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1361. The Chauri Chaura incident that led Gandhi to suspend the Non-Cooperation Movement occurred in February 1922 in:
  1. A. Bareilly district
  2. B. Meerut district
  3. C. Gorakhpur district
  4. D. Allahabad district
Answer: Gorakhpur district
Explanation: A mob burned a police station on 5 February 1922, killing 22 policemen.

1362. The Morley-Minto Reforms (Indian Councils Act 1909) introduced:

  1. A. Provincial autonomy
  2. B. Federal Court
  3. C. Separate electorates for Muslims
  4. D. Dyarchy in provinces
Answer: Separate electorates for Muslims
Explanation: The 1909 Act began communal representation; Satyendra Sinha became the first Indian on the Viceroy's Executive Council.
1363. The Congress split into Moderates and Extremists at which session in 1907?
  1. A. Nagpur
  2. B. Lucknow
  3. C. Surat
  4. D. Calcutta
Answer: Surat
Explanation: At Surat (presided by Rash Behari Ghosh) the two factions split; they reunited at Lucknow in 1916.

1364. The Ilbert Bill controversy (1883) concerned:

  1. A. Right of Indian judges to try Europeans
  2. B. Arms licensing
  3. C. Salt tax
  4. D. Press censorship
Answer: Right of Indian judges to try Europeans
Explanation: The Bill by Courtenay Ilbert under Ripon was diluted after a European agitation.
1365. The Vernacular Press Act of 1878 was passed during the Viceroyalty of:
  1. A. Lord Ripon
  2. B. Lord Dufferin
  3. C. Lord Lytton
  4. D. Lord Curzon
Answer: Lord Lytton
Explanation: Lytton's Act gagged Indian-language newspapers; Ripon repealed it in 1882.
1366. Wood's Despatch (1854), often called the 'Magna Carta of English Education in India', recommended:
  1. A. Free primary schooling for all
  2. B. Abolition of English medium
  3. C. Closing of Sanskrit colleges
  4. D. Universities at Calcutta, Bombay and Madras
Answer: Universities at Calcutta, Bombay and Madras
Explanation: Wood's Despatch led to universities in 1857 and a Department of Public Instruction in each province.
1367. Which Governor-General's tenure saw the first railway line open from Bombay to Thane in 1853?
  1. A. Lord Canning
  2. B. Lord Lytton
  3. C. Lord Bentinck
  4. D. Lord Dalhousie
Answer: Lord Dalhousie
Explanation: Dalhousie's Railway Minute of 1853 laid out the railway policy; the first train ran on 16 April 1853.

1368. The Doctrine of Lapse annexed Satara in 1848 under:

  1. A. Lord Ellenborough
  2. B. Lord Dalhousie
  3. C. Lord Auckland
  4. D. Lord Canning
Answer: Lord Dalhousie
Explanation: Dalhousie annexed Satara (1848), Jhansi (1853) and Nagpur (1854) by lapse.

1369. The Subsidiary Alliance system was introduced by:

  1. A. Lord Dalhousie
  2. B. Lord Cornwallis
  3. C. Lord Wellesley
  4. D. Lord Hastings
Answer: Lord Wellesley
Explanation: Wellesley (1798-1805) perfected it; Hyderabad (1798) was the first to accept it.
1370. The Ryotwari system was first introduced in 1792 in which region by Alexander Read and Thomas Munro (later extended)?
  1. A. Baramahal (Madras Presidency)
  2. B. Bengal
  3. C. Awadh
  4. D. Punjab
Answer: Baramahal (Madras Presidency)
Explanation: Ryotwari was tried in Baramahal in 1792 and extended by Munro in Madras after 1820.
1371. The Battle of Buxar (1764) was fought between the East India Company and the combined forces of Mir Qasim, Shuja-ud-Daulah and:
  1. A. Shah Alam II
  2. B. Ahmad Shah Abdali
  3. C. Alivardi Khan
  4. D. Siraj-ud-Daulah
Answer: Shah Alam II
Explanation: The Mughal emperor Shah Alam II joined Mir Qasim and Shuja-ud-Daulah; Hector Munro won, leading to the Treaty of Allahabad.

