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161. Temporary hardness of water is caused by dissolved:
- A. Bicarbonates of calcium and magnesium
- B. Chlorides and sulphates of calcium and magnesium
- C. Iron oxides
- D. Sodium carbonate
Answer: Bicarbonates of calcium and magnesium
Explanation: Bicarbonates precipitate as carbonates on boiling (or Clark's lime treatment); chlorides and sulphates cause permanent hardness.
162. Graphite conducts electricity, unlike diamond, because:
- A. It is an ionic solid
- B. It contains free metal atoms
- C. Each carbon is sp2 hybridised, leaving one delocalised electron per atom
- D. It has sp3 bonding in all directions
Answer: Each carbon is sp2 hybridised, leaving one delocalised electron per atom
Explanation: Graphite's layers of hexagonal sp2 carbon have a delocalised pi electron cloud that moves under a potential difference; diamond's four sp3 bonds leave no free electrons.
163. Aqua regia, which can dissolve gold and platinum, is a mixture of concentrated HCl and concentrated HNO3 in the ratio:
- A. 1:3
- B. 1:1
- C. 3:1
- D. 2:1
Answer: 3:1
Explanation: Aqua regia is 3 parts HCl to 1 part HNO3 by volume; nitrosyl chloride and chlorine formed oxidise noble metals.
164. In the Haber process (N2 + 3H2 <-> 2NH3), high pressure favours ammonia formation because:
- A. Pressure lowers activation energy
- B. Pressure acts as a catalyst
- C. The reaction is endothermic
- D. The forward reaction produces fewer moles of gas
Answer: The forward reaction produces fewer moles of gas
Explanation: Four moles of reactant gas give two of product, so by Le Chatelier's principle higher pressure shifts equilibrium forward; the reaction is exothermic, so moderate temperature (about 450 C) with an iron catalyst is used.
165. Control rods in a nuclear reactor are made of materials such as boron or cadmium because they:
- A. Carry heat to the turbine
- B. Shield gamma rays outside the core
- C. Slow down fast neutrons
- D. Absorb neutrons to regulate the chain reaction
Answer: Absorb neutrons to regulate the chain reaction
Explanation: Control rods absorb neutrons to hold the multiplication factor at 1; moderators (heavy water, graphite) slow neutrons.
166. A Zener diode is used as a voltage regulator because it operates in:
- A. Forward bias at a constant current
- B. Zero bias
- C. Saturation as an amplifier
- D. Reverse breakdown, where voltage stays nearly constant over a wide current range
Answer: Reverse breakdown, where voltage stays nearly constant over a wide current range
Explanation: Beyond the Zener breakdown voltage the reverse current rises sharply while voltage stays almost fixed, providing a reference/regulated voltage.
167. Cherenkov radiation, seen as blue glow in nuclear reactor pools, is emitted when a charged particle travels:
- A. Faster than the speed of light in that medium
- B. At exactly the speed of sound
- C. Faster than light in a vacuum
- D. Through a magnetic field
Answer: Faster than the speed of light in that medium
Explanation: Nothing exceeds c in vacuum, but in water light travels slower, so electrons from fission products can outrun it, emitting a cone of Cherenkov light.
168. A geostationary satellite orbits at an altitude of about:
- A. 20,200 km
- B. 3,600 km
- C. 35,786 km
- D. 1,00,000 km
Answer: 35,786 km
Explanation: At about 35,786 km above the equator the orbital period equals Earth's rotation (23 h 56 min), so the satellite appears fixed in the sky; INSAT/GSAT satellites use it.
169. Lift on an aeroplane wing is best explained by Bernoulli's principle because:
- A. Air flows slower above the wing
- B. The wing is heavier at the bottom
- C. Faster air above the wing has lower pressure than the slower air below
- D. Air above the wing is denser
Answer: Faster air above the wing has lower pressure than the slower air below
Explanation: The aerofoil shape makes air move faster over the upper surface, reducing pressure there; the net upward pressure difference produces lift.
170. According to Rayleigh scattering, the intensity of scattered light is proportional to:
- A. 1/λ²
- B. λ
- C. λ⁴
- D. 1/λ⁴
Answer: 1/λ⁴
Explanation: Scattering by particles much smaller than the wavelength varies as 1/λ⁴, so shorter (blue/violet) wavelengths scatter far more than red.
