RPF Sub-Inspector Promotion Examination MCQ Practice

1. A. 61
2. B. 78
3. C. 100
4. D. 72

1. A. Seven
2. B. Five
3. C. Nine
4. D. Eleven

1. A. 3 out of every 20 kathas
2. B. 1 out of every 10 kathas
3. C. Half of the holding
4. D. One-fourth of the holding

1. A. One-half
2. B. One-third
3. C. Three-fourths
4. D. Two-thirds

1. A. Komaram Bheem
2. B. Alluri Sitarama Raju
3. C. Tantia Bhil
4. D. Birsa Munda

1. A. Michael Madhusudan Dutt
2. B. Bankim Chandra Chatterjee
3. C. Harish Chandra Mukherjee
4. D. Dinabandhu Mitra

1. A. Khan Bahadur Khan
2. B. Maulvi Ahmadullah Shah
3. C. Tantia Tope
4. D. Kunwar Singh

1. A. The Marathas
2. B. Sikh forces of Ranjit Singh
3. C. The British Army
4. D. The Afghan Amir

1. A. 1873
2. B. 1893
3. C. 1848
4. D. 1885

1450. Raja Rammohan Roy founded the 'Atmiya Sabha' in Calcutta in:

1. A. 1821
2. B. 1828
3. C. 1830
4. D. 1815

1451. Sir Syed Ahmad Khan set up the Scientific Society in 1864 at:

1. A. Delhi
2. B. Lucknow
3. C. Ghazipur
4. D. Aligarh

1452. The Indian Education Commission of 1882 was headed by:

1. A. Charles Wood
2. B. Lord Curzon
3. C. Thomas Raleigh
4. D. W. W. Hunter

1. A. Rs 10 lakh
2. B. Rs 5 lakh
3. C. Rs 50,000
4. D. Rs 1 lakh

1. A. James Outram
2. B. William Sleeman
3. C. Lord Dalhousie
4. D. John Malcolm

1. A. Alexander Read
2. B. Holt Mackenzie and R. M. Bird
3. C. Lord Cornwallis
4. D. Thomas Munro

1. A. Muhammad Reza Khan
2. B. Raja Rai Durlabh
3. C. Mir Jafar
4. D. Raja Shitab Roy

1. A. Mahar soldiers of the Bombay Native Infantry
2. B. Gurkha regiments
3. C. Sikh cavalry
4. D. Rajput levies

1. A. Holkar
2. B. Nana Phadnavis
3. C. Mahadji Scindia
4. D. Raghunathrao

1. A. Saadat Ali Khan
2. B. Asaf-ud-Daula
3. C. Safdar Jung
4. D. Shuja-ud-Daula

1. A. Military command
2. B. Religious matters, charity and learning
3. C. Foreign affairs
4. D. Judicial administration

1. A. 12
2. B. 30
3. C. 23
4. D. 17

1. A. Samugarh (1658)
2. B. Deorai (1659)
3. C. Dharmat (1658)
4. D. Khajwa (1659)

1463. Dara Shikoh's Persian translation of the Upanishads is titled:

1. A. Majma-ul-Bahrain
2. B. Hasanat-ul-Arifin
3. C. Razmnama
4. D. Sirr-i-Akbar

1. A. Ustad Mansur
2. B. Abul Hasan
3. C. Bishandas
4. D. Basawan

1. A. Abul Fazl
2. B. Badauni
3. C. Todar Mal
4. D. Sheikh Mubarak

1. A. Average produce and prices of the preceding ten years
2. B. Fixed rate for the whole empire
3. C. Crop-sharing at harvest
4. D. Lump-sum assessment on each village

1. A. Surajgarh (1534)
2. B. Chausa (1539)
3. C. Kannauj (1540)
4. D. Khanwa (1527)

1468. The Bahmani capital was shifted from Gulbarga to Bidar by:

1. A. Muhammad Shah I
2. B. Ahmad Shah I Wali
3. C. Alauddin Hasan Bahman Shah
4. D. Firuz Shah

1. A. Eight
2. B. Twelve
3. C. Ten
4. D. Six

1. A. Kondavidu
2. B. Udayagiri
3. C. Raichur
4. D. Rakkasa-Tangadi

1. A. Tenali Ramakrishna
2. B. Allasani Peddana
3. C. Nandi Timmana
4. D. Dhurjati

1. A. Achyutaraya
2. B. Harihara I
3. C. Devaraya II
4. D. Krishnadevaraya

1. A. Mahipala I
2. B. Vigrahapala III
3. C. Ramapala
4. D. Dharmapala

1. A. Mahendravarman I
2. B. Simhavishnu
3. C. Nandivarman II
4. D. Narasimhavarman I

1. A. Jivaka Chintamani
2. B. Manimekalai
3. C. Silappatikaram
4. D. Kural

1476. Firuz Shah Tughlaq set up the 'Diwan-i-Khairat' mainly to:

1. A. Organise the slave corps
2. B. Hear appeals against the Qazis
3. C. Help poor Muslims, including marriage of their daughters
4. D. Manage the royal karkhanas