1372. The Persian text 'Akbarnama' and 'Ain-i-Akbari' were written by:

  1. A. Abul Fazl
  2. B. Nizamuddin Ahmad
  3. C. Faizi
  4. D. Badauni
Answer: Abul Fazl
Explanation: Abul Fazl, Akbar's chronicler and minister, authored both; the Ain is the third volume of the Akbarnama.
1373. The Battle of Haldighati (1576) was fought between Akbar's forces led by Man Singh and which ruler?
  1. A. Rana Kumbha
  2. B. Rana Sanga
  3. C. Maharana Pratap
  4. D. Rao Chandrasen
Answer: Maharana Pratap
Explanation: Maharana Pratap of Mewar fought the Mughal army at Haldighati on 18 June 1576.
1374. Which Mughal emperor's tomb at Sikandra, Agra, was completed by his son Jahangir?
  1. A. Shah Jahan
  2. B. Babur
  3. C. Humayun
  4. D. Akbar
Answer: Akbar
Explanation: Akbar's tomb at Sikandra was begun by Akbar himself and completed by Jahangir around 1613.
1375. Qutb Minar's construction was begun by Qutbuddin Aibak and completed by:
  1. A. Balban
  2. B. Iltutmish
  3. C. Razia Sultan
  4. D. Alauddin Khalji
Answer: Iltutmish
Explanation: Aibak began the Minar in honour of Sufi saint Qutbuddin Bakhtiyar Kaki; Iltutmish completed it.
1376. Which Sultan of Delhi introduced the system of 'dagh' (branding of horses) and 'chehra' (descriptive rolls of soldiers)?
  1. A. Ghiyasuddin Tughluq
  2. B. Balban
  3. C. Alauddin Khalji
  4. D. Iltutmish
Answer: Alauddin Khalji
Explanation: Alauddin Khalji introduced dagh and chehra to curb fraud in the army and maintain a large standing force.

