in every coach
- B. Using only batteries charged at terminals
- C. Drawing power from the 25 kV AC overhead line and supplying 750 V to the coaches, replacing diesel generator cars
- D. Using solar panels on the roof alone
Answer: Drawing power from the 25 kV AC overhead line and supplying 750 V to the coaches, replacing diesel generator cars
Explanation: HOG draws power from the overhead 25 kV supply and feeds 750 V to the coaches, replacing end-on generation (EOG) diesel power cars, thereby saving fuel and cutting noise and emissions.
131. The Research Designs and Standards Organisation (RDSO), the R&D and standards body of Indian Railways, is headquartered at:
- A. Lucknow (Manak Nagar)
- B. Gorakhpur
- C. Pune
- D. New Delhi
Answer: Lucknow (Manak Nagar)
Explanation: RDSO, the technical advisor and sole R&D organisation of Indian Railways, is headquartered at Manak Nagar, Lucknow.
132. Which section of the Railway Property (Unlawful Possession) Act, 1966 gives a superior officer or member of the Force the power to arrest without warrant?
- A. Section 5
- B. Section 6
- C. Section 10
- D. Section 3
Answer: Section 6
Explanation: Section 6 of the RP(UP) Act, 1966 empowers a superior officer or member of the Force to arrest without warrant; Section 3, often confused with it, is the penalty provision.
133. The Rail Land Development Authority (RLDA), functioning under the Ministry of Railways, is mainly mandated to:
- A. Inquire into railway accidents
- B. Recruit RPF constables
- C. Commercially develop vacant railway land and air-space for revenue generation
- D. Run passenger trains
Answer: Commercially develop vacant railway land and air-space for revenue generation
Explanation: RLDA is tasked with developing and monetising surplus railway land and air-space, including through leasing to private parties, to generate non-fare revenue for Indian Railways.
134. RailTel Corporation of India Ltd, a PSU under the Ministry of Railways, was set up primarily to:
- A. Lay a nationwide optic-fibre telecom network along railway rights of way
- B. Run suburban train services
- C. Manufacture railway coaches
- D. Collect freight charges
Answer: Lay a nationwide optic-fibre telecom network along railway rights of way
Explanation: RailTel uses Indian Railways' right-of-way to lay optic-fibre cable and provides telecom, broadband and network services, besides supporting railway signalling and control communication.
135. Which Indian Railways production unit built Train 18, the first Vande Bharat Express trainset?
- A. Rail Coach Factory, Kapurthala
- B. Integral Coach Factory, Perambur
- C. Diesel Locomotive Works, Varanasi
- D. Modern Coach Factory, Raebareli
Answer: Integral Coach Factory, Perambur
Explanation: Train 18, later named Vande Bharat Express, was designed and built at the Integral Coach Factory in Perambur, Chennai, and entered service in 2019.
136. The headquarters of South Eastern Railway (SER) is located at:
- A. Garden Reach, Kolkata
- B. Ranchi
- C. Fairlie Place, Kolkata
- D. Bhubaneswar
Answer: Garden Reach, Kolkata
Explanation: South Eastern Railway has its headquarters at Garden Reach in Kolkata, whereas Eastern Railway is headquartered at Fairlie Place and East Coast Railway at Bhubaneswar.
137. The Jhansi division of Indian Railways falls under which railway zone?
- A. West Central Railway
- B. North Central Railway
- C. Central Railway
- D. Northern Railway
Answer: North Central Railway
Explanation: Jhansi division is one of the three divisions (Prayagraj, Agra, Jhansi) of North Central Railway, headquartered at Prayagraj.
138. The Commissioner of Railway Safety (CRS), who conducts statutory inquiries into serious train accidents, functions under which Union ministry?
- A. Ministry of Home Affairs
- B. Ministry of Road Transport and Highways
- C. Ministry of Railways
- D. Ministry of Civil Aviation
Answer: Ministry of Civil Aviation
Explanation: The CRS organisation is under the Ministry of Civil Aviation, not the Railway Board, so that safety inquiries and sanctions are independent of the railway administration.
139. Under the Railway Property (Unlawful Possession) Act, 1966, which section deals with the disposal of persons arrested under the Act?
- A. Section 7
- B. Section 10
- C. Section 9
- D. Section 4
Answer: Section 7
Explanation: Section 7 of the RP(UP) Act, 1966 lays down how persons arrested under the Act are to be dealt with, after which the officer of the Force conducts the inquiry under Section 8.
140. Under the Railway Property (Unlawful Possession) Act, 1966, which section provides for the inquiry by an officer of the Force into an offence?