171. A diamond sparkles brilliantly mainly because:
- A. It has high thermal conductivity
- B. It absorbs and re-emits ultraviolet light
- C. Its high refractive index gives a small critical angle, causing repeated total internal reflection
- D. It polarises all incident light
Answer: Its high refractive index gives a small critical angle, causing repeated total internal reflection
Explanation: Diamond's refractive index (about 2.42) gives a critical angle near 24 degrees, so light entering is trapped by total internal reflection and exits through selected facets.
172. Which of the following deficits was introduced in the Union Budget 2011-12 and equals revenue deficit minus grants for creation of capital assets?
- A. Effective revenue deficit
- B. Monetised deficit
- C. Gross fiscal deficit
- D. Primary deficit
Answer: Effective revenue deficit
Explanation: Effective revenue deficit nets out revenue-account grants to States and others that finance capital assets, giving a truer picture of consumption-type borrowing.
173. Which Article empowers the Union to levy and collect GST on inter-State supplies and apportion it between the Union and the States?
- A. Article 246A
- B. Article 270
- C. Article 269A
- D. Article 279A
Answer: Article 269A
Explanation: Article 269A (101st Amendment) governs IGST on inter-State supplies; Article 246A gives concurrent power to levy GST and 279A creates the GST Council.
174. Revenue from cesses and surcharges levied by the Union Government is:
- A. Included in the divisible pool shared with States
- B. Excluded from the divisible pool and retained by the Union
- C. Shared only with Union Territories
- D. Credited to the Contingency Fund
Answer: Excluded from the divisible pool and retained by the Union
Explanation: Under Article 270 (as amended by the 80th Amendment), the divisible pool covers taxes net of cess, surcharge and collection costs, so cess/surcharge proceeds stay with the Centre.
175. According to the 'impossible trinity' (Mundell-Fleming trilemma), a country cannot simultaneously have:
- A. Free trade, tariffs and quotas
- B. Free capital flows, fixed exchange rate and independent monetary policy
- C. High growth, full employment and price stability
- D. Low inflation, low deficit and low debt
Answer: Free capital flows, fixed exchange rate and independent monetary policy
Explanation: Only two of the three are attainable together; India has largely chosen independent monetary policy with a managed float and partial capital-account openness.
176. The Keynesian investment multiplier is 5. The marginal propensity to consume (MPC) is:
- A. 0.75
- B. 0.9
- C. 0.5
- D. 0.8
Answer: 0.8
Explanation: Multiplier = 1/(1 - MPC); 5 = 1/(1 - MPC) gives MPC = 0.8.
177. The Laffer curve illustrates the relationship between:
- A. Inflation and unemployment
- B. Interest rate and investment
- C. Tax rates and tax revenue
- D. Income and consumption
Answer: Tax rates and tax revenue
Explanation: Beyond an optimal rate, further increases in the tax rate reduce revenue because of reduced incentives; the Phillips curve is the inflation-unemployment trade-off.
178. The rate at which scheduled banks can borrow overnight from the RBI against government securities beyond the LAF, under the Marginal Standing Facility, is:
- A. Repo rate plus 25 basis points
- B. Bank rate minus 50 basis points
- C. Reverse repo rate
- D. Repo rate minus 25 basis points
Answer: Repo rate plus 25 basis points
Explanation: The MSF rate is pegged 25 basis points above the policy repo rate and is the upper bound of the policy corridor; the Bank rate is aligned with it.
179. In which movement did Gandhi first use a fast as a weapon of satyagraha, supporting striking workers in 1918?
- A. Kheda Satyagraha
- B. Ahmedabad Mill Strike
- C. Champaran Satyagraha
- D. Rowlatt Satyagraha
Answer: Ahmedabad Mill Strike
Explanation: In the Ahmedabad mill strike (Anasuya Sarabhai vs mill-owner Ambalal Sarabhai), Gandhi's fast pressed the owners to accept arbitration and a 35% wage rise.
180. The McMahon Line, drawn at the Simla Convention of 1914, demarcates the boundary between:
- A. India and Pakistan
- B. India and Nepal
- C. Afghanistan and British India
- D. British India and Tibet (eastern sector, now India–China)
Answer: British India and Tibet (eastern sector, now India–China)
Explanation: Sir Henry McMahon proposed the line between British India and Tibet; India treats it as the boundary with China in the east, while China rejects it.