1. A. The officer who fixed land revenue
2. B. The chief of the commerce department
3. C. The superintendent of each market
4. D. The royal spy in the markets

1. A. Muziris
2. B. Tyndis
3. C. Poduke
4. D. Barygaza

1. A. Tajuddin Yildiz
2. B. Iltutmish
3. C. Bakhtiyar Khalji
4. D. Qutb ud-Din Aibak

1. A. Dantidurga
2. B. Krishna I
3. C. Amoghavarsha I
4. D. Govinda III

1. A. Krishna
2. B. Tungabhadra
3. C. Godavari
4. D. Narmada

1. A. Pravarasena I
2. B. Prithvishena I
3. C. Harishena
4. D. Rudrasena II

1483. Samudragupta's 'Lyrist' type gold coins depict him:

1. A. Performing the Ashvamedha
2. B. Playing the veena seated on a couch
3. C. Slaying a lion
4. D. Standing beside a standard

1. A. Taxila
2. B. Sarnath
3. C. Sanchi
4. D. Mathura

1. A. Prabhavatigupta
2. B. Vasishthi
3. C. Gautami Balashri
4. D. Nayanika (Naganika)

1. A. Collecting land revenue
2. B. Commanding the army
3. C. Heading the espionage network
4. D. Storing the treasury and storehouses

1. A. Jinasena
2. B. Sthulabhadra
3. C. Bhadrabahu
4. D. Devardhi Kshamashramana

1. A. Agniban and Nagapasha
2. B. Mahashilakantaka and Rathamusala
3. C. Vajra and Trishul
4. D. Sudarshana and Gandiva

1. A. Assaka (Ashmaka)
2. B. Vatsa
3. C. Chedi
4. D. Avanti

1. A. Third
2. B. Tenth
3. C. Seventh
4. D. First

1. A. Maski
2. B. Jatinga-Rameshwara
3. C. Siddapura
4. D. Brahmagiri

1. A. Dogri and Gujarati
2. B. Bodo and Dogri
3. C. Bengali and Bodo
4. D. Maithili and Santhali

1. A. Punjabi
2. B. Nepali
3. C. Manipuri
4. D. Odia

1. A. Sindhi
2. B. Santhali
3. C. Nepali
4. D. Tamil

1. A. Only Magistrates' residences
2. B. Only railway platforms
3. C. Only courtrooms
4. D. Every police station and the offices of agencies with powers of arrest and interrogation, covering lock-ups, entry/exit points and interrogation rooms

1. A. Only if the accused applies in writing to the High Court
2. B. Only on appeal
3. C. When the accused is first produced before the Magistrate and whenever remanded, with the Magistrate informing him of the right
4. D. Only after the trial begins in the Sessions Court

1. A. Penal statutes are read as widely as possible against the accused
2. B. If two reasonable constructions are possible, the one favourable to the accused is adopted
3. C. Legislative intent is irrelevant
4. D. The harsher construction always prevails

1498. State of Haryana v. Bhajan Lal (1992) is chiefly cited for:

1. A. The definition of railway property
2. B. The Section 3 reverse onus
3. C. Rights of arrested women
4. D. Categories of cases where the High Court may quash an FIR/proceedings to prevent abuse of process (now BNSS s.528)

1. A. The person who alone knows how he got the property can reasonably be required to explain it
2. B. Every fact must be proved by the accused
3. C. The railway administration is always the complainant
4. D. Courts cannot examine documents

1. A. Must acquit the accused
2. B. Must reject his entire testimony
3. C. Cannot permit cross-examination by the prosecution
4. D. May permit cross-examination by the party calling him, and need not wholly discard his evidence if portions are reliable

1. A. No effect at all
2. B. It shifts the burden to the Magistrate
3. C. It automatically leads to conviction
4. D. It raises doubt whether the articles produced in court are the ones seized, weakening the case and favouring benefit of doubt to the accused