- A. Section 8
- B. Section 5
- C. Section 3
- D. Section 11
Answer: Section 8
Explanation: Section 8 of the RP(UP) Act, 1966 provides for inquiry by an officer of the Force; Section 3 is the penalty provision and Section 11 deals with searches and arrests under the procedural code.
141. The Bombay, Baroda and Central India (BB&CI) Railway, the predecessor of today's Western Railway, had which station as its Bombay terminus?
- A. Victoria Terminus
- B. Dadar
- C. Byculla
- D. Churchgate
Answer: Churchgate
Explanation: BB&CI Railway's Bombay terminus was Churchgate; its network passed to Western Railway, whose headquarters stays at Churchgate, whereas Victoria Terminus was the GIPR (Central Railway) terminus.
142. The Railway Protection Force (Amendment) Act, 2003 amended which earlier Act to extend the Force's duties to passenger area and passengers?
- A. The Railway Property (Unlawful Possession) Act, 1966
- B. The Indian Railways Act, 1890
- C. The Railways Act, 1989
- D. The Railway Protection Force Act, 1957
Answer: The Railway Protection Force Act, 1957
Explanation: The RPF (Amendment) Act, 2003 amended the Railway Protection Force Act, 1957, extending the duties of the Force beyond railway property to the protection of passenger area and passengers.
143. The Chittaranjan Locomotive Works (CLW), which builds electric locomotives for Indian Railways, is located in which state?
- A. West Bengal
- B. Bihar
- C. Jharkhand
- D. Odisha
Answer: West Bengal
Explanation: CLW is located at Chittaranjan in the Paschim Bardhaman district of West Bengal, near the Jharkhand border, and is a production unit of Indian Railways.
144. Section 150 of the Railways Act, 1989, dealing with maliciously wrecking or attempting to wreck a train, falls in which class of punishment?
- A. Severe punishment extending to imprisonment for life
- B. Warning by a station master
- C. Cancellation of platform ticket
- D. A small fine only
Answer: Severe punishment extending to imprisonment for life
Explanation: Section 150 treats maliciously wrecking or attempting to wreck a train as a grave offence, punishable with severe imprisonment that can extend to life; Section 153 is the separate provision for endangering safety by a wilful act.
145. Under Section 4 of the Railway Property (Unlawful Possession) Act, 1966, which person is made liable to punishment?
- A. A passenger travelling without a ticket
- B. A railway servant on leave
- C. A vendor holding a valid licence
- D. The owner or occupier of land or building who connives at or abets the offence
Answer: The owner or occupier of land or building who connives at or abets the offence
Explanation: Section 4 of the RP(UP) Act, 1966 punishes the owner or occupier of land or building who connives at or abets the commission of the offence of unlawful possession of railway property on that premises.
146. Under Section 153 of the Railways Act, 1989, doing a wilful act or omission that endangers or is likely to endanger the safety of persons travelling by railway is punishable with:
- A. Cancellation of the railway ticket only
- B. Only a fine not exceeding five hundred rupees
- C. Imprisonment which may extend to five years, or fine, or both
- D. Community service alone
Answer: Imprisonment which may extend to five years, or fine, or both
Explanation: Section 153 covers endangering the safety of persons travelling by railway through a wilful act or omission and carries imprisonment up to five years, or fine, or both; Section 154 is the corresponding provision for rash or negligent acts.
147. Kavach version 4.0, the upgraded version of India's indigenous Automatic Train Protection system, was approved by RDSO in which year?
- A. 2016
- B. 2019
- C. 2021
- D. 2024
Answer: 2024
Explanation: RDSO approved Kavach version 4.0 in July 2024, enabling deployment on high-density routes with features such as station-to-station detection and better location accuracy.
148. Which section of the Railways Act, 1989 penalises travelling on the roof, step or engine of a train?
- A. Section 162
- B. Section 145
- C. Section 156
- D. Section 153
Answer: Section 156
Explanation: Section 156 of the Railways Act, 1989 deals with travelling on the roof, step or engine of a train; Section 153 concerns wilful acts endangering safety, Section 162 entry into a ladies' compartment and Section 145 drunkenness or nuisance.
149. Under Section 3 of the Railway Property (Unlawful Possession) Act, 1966, on a first conviction for possessing railway property reasonably suspected to be stolen or unlawfully obtained, the maximum imprisonment is:
- A. Ten years
- B. Seven years
- C. Two years
- D. Five years
Answer: Five years
Explanation: Section 3 of the RP(UP) Act, 1966 provides imprisonment up to five years for a first offence (with a minimum of one year and fine, absent adequate and special reasons); a subsequent conviction carries a minimum of two years.