181. The 'Roaring Forties' are:
- A. Storms of the Arabian Sea in summer
- B. Cold currents off Peru at 40° S
- C. Strong westerly winds of the southern hemisphere between 40° and 50° S
- D. Trade winds of the northern hemisphere at 40° N
Answer: Strong westerly winds of the southern hemisphere between 40° and 50° S
Explanation: Over the open southern oceans there is little land to obstruct the westerlies, so they are strong; the 'Furious Fifties' and 'Screaming Sixties' lie further south.
182. In Köppen's classification, the 'Cwg' climatic type of India refers to the:
- A. Hot desert of Rajasthan
- B. Alpine climate of the Himalaya
- C. Monsoon with dry winter of the Gangetic plain
- D. Tropical savanna of the peninsular interior
Answer: Monsoon with dry winter of the Gangetic plain
Explanation: Cwg denotes a warm temperate climate with dry winter and the Ganga-plain temperature pattern (hottest month before the solstice); Aw is savanna and BWhw is hot desert.
183. During an El Niño event, the Pacific Walker circulation typically:
- A. Strengthens, intensifying upwelling off Peru
- B. Reverses to an Atlantic cell
- C. Remains unchanged but shifts north
- D. Weakens, with warm surface water spreading eastwards
Answer: Weakens, with warm surface water spreading eastwards
Explanation: El Niño weakens the trade winds and Walker cell, suppressing Peruvian upwelling and often weakening the Indian summer monsoon.
184. Under the Indus Waters Treaty (1960), which rivers were allocated for India's unrestricted use?
- A. Jhelum, Ravi and Beas
- B. Ravi, Beas and Sutlej
- C. Indus, Jhelum and Chenab
- D. Ganga, Yamuna and Ghaggar
Answer: Ravi, Beas and Sutlej
Explanation: The treaty gave the three Eastern rivers (Ravi, Beas, Sutlej) to India and the three Western rivers (Indus, Jhelum, Chenab) to Pakistan, with limited Indian use of the western ones.
185. In L. Chandra Kumar v. Union of India (1997), the Supreme Court held that decisions of Administrative Tribunals (Article 323A):
- A. Are subject to High Court review under Articles 226/227
- B. Can be appealed only to the President
- C. Are final and cannot be questioned in any court
- D. Are appealable only to the Law Commission
Answer: Are subject to High Court review under Articles 226/227
Explanation: The Court held that judicial review by High Courts under Articles 226/227 is part of the basic structure, so tribunal decisions can be tested before a Division Bench of the concerned High Court.
186. The Supreme Court recognised the right to livelihood as part of the right to life under Article 21 in the case of pavement dwellers, namely:
- A. Francis Coralie Mullin v. Administrator, Delhi
- B. Mohini Jain v. State of Karnataka
- C. Olga Tellis v. Bombay Municipal Corporation
- D. Unni Krishnan v. State of Andhra Pradesh
Answer: Olga Tellis v. Bombay Municipal Corporation
Explanation: Olga Tellis (1985) held that eviction of pavement dwellers deprives them of livelihood and thus engages Article 21; the Court required reasonable procedure and notice.
187. In State of Bombay v. Kathi Kalu Oghad (1961), the Supreme Court held that giving specimen handwriting or fingerprints does NOT violate Article 20(3) because:
- A. Article 20(3) is suspended during investigation
- B. Article 20(3) applies only after conviction
- C. They are not 'testimonial compulsion' or being a witness against oneself
- D. Such samples are taken only with a magistrate's consent
Answer: They are not 'testimonial compulsion' or being a witness against oneself
Explanation: Article 20(3) bars compelled testimony; physical or identification evidence such as handwriting and fingerprints is not 'testimonial', so compelling it is allowed.
188. Statutory grants-in-aid from the Consolidated Fund of India to States 'in need of assistance' are provided under:
- A. Article 275
- B. Article 282
- C. Article 266
- D. Article 280
Answer: Article 275
Explanation: Article 275 provides statutory grants on Finance Commission recommendations (incl. tribal welfare under its provisos); Article 282 covers discretionary grants for any public purpose.