1377. The traveller Ibn Battuta served in India as a qazi under:

  1. A. Muhammad bin Tughluq
  2. B. Sikandar Lodi
  3. C. Iltutmish
  4. D. Firuz Shah Tughlaq
Answer: Muhammad bin Tughluq
Explanation: Ibn Battuta reached Delhi in 1333 and was appointed qazi by Muhammad bin Tughluq; his account is the 'Rihla'.
1378. Which Delhi Sultan introduced the token currency of bronze coins, which failed because of large-scale forgery?
  1. A. Alauddin Khalji
  2. B. Muhammad bin Tughluq
  3. C. Balban
  4. D. Firuz Tughlaq
Answer: Muhammad bin Tughluq
Explanation: Muhammad bin Tughluq's token currency (c. 1329-30) was withdrawn after forgery, and the state redeemed it in gold and silver.
1379. The Chola 'Uttaramerur inscriptions' of Parantaka I are valuable chiefly for describing:
  1. A. Maritime trade with Rome
  2. B. Village assembly elections by lot (kudavolai)
  3. C. Land grants to Brahmins in Bengal
  4. D. Temple dancing rituals
Answer: Village assembly elections by lot (kudavolai)
Explanation: The inscriptions describe qualifications for membership of the sabha and election by drawing pots (kudavolai).
1380. The Harsha-era Sanskrit biography 'Harshacharita' was written by:
  1. A. Magha
  2. B. Dandin
  3. C. Bharavi
  4. D. Banabhatta
Answer: Banabhatta
Explanation: Banabhatta, the court poet of Harsha, also wrote the prose romance 'Kadambari'.
1381. Which Chinese traveller studied at Nalanda under Silabhadra during Harsha's reign?
  1. A. Sung Yun
  2. B. I-tsing
  3. C. Fa-hien
  4. D. Hiuen Tsang
Answer: Hiuen Tsang
Explanation: Hiuen Tsang (629-645 CE) studied at Nalanda under its head Silabhadra and wrote 'Si-yu-ki'.
1382. The Allahabad Pillar inscription (Prayaga Prashasti) of Samudragupta was composed by:
  1. A. Vatsabhatti
  2. B. Kalidasa
  3. C. Ravikirti
  4. D. Harishena
Answer: Harishena
Explanation: Harishena, Samudragupta's court poet and minister, wrote the Prayaga Prashasti in Sanskrit, engraved on an Ashokan pillar.
1383. Which Kushana ruler convened the Fourth Buddhist Council at Kundalvana, Kashmir?
  1. A. Vima Kadphises
  2. B. Kanishka
  3. C. Kujula Kadphises
  4. D. Huvishka
Answer: Kanishka
Explanation: Kanishka's council, presided over by Vasumitra with Ashvaghosha as deputy, led to the formal Mahayana-Hinayana split.
1384. The Buddhist text 'Milindapanha' records a dialogue between Menander and which monk?
  1. A. Buddhaghosha
  2. B. Ashvaghosha
  3. C. Nagasena
  4. D. Vasumitra
Answer: Nagasena
Explanation: Milindapanha ('Questions of Milinda') records the discussion between the Indo-Greek king Menander (Milinda) and Nagasena.
1385. Which Buddhist council, held under Ashoka at Pataliputra, was presided over by Moggaliputta Tissa?
  1. A. Fourth Buddhist Council
  2. B. Third Buddhist Council
  3. C. First Buddhist Council
  4. D. Second Buddhist Council
Answer: Third Buddhist Council
Explanation: At the Third Council (c. 250 BCE) the Kathavatthu was compiled and the Abhidhamma Pitaka finalised.
1386. The 'Dasarajna' (Battle of Ten Kings) mentioned in the Rigveda was fought on the banks of the river:
  1. A. Yamuna
  2. B. Parushni (Ravi)
  3. C. Sarasvati
  4. D. Sindhu
Answer: Parushni (Ravi)
Explanation: King Sudas of the Bharata clan defeated a confederacy of ten tribes on the Parushni (Ravi).
1387. Which Veda contains the earliest reference to the four-fold varna division through the Purusha Sukta?
  1. A. Samaveda
  2. B. Atharvaveda
  3. C. Yajurveda
  4. D. Rigveda (Tenth Mandala)
Answer: Rigveda (Tenth Mandala)
Explanation: The Purusha Sukta in the tenth Mandala of the Rigveda, a late addition, mentions Brahmana, Rajanya, Vaishya and Shudra.
1388. Ploughed field evidence of the Harappan period, with a criss-cross furrow pattern, was found at:
  1. A. Mohenjodaro
  2. B. Chanhudaro
  3. C. Daimabad
  4. D. Kalibangan
Answer: Kalibangan
Explanation: Kalibangan (Rajasthan) yielded a pre-Harappan ploughed field with intersecting furrows, along with fire altars.
1389. A dockyard of the Indus Valley Civilisation has been excavated at which site?
  1. A. Lothal
  2. B. Ropar
  3. C. Kalibangan
  4. D. Banawali
Answer: Lothal
Explanation: Lothal on the Gulf of Khambhat has a brick-built tidal dockyard, excavated under S. R. Rao.
1390. Which Harappan site, located in Gujarat's Kutch region, is known for its sophisticated water-conservation reservoirs and a large inscription of ten large signs?
  1. A. Dholavira
  2. B. Surkotada
  3. C. Rangpur
  4. D. Lothal
Answer: Dholavira
Explanation: Dholavira (Khadir island, Kutch) has a series of water reservoirs and the famous 'signboard' with ten large Harappan signs; it became a UNESCO site in 2021.
1391. The 'Bhabar' belt of the Himalayan foothills is characterised by:
  1. A. Boulders and pebbles in which streams disappear
  2. B. Coastal sand ridges
  3. C. Dense marshy forests
  4. D. Fertile new alluvium
Answer: Boulders and pebbles in which streams disappear
Explanation: Bhabar is a porous belt of pebbles deposited at the foot of the Shiwaliks where streams sink; they re-emerge in the marshy Terai to the south.
1392. Mount Kilimanjaro, Africa's highest peak, is a dormant volcano located in:
  1. A. Ethiopia
  2. B. Tanzania
  3. C. Uganda
  4. D. Kenya
Answer: Tanzania
Explanation: Kilimanjaro (5,895 m, peak Uhuru) lies in Tanzania near the Kenyan border.