150. Which Act of Parliament amended the RPF Act, 1957 to constitute the RPF as an 'armed force of the Union'?
- A. RPF (Amendment) Act, 1966
- B. RPF (Amendment) Act, 1985
- C. Railways (Amendment) Act, 1994
- D. Railways (Amendment) Act, 2008
Answer: RPF (Amendment) Act, 1985
Explanation: The Railway Protection Force (Amendment) Act, 1985 amended the 1957 Act so that the RPF is constituted as an armed force of the Union.
151. The Konkan Railway Corporation Limited (KRCL), incorporated in 1990 to build the Roha-Mangaluru line, has its headquarters at:
- A. CBD Belapur, Navi Mumbai
- B. Mangaluru
- C. Madgaon (Margao)
- D. Ratnagiri
Answer: CBD Belapur, Navi Mumbai
Explanation: KRCL was incorporated in July 1990 as a separate corporate entity (not a railway zone) to build the Roha-Mangaluru line, and its headquarters is at CBD Belapur, Navi Mumbai.
152. Under the Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968, a motion for removal of a Supreme Court judge can be admitted only if given by at least:
- A. 50 members of Lok Sabha or 25 of Rajya Sabha
- B. 75 members of Lok Sabha or 40 of Rajya Sabha
- C. 100 members of Lok Sabha or 50 of Rajya Sabha
- D. One-tenth of the total strength of either House
Answer: 100 members of Lok Sabha or 50 of Rajya Sabha
Explanation: The notice needs 100 Lok Sabha or 50 Rajya Sabha members; a three-member committee then investigates, and Parliament must pass the address by special majority in the same session.
153. The murals of the Ajanta caves were executed in which technique?
- A. Buon fresco on wet lime plaster
- B. Tempera on dry plaster
- C. Encaustic wax painting
- D. Oil on stone
Answer: Tempera on dry plaster
Explanation: Ajanta paintings were done in tempera on a dry plaster of clay, cow-dung and lime over the rock; they illustrate Jataka tales and the Buddha's life.
154. Sattriya dance of Assam originated in monastic institutions called Sattras, which were founded by:
- A. Srimanta Sankardeva
- B. Bhaskarvarman
- C. Ahom king Rudra Singha
- D. Madhavdeva alone
Answer: Srimanta Sankardeva
Explanation: The 15th-16th century Vaishnav saint Srimanta Sankardeva created Sattriya as part of Ankiya Nat; it received classical status from the Sangeet Natak Akademi in 2000.
155. The Dagar family of musicians is most closely associated with which genre of Hindustani music?
- A. Thumri
- B. Tappa
- C. Dhrupad
- D. Khayal
Answer: Dhrupad
Explanation: The Dagar lineage (Dagarvani) has preserved the austere, alap-centred Dhrupad tradition for about twenty generations.
156. Under the Forest Rights Act, 2006, which body initiates the process of determining individual and community forest rights?
- A. Forest Department range office
- B. District Collector alone
- C. State Forest Corporation
- D. Gram Sabha
Answer: Gram Sabha
Explanation: The Gram Sabha receives claims, verifies them through its Forest Rights Committee and passes a resolution forwarded to the Sub-Divisional and District Level Committees.
157. Khangchendzonga National Park, inscribed by UNESCO in 2016, is India's first World Heritage Site of which category?
- A. Natural
- B. Mixed (natural and cultural)
- C. Cultural
- D. Cultural landscape
Answer: Mixed (natural and cultural)
Explanation: Khangchendzonga (Sikkim) was recognised for both outstanding natural values and the sacred significance of the mountain in Sikkimese Buddhist and indigenous beliefs.
158. The heat-stable DNA polymerase used in the polymerase chain reaction (PCR) was isolated from:
- A. Agrobacterium tumefaciens
- B. Escherichia coli
- C. Thermus aquaticus
- D. Bacillus thuringiensis
Answer: Thermus aquaticus
Explanation: Taq polymerase from the hot-spring bacterium Thermus aquaticus survives the 94 C denaturation step, allowing automated thermal cycling.
159. Restriction endonucleases are used in genetic engineering to:
- A. Amplify DNA exponentially
- B. Join DNA fragments
- C. Cut DNA at specific recognition sequences
- D. Synthesise RNA from DNA
Answer: Cut DNA at specific recognition sequences
Explanation: These 'molecular scissors' cut at palindromic sites (e.g., EcoRI at GAATTC), producing sticky or blunt ends; DNA ligase joins the fragments.
160. A test cross between a heterozygous tall plant (Tt) and a homozygous recessive dwarf plant (tt) gives a phenotypic ratio of:
- A. 3:1
- B. 1:2:1
- C. 9:3:3:1
- D. 1:1
Answer: 1:1
Explanation: Tt x tt gives Tt (tall) and tt (dwarf) in equal numbers, a 1:1 ratio; a test cross reveals the unknown genotype of a dominant-phenotype plant.
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