189. Under the 91st Amendment (2003), a legislator disqualified under the Tenth Schedule is also barred from holding any remunerative political post until:
- A. One year after disqualification
- B. The next Presidential election
- C. The end of the House's term or re-election, whichever is earlier
- D. Six months after disqualification
Answer: The end of the House's term or re-election, whichever is earlier
Explanation: Articles 75(1B), 164(1B) and 361B (inserted by the 91st Amendment) disqualify a defector from ministerial or remunerative political posts until the term ends or he is re-elected, whichever is earlier.
190. Which Constitutional Amendment restored the five-year term of the Lok Sabha after the 42nd Amendment had extended it to six years?
- A. 52nd Amendment
- B. 44th Amendment
- C. 43rd Amendment
- D. 45th Amendment
Answer: 44th Amendment
Explanation: The 44th Amendment (1978) restored the five-year terms of the Lok Sabha and State Assemblies, and also made proclamation of Emergency harder (written Cabinet advice, 'armed rebellion').
191. Which Parliamentary Committee has 30 members, all drawn from the Lok Sabha, and examines whether money is well laid out within policy limits?
- A. Committee on Subordinate Legislation
- B. Committee on Public Undertakings
- C. Estimates Committee
- D. Public Accounts Committee
Answer: Estimates Committee
Explanation: The Estimates Committee (30 Lok Sabha members) is called the 'continuous economy committee'; the PAC and COPU have 22 members each with Rajya Sabha representation.
192. A resolution of the Rajya Sabha under Article 249 enabling Parliament to legislate on a State List subject remains in force for a maximum period of:
- A. Until dissolution of the Lok Sabha
- B. Two years
- C. Six months
- D. One year (renewable)
Answer: One year (renewable)
Explanation: The resolution must be supported by two-thirds of members present and voting, declare national interest, and lasts one year at a time; laws made cease six months after it lapses.
193. The 84th Constitutional Amendment (2001) extended the freeze on readjustment of Lok Sabha seats among States, based on the 1971 Census, until the first Census taken after the year:
- A. 2026
- B. 2031
- C. 2001
- D. 2011
Answer: 2026
Explanation: The freeze on inter-State reallocation of Lok Sabha seats (originally via the 42nd Amendment) was extended by the 84th Amendment until the first Census after 2026.
194. In Raja Ram Pal v. Hon'ble Speaker, Lok Sabha (2007), the Supreme Court held that the expulsion of MPs in the 'cash-for-query' case was:
- A. Valid, but open to limited judicial review for illegality or constitutional violation
- B. Invalid, as only the President can expel a member
- C. Valid, with Parliament's privileges wholly immune from judicial review
- D. Invalid, as expulsion is allowed only for Tenth Schedule disqualification
Answer: Valid, but open to limited judicial review for illegality or constitutional violation
Explanation: A 5-judge bench upheld the expulsions as a valid exercise of Article 105 powers but ruled that privilege-based actions are subject to limited judicial review on grounds like illegality and constitutional violation.
195. The Public Accounts Committee of Parliament consists of how many members, and how are they drawn?
- A. 20 members: 10 each from both Houses
- B. 30 members, all from Lok Sabha
- C. 25 members: 15 from Lok Sabha and 10 from Rajya Sabha
- D. 22 members: 15 from Lok Sabha and 7 from Rajya Sabha
Answer: 22 members: 15 from Lok Sabha and 7 from Rajya Sabha
Explanation: The PAC (which scrutinises CAG reports) has 22 members — 15 elected by the Lok Sabha and 7 by the Rajya Sabha; by convention its Chairman is from the Opposition.
196. Under which Article may the Governor promulgate an Ordinance when the State Legislature is not in session?
- A. Article 213
- B. Article 240
- C. Article 239B
- D. Article 123
Answer: Article 213
Explanation: Article 213 gives the Governor ordinance-making power; the ordinance lapses six weeks after the Legislature reassembles. Article 123 is the Presidential equivalent and Article 239B covers Puducherry's Administrator.
197. Under Article 361(4), civil proceedings against the President or a Governor in respect of personal acts require prior written notice of at least:
- A. Six months
- B. One month
- C. Two months
- D. Three months
Answer: Two months
Explanation: Article 361(4) bars civil proceedings against the President/Governor for personal acts until two months after notice is delivered; criminal proceedings are barred during the term of office.