1393. Lake Baikal, the world's deepest freshwater lake, is located in:

  1. A. Mongolia
  2. B. Siberia, Russia
  3. C. Kazakhstan
  4. D. Canada
Answer: Siberia, Russia
Explanation: Lake Baikal in southern Siberia is the deepest (about 1,640 m) and holds roughly one-fifth of the world's unfrozen fresh water.
1394. The lagoon Chilika, Asia's largest brackish water lagoon, is located on the coast of:
  1. A. Andhra Pradesh
  2. B. Tamil Nadu
  3. C. Odisha
  4. D. West Bengal
Answer: Odisha
Explanation: Chilika in Odisha is a Ramsar site and wintering ground of migratory birds; Irrawaddy dolphins live there.
1395. Jog (Gersoppa) Falls, India's second-highest plunge waterfall, is formed by which river?
  1. A. Sharavati
  2. B. Tungabhadra
  3. C. Netravati
  4. D. Kaveri
Answer: Sharavati
Explanation: Jog Falls on the Sharavati in Shimoga, Karnataka drops about 253 m in four segments: Raja, Rani, Roarer and Rocket.
1396. Dhuandhar Falls, formed by a river cascading through the Marble Rocks gorge near Jabalpur, belongs to which river?
  1. A. Chambal
  2. B. Narmada
  3. C. Tapi
  4. D. Son
Answer: Narmada
Explanation: The Narmada plunges at Dhuandhar near Bhedaghat; it flows west through a rift valley into the Gulf of Khambhat.

1397. Which State had the lowest population density in Census 2011?

  1. A. Mizoram
  2. B. Arunachal Pradesh
  3. C. Sikkim
  4. D. Nagaland
Answer: Arunachal Pradesh
Explanation: Arunachal Pradesh had about 17 persons per sq km, the lowest; Bihar was highest among States (1,106).

1398. Which Indian State had the highest sex ratio in Census 2011?

  1. A. Kerala
  2. B. Puducherry
  3. C. Goa
  4. D. Tamil Nadu
Answer: Kerala
Explanation: Kerala recorded 1,084 females per 1,000 males (Puducherry UT had 1,037); the national ratio was 943.

1399. The Bhangar and Khadar are types of:

  1. A. Older and newer alluvium of the Northern Plains
  2. B. Types of desert soils
  3. C. Terraces of Himalayan rivers only
  4. D. Sand dunes of Rajasthan
Answer: Older and newer alluvium of the Northern Plains
Explanation: Bhangar is older, higher alluvium (with kankar nodules) and Khadar is newer, fertile flood-plain alluvium.

1400. The temperate grasslands of Argentina and Uruguay are known as:

  1. A. Pampas
  2. B. Prairies
  3. C. Veld
  4. D. Downs
Answer: Pampas
Explanation: Pampas are South American temperate grasslands; Prairies are in North America, Veld in South Africa and Downs in Australia.
1401. Which river flows through the largest number of countries in the world?
  1. A. Nile
  2. B. Mekong
  3. C. Rhine
  4. D. Danube
Answer: Danube
Explanation: The Danube flows through or borders ten countries, from Germany to Romania, ending in the Black Sea.

1402. Bab-el-Mandeb strait connects the Red Sea with which water body?

  1. A. Gulf of Oman
  2. B. Persian Gulf
  3. C. Mediterranean Sea
  4. D. Gulf of Aden
Answer: Gulf of Aden
Explanation: Bab-el-Mandeb lies between Yemen and Djibouti/Eritrea and links the Red Sea to the Gulf of Aden and Arabian Sea.