1. A. The onus shifts to the accused only after the prosecution proves the foundational facts (possession and the reasonable suspicion)
2. B. The prosecution is relieved of all burden once the Act is invoked
3. C. The court may disregard the accused's explanation
4. D. The accused must prove innocence beyond reasonable doubt

1. A. Examining a witness through video-conferencing
2. B. Transferring the trial to another court
3. C. Applying a new BNSS trial procedure to a pending case
4. D. Imposing a penalty greater than the law in force at the time of the act allowed

1. A. Does not apply to the RPF
2. B. Is relaxed to 72 hours in remote areas
3. C. Excludes the time necessary for the journey from the place of arrest to the Magistrate's court
4. D. Includes the journey time, so he must be produced by 9 AM Wednesday

1. A. A friend, relative or other person nominated by the arrested person
2. B. The railway administration's legal department
3. C. Only the Station Master
4. D. Only the local newspaper

1. A. Kathi Kalu Oghad (1961)
2. B. Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India (1978)
3. C. Nandini Satpathy (1978)
4. D. Hussainara Khatoon v. Home Secretary, Bihar (1979)

1. A. Concerns information disclosing a cognizable offence, so it does not apply directly to these non-cognizable offences
2. B. Applies fully, requiring an FIR for every Section 3 case
3. C. Applies only to railway accidents
4. D. Applies only if the value of property exceeds one lakh rupees

1. A. Only statements by co-accused are barred
2. B. Statements to any special-statute officer are always admissible
3. C. Confessions to such officers are admissible only if recorded on video
4. D. Officers with investigative powers under NDPS Act s.53 are 'police officers', so confessions to them are inadmissible under the Evidence Act bar

1. A. By any officer, provided the woman consents orally
2. B. Only after taking her to the Magistrate
3. C. By the arresting male officer, after a witness is present
4. D. By another female, with strict regard to decency

1. A. A petty offence, to be tried by the ordinary Magistrate
2. B. A serious offence, with the child to be produced before the Juvenile Justice Board, not lodged in a police lock-up
3. C. An offence outside the Act's scope
4. D. A heinous offence requiring a preliminary assessment

1. A. A newspaper report of the incident
2. B. An RPF officer's oral statement that it is genuine
3. C. A notarised affidavit of the accused
4. D. A certificate under Section 63(4) from the person in charge of the device (with expert's certification as prescribed)

1. A. Conscious possession, i.e. custody with knowledge of what is held
2. B. Ownership recorded in a document
3. C. Presence in a place where the object is later found
4. D. Mere physical proximity to the object

1. A. The recovery is automatically inadmissible and the trial void
2. B. The recovery stays admissible; an irregular search does not by itself vitiate the trial, though the court scrutinises it with caution
3. C. The trial is void but the recovery may be used in departmental action
4. D. The accused is entitled to acquittal on the irregularity alone

1. A. Hussainara Khatoon v. State of Bihar (1979)
2. B. Prem Shankar Shukla v. Delhi Administration (1980)
3. C. Sundarbhai Ambalal Desai v. State of Gujarat (2002)
4. D. Joginder Kumar v. State of U.P. (1994)

1. A. Barred, since the limit is six months
2. B. Barred, since the limit is three years for all imprisonment offences
3. C. Barred, since the limit is one year
4. D. Not barred by limitation, because the offence is punishable with more than three years' imprisonment

1. A. Five years
2. B. Two years and six months (one-half of the maximum)
3. C. One year
4. D. One year and eight months (one-third of the maximum)

1. A. Bail only after one year in custody
2. B. Summons, no arrest if the accused appears, and bail applications to be decided without delay if arrested
3. C. Bail only from the High Court
4. D. Arrest in every case, followed by remand to judicial custody

1. A. Authorise detention automatically on the police request
2. B. Transfer the case to the Sessions Court
3. C. Refuse remand in every such case
4. D. Examine the police checklist and recorded reasons and satisfy himself that arrest was necessary before authorising detention

1. A. Oral communication of the grounds is always sufficient
2. B. Grounds must be furnished in writing to the arrestee as a matter of course and without exception
3. C. Grounds need be disclosed only to the arrestee's relative
4. D. Grounds need be given only when the arrestee asks for them

1. A. Permissible in cases punishable with more than three years' imprisonment
2. B. Impermissible, as involuntary administration violates Articles 20(3) and 21
3. C. Permissible, because a test result is not a testimonial compulsion
4. D. Permissible if a superior officer authorises it in writing