198. The August Declaration of 1917 by Secretary of State Edwin Montagu promised:
- A. Abolition of the Viceroy's Executive Council
- B. Separate electorates for Sikhs
- C. Immediate dominion status
- D. Gradual development of self-governing institutions leading to responsible government
Answer: Gradual development of self-governing institutions leading to responsible government
Explanation: The declaration promised 'increasing association of Indians' and 'progressive realisation of responsible government', leading to the Government of India Act 1919.
199. The goal of 'Swaraj' was first declared by the Indian National Congress at its 1906 Calcutta session under the presidentship of:
- A. Dadabhai Naoroji
- B. Gopal Krishna Gokhale
- C. Rash Behari Ghosh
- D. Surendranath Banerjea
Answer: Dadabhai Naoroji
Explanation: Dadabhai Naoroji, presiding at Calcutta (1906), declared Swaraj (self-government like the colonies) as the Congress goal alongside Swadeshi, Boycott and National Education.
200. The Indian Councils Act, 1892 is significant mainly because it:
- A. Introduced an indirect element of election and allowed discussion of the budget
- B. Established dyarchy in the provinces
- C. Created the Federal Court
- D. Introduced separate electorates for Muslims
Answer: Introduced an indirect element of election and allowed discussion of the budget
Explanation: The 1892 Act enlarged councils, allowed members to discuss (not vote on) the budget and ask questions, and gave an indirect electoral element via recommendations by bodies.
201. The Government of India Act, 1858 created the post of Secretary of State for India, assisted by a Council of how many members?
- A. 15
- B. 20
- C. 12
- D. 10
Answer: 15
Explanation: The Act transferred control from the Company to the Crown; the Secretary of State was advised by the 15-member Council of India and the Governor-General became Viceroy.
202. The 'Sunset Law' associated with Cornwallis's Permanent Settlement (1793) meant that:
- A. Revenue demand was reduced every sunset year
- B. Tenants could not be evicted after sunset
- C. A zamindari estate was auctioned if revenue was not paid by sunset on the due date
- D. Revenue was collected only after sunset
Answer: A zamindari estate was auctioned if revenue was not paid by sunset on the due date
Explanation: Under the 1794 Sunset Law, a defaulting zamindar lost his estate by auction, making the fixed revenue demand (about 10/11th of rental) rigid.
203. Aurangzeb reimposed the jizya on non-Muslims in which year?
- A. 1669
- B. 1658
- C. 1679
- D. 1687
Answer: 1679
Explanation: Jizya, abolished by Akbar in 1564, was reimposed by Aurangzeb in 1679, provoking protests in Delhi and Rajput resentment.
204. In Chola village administration, the 'kudavolai' system was a method of:
- A. Collecting land revenue in kind
- B. Selecting village committee members by drawing lots from pots
- C. Granting land to temples
- D. Assessing irrigation taxes
Answer: Selecting village committee members by drawing lots from pots
Explanation: Uttaramerur inscriptions describe members of village committees chosen by drawing palm-leaf tickets (kudavolai) from a pot, with qualifications for candidates.
205. The Eran inscription of 510 CE, giving the earliest epigraphic evidence of sati, belongs to the reign of:
- A. Skandagupta
- B. Kumaragupta II
- C. Bhanugupta
- D. Samudragupta
Answer: Bhanugupta
Explanation: The Eran pillar inscription of Bhanugupta's time records Goparaja's death in battle and his wife's self-immolation, the first dated sati record.
206. Ashoka's Rock Edict XII is notable for urging:
- A. Mutual respect and concord among religious sects
- B. Appointment of Dhamma-mahamatras in border areas
- C. Abolition of animal sacrifice in the royal kitchen
- D. Conquest by Dhamma over the Hellenistic kingdoms
Answer: Mutual respect and concord among religious sects
Explanation: Rock Edict XII advocates sect-toleration ('growth of the essentials of all sects') and concord (samavaya); conquest by Dhamma is in RE XIII.
207. Dholavira in Kutch is distinctive among Harappan cities for:
- A. A great granary built on a brick platform
- B. A three-part city plan with elaborate water-conservation reservoirs
- C. A massive dockyard with a lock-gate
- D. Ploughed field evidence of two crops
Answer: A three-part city plan with elaborate water-conservation reservoirs
Explanation: Dholavira (UNESCO site, 2021) had a citadel, middle town and lower town and a sophisticated system of reservoirs and channels for scarce water.
208. In Arunachal Pradesh, the Yarlung Tsangpo (Brahmaputra of Tibet) enters India as the:
- A. Subansiri
- B. Lohit
- C. Siang (Dihang)
- D. Kameng
Answer: Siang (Dihang)
Explanation: After the Great Bend around Namcha Barwa, the river enters India as the Siang/Dihang and is joined by the Dibang and Lohit before becoming the Brahmaputra in Assam.
209. The Kashmir Valley lies between which two mountain ranges?
- A. Shiwalik and Pir Panjal
- B. Karakoram and Ladakh range
- C. Pir Panjal and the Great Himalayan (Zanskar) range
- D. Dhauladhar and Zanskar
Answer: Pir Panjal and the Great Himalayan (Zanskar) range
Explanation: The oval valley of the Jhelum is flanked by the Pir Panjal on the south-west and the Great Himalaya/Zanskar on the north-east; Karewa deposits support saffron.
210. India's largest freshwater lake by area, Wular, is of tectonic origin and is fed mainly by which river?
- A. Chenab
- B. Jhelum
- C. Ravi
- D. Indus
Answer: Jhelum
Explanation: Wular Lake in Kashmir (Bandipora) lies on the Jhelum, which enters at the south-east and leaves at Sopore; it is a Ramsar site.
211. Which Supreme Court judgment (1967, 6:5) held that Parliament could not amend Fundamental Rights through Article 368, a view later overruled in Kesavananda Bharati?
- A. I.C. Golaknath v. State of Punjab
- B. Shankari Prasad v. Union of India
- C. Sajjan Singh v. State of Rajasthan
- D. Minerva Mills v. Union of India
Answer: I.C. Golaknath v. State of Punjab
Explanation: Golaknath (1967) held that an amendment is 'law' under Article 13(2) and so cannot abridge Fundamental Rights; Kesavananda Bharati (1973) overruled it while introducing the basic structure doctrine.
212. The Indian Navy rescued the crew of the hijacked vessel MV Ruen in March 2024 at sea off the coast of:
- A. Oman
- B. Kenya
- C. Yemen
- D. Somalia
Answer: Somalia
Explanation: INS Kolkata intercepted the Bulgarian-flagged ship, which had been hijacked by Somali pirates, and 35 pirates surrendered.
213. The Indian Navy's Operation Sankalp was reinforced in 2023-24 in the Gulf of Aden and Arabian Sea mainly in response to attacks on shipping by:
- A. Iranian navy
- B. North Korean vessels
- C. Somali fishing fleets only
- D. Houthi militants and piracy incidents
Answer: Houthi militants and piracy incidents
Explanation: The Navy deployed warships to protect merchant vessels after Houthi attacks and the hijack of MV Ruen.
214. Which Indian bowler took 7 wickets for 57 runs in the 2023 World Cup semi-final against New Zealand at the Wankhede Stadium?
- A. Ravindra Jadeja
- B. Kuldeep Yadav
- C. Mohammed Shami
- D. Mohammed Siraj
Answer: Mohammed Shami
Explanation: Shami's 7/57 are the best bowling figures by an Indian in ODIs; India won by 70 runs.
215. In which Indian city was the opening match of the 2023 ICC Men's World Cup, between England and New Zealand, played?
- A. Ahmedabad
- B. Kolkata
- C. Chennai
- D. Mumbai
Answer: Ahmedabad
Explanation: The tournament opened at the Narendra Modi Stadium on 5 October 2023, where New Zealand won by nine wickets.
216. India's Kakrapar Atomic Power Station Unit 3 (KAPS-3) is notable as the first unit of which reactor design series built under the fleet-mode programme?
- A. 300 MWe BWR
- B. 1000 MWe VVER
- C. Fast breeder reactor
- D. 700 MWe indigenous PHWR
Answer: 700 MWe indigenous PHWR
Explanation: KAPS-3 is the first of the 700 MWe indigenous PHWR series to be commercially operated, with 16 such units planned in fleet mode.
217. The first Vande Bharat Express was flagged off in 2019 on the New Delhi-Varanasi route. In 2025, Vande Bharat services were extended to which Union Territory by connecting Katra with Srinagar?
- A. Puducherry
- B. Ladakh
- C. Chandigarh
- D. Jammu and Kashmir
Answer: Jammu and Kashmir
Explanation: The Katra-Srinagar Vande Bharat began on 6 June 2025 over the Chenab and Anji bridges.
218. The Kolkata RG Kar case led the Supreme Court in August 2024 to constitute a National Task Force for the safety of:
- A. Women in the workplace generally
- B. Medical professionals
- C. Journalists
- D. Railway passengers
Answer: Medical professionals
Explanation: The task force was set up to frame protocols for the safety of doctors and healthcare workers.
219. The Telangana-based start-up Skyroot Aerospace launched India's first privately built rocket, Vikram-S, in:
- A. May 2024
- B. December 2024
- C. November 2022
- D. March 2023
Answer: November 2022
Explanation: Vikram-S flew a suborbital flight from Sriharikota on 18 November 2022, followed by Agnibaan SOrTeD in 2024.
220. The Kuno National Park cheetah reintroduction began in September 2022 with cheetahs brought from which country?
- A. South Africa
- B. Kenya
- C. Namibia
- D. Botswana
Answer: Namibia
Explanation: Eight Namibian cheetahs arrived first; 12 more came from South Africa in February 2023.
221. India's first indigenously developed 700 MWe pressurised heavy water reactors at Kakrapar are located in which State?
- A. Tamil Nadu
- B. Rajasthan
- C. Maharashtra
- D. Gujarat
Answer: Gujarat
Explanation: Units 3 and 4 of the Kakrapar Atomic Power Project in Gujarat are 700 MWe PHWRs.
222. The 46th session of the UNESCO World Heritage Committee, held in July 2024, was hosted for the first time in India at:
- A. Yashobhoomi, Dwarka
- B. Bharat Mandapam, New Delhi
- C. Hyderabad International Convention Centre
- D. Vigyan Bhawan, New Delhi
Answer: Bharat Mandapam, New Delhi
Explanation: The session was chaired by Vishal V. Sharma, India's Ambassador to UNESCO.
223. The Pradhan Mantri Dhan-Dhaanya Krishi Yojana, announced in Budget 2025-26, targets how many low-productivity agricultural districts?
- A. 250
- B. 150
- C. 50
- D. 100
Answer: 100
Explanation: The scheme covers 100 districts, modelled on the Aspirational Districts Programme.
224. Budget 2025-26 set up a Nuclear Energy Mission targeting how much nuclear power capacity by 2047?
- A. 50 GW
- B. 200 GW
- C. 25 GW
- D. 100 GW
Answer: 100 GW
Explanation: The mission supports small modular reactors and aims for 100 GW of nuclear capacity by 2047.
225. Budget 2025-26 announced a Makhana Board in which State?
- A. Assam
- B. Bihar
- C. West Bengal
- D. Odisha
Answer: Bihar
Explanation: The board aims to improve production, processing, value addition and marketing of makhana in Bihar.
226. Under Budget 2025-26 the Kisan Credit Card loan limit was raised from Rs 3 lakh to:
- A. Rs 4 lakh
- B. Rs 5 lakh
- C. Rs 10 lakh
- D. Rs 7 lakh
Answer: Rs 5 lakh
Explanation: The enhanced KCC limit applies to short-term loans through modified interest subvention.
227. PM Awas Yojana-Urban 2.0, approved in August 2024, aims to assist the construction or purchase of how many houses for urban families?
- A. 50 lakh
- B. 1 crore
- C. 25 lakh
- D. 2 crore
Answer: 1 crore
Explanation: The scheme targets 1 crore houses with central assistance of Rs 2.30 lakh crore over five years.
228. Rahul Gandhi's Bharat Jodo Nyay Yatra, from January to March 2024, started in which State?
- A. Gujarat
- B. Assam
- C. Arunachal Pradesh
- D. Manipur
Answer: Manipur
Explanation: It began at Thoubal in Manipur on 14 January 2024 and ended in Mumbai on 16 March 2024.
229. The Kailash Mansarovar Yatra resumed in 2025 after a gap of about five years, passing through Lipulekh and which other pass?
- A. Zoji La
- B. Bara-lacha La
- C. Shipki La
- D. Nathu La
Answer: Nathu La
Explanation: The yatra routes were via Lipulekh (Uttarakhand) and Nathu La (Sikkim).
230. The Mughal Gardens of Rashtrapati Bhavan were renamed in January 2023 as:
- A. Amrit Udyan
- B. Rashtrapati Udyan
- C. Kartavya Udyan
- D. Bharat Vatika
Answer: Amrit Udyan
Explanation: Renamed Amrit Udyan to mark Azadi Ka Amrit Mahotsav.
231. Aurangabad and Osmanabad in Maharashtra were officially renamed in 2023 as:
- A. Sambhajipur and Dharashiv
- B. Chhatrapati Sambhajinagar and Dharashiv
- C. Ahilyanagar and Yedeshwar
- D. Shivajinagar and Tuljapur
Answer: Chhatrapati Sambhajinagar and Dharashiv
Explanation: The Centre approved the renaming in February 2023; the cities' railway stations followed.
232. Port Blair was renamed in September 2024 as:
- A. Sri Vijaya Puram
- B. Atal Dweep
- C. Netaji Nagar
- D. Kaalapani
Answer: Sri Vijaya Puram
Explanation: The Union Home Ministry renamed the Andaman and Nicobar capital Sri Vijaya Puram.
233. The Durbar Hall and Ashok Hall of Rashtrapati Bhavan were renamed in July 2024 as:
- A. Rashtra Sabha and Ashok Sabha
- B. Samvidhan Hall and Chakra Hall
- C. Bharat Mandap and Ashok Kaksh
- D. Ganatantra Mandap and Ashok Mandap
Answer: Ganatantra Mandap and Ashok Mandap
Explanation: The renaming removed colonial-era connotations of 'durbar'.
234. The Reliance-Disney merger, completed in November 2024, created a media company named:
- A. Viacom Disney India
- B. StarJio Media
- C. JioStar
- D. Network18 Plus
Answer: JioStar
Explanation: The merger of Viacom18 and Star India created JioStar, with JioCinema and Disney+ Hotstar merging into JioHotstar in 2025.
235. Twitter was rebranded as 'X' in July 2023 under the ownership of:
- A. Mark Zuckerberg
- B. Jack Dorsey
- C. Jeff Bezos
- D. Elon Musk
Answer: Elon Musk
Explanation: Musk had acquired Twitter in October 2022.
236. The Paris 2024 Olympics opening ceremony was unusual because it was held:
- A. On the Champs-Elysees only
- B. Inside the Stade de France
- C. At the Eiffel Tower only
- D. Along the River Seine rather than in a stadium
Answer: Along the River Seine rather than in a stadium
Explanation: It was the first Summer Olympics opening ceremony held outside a stadium, with athletes sailing on boats.
237. King Charles III's coronation, the first in the UK in 70 years, took place on:
- A. 8 September 2022
- B. 19 May 2023
- C. 6 May 2023
- D. 2 June 2023
Answer: 6 May 2023
Explanation: The ceremony was held at Westminster Abbey on 6 May 2023.
238. Notre-Dame Cathedral in Paris was reopened to the public in December 2024 after a fire in:
- A. April 2016
- B. March 2021
- C. June 2018
- D. April 2019
Answer: April 2019
Explanation: The cathedral reopened on 7-8 December 2024 after more than five years of restoration.
239. The OceanGate submersible 'Titan' imploded in June 2023 while attempting to reach the wreck of:
- A. The Lusitania
- B. The Bismarck
- C. The Titanic
- D. The Andrea Doria
Answer: The Titanic
Explanation: All five people on board died when the craft imploded in the North Atlantic.
240. Japan began releasing treated radioactive wastewater from which nuclear plant into the Pacific in August 2023?
- A. Onagawa
- B. Fukushima Daiichi
- C. Tokai
- D. Kashiwazaki-Kariwa
Answer: Fukushima Daiichi
Explanation: The ALPS-treated water release followed IAEA safety review and drew objections from China.
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