1403. The Strait of Malacca connects which two water bodies?

  1. A. Arabian Sea and Red Sea
  2. B. Andaman Sea and South China Sea
  3. C. Java Sea and Timor Sea
  4. D. Bay of Bengal and Pacific Ocean
Answer: Andaman Sea and South China Sea
Explanation: The Strait of Malacca lies between the Malay Peninsula and Sumatra, linking the Andaman Sea (Indian Ocean) with the South China Sea.
1404. Which current is a cold ocean current flowing along the west coast of South America?
  1. A. Gulf Stream
  2. B. Brazil Current
  3. C. Humboldt (Peru) Current
  4. D. Kuroshio Current
Answer: Humboldt (Peru) Current
Explanation: The Humboldt Current carries cold Antarctic water north along Chile and Peru; its weakening marks El Nino conditions.
1405. The pre-monsoon thunderstorms of West Bengal, locally known as 'Kal Baisakhi', mainly occur in which month?
  1. A. January
  2. B. July
  3. C. October
  4. D. April-May
Answer: April-May
Explanation: Kal Baisakhi are violent evening thunderstorms in April-May caused by moist air meeting hot dry air over Bengal and Assam.
1406. The winter rainfall in north-western India, beneficial for the rabi wheat crop, is caused by:
  1. A. Retreating monsoon
  2. B. Tropical cyclones
  3. C. Nor'westers
  4. D. Western disturbances
Answer: Western disturbances
Explanation: Western disturbances are extratropical cyclonic systems originating over the Mediterranean region and carried by the subtropical westerly jet.
1407. Black cotton soil (regur) is deficient in which combination of nutrients?
  1. A. Iron and lime
  2. B. Calcium and magnesium
  3. C. Potash and lime
  4. D. Nitrogen, phosphorus and organic matter
Answer: Nitrogen, phosphorus and organic matter
Explanation: Regur, formed from Deccan basalt, is rich in lime, iron, magnesia, alumina and potash but poor in nitrogen, phosphorus and humus.
1408. India's only active volcano, Barren Island, is located in which group?
  1. A. Andaman Islands
  2. B. Nicobar Islands
  3. C. Sundarbans
  4. D. Lakshadweep
Answer: Andaman Islands
Explanation: Barren Island in the Andaman Sea, part of the Andaman group, is the only confirmed active volcano in South Asia.

1409. The Ten Degree Channel separates which two island groups?

  1. A. Minicoy and Kalpeni
  2. B. Andaman and Nicobar
  3. C. Lakshadweep and Maldives
  4. D. Little Andaman and Car Nicobar
Answer: Andaman and Nicobar
Explanation: The Ten Degree Channel lies between Little Andaman and Car Nicobar; the Eight Degree Channel separates Minicoy from the Maldives.
1410. Shipki La, a mountain pass on the India-China border, lies in which State/UT, with the Sutlej entering India near it?
  1. A. Uttarakhand
  2. B. Ladakh
  3. C. Himachal Pradesh
  4. D. Sikkim
Answer: Himachal Pradesh
Explanation: Shipki La is in Kinnaur district of Himachal Pradesh; the Sutlej enters India there from Tibet.
1411. The Palghat Gap, an important pass connecting Kerala and Tamil Nadu, lies between which two hill ranges?
  1. A. Sahyadri and Satpura
  2. B. Nallamala and Velikonda
  3. C. Anamalai and Cardamom
  4. D. Nilgiri and Anamalai
Answer: Nilgiri and Anamalai
Explanation: The Palghat Gap separates the Nilgiris in the north from the Anamalai Hills in the south and carries the Kochi-Coimbatore rail and road links.
1412. Anamudi, the highest peak of Peninsular India (2,695 m), lies in which hill range?
  1. A. Palani Hills
  2. B. Cardamom Hills
  3. C. Anamalai Hills
  4. D. Nilgiri Hills
Answer: Anamalai Hills
Explanation: Anamudi in the Anamalai Hills of Kerala (Western Ghats) is the highest peak south of the Himalayas.
1413. The National Judicial Appointments Commission (99th Amendment) was struck down in 2015 in which case?
  1. A. First Judges Case
  2. B. Supreme Court Advocates-on-Record Association v. Union of India
  3. C. Indira Nehru Gandhi v. Raj Narain
  4. D. Second Judges Case
Answer: Supreme Court Advocates-on-Record Association v. Union of India
Explanation: The Fourth Judges Case (October 2015) held the NJAC and the 99th Amendment unconstitutional as violating judicial independence, restoring the collegium.
1414. The 102nd Constitutional Amendment gave constitutional status to which body through Article 338B?
  1. A. National Commission for Minorities
  2. B. National Human Rights Commission
  3. C. National Commission for Backward Classes
  4. D. National Commission for Women
Answer: National Commission for Backward Classes
Explanation: Article 338B (inserted 2018) made the NCBC a constitutional body; Article 342A deals with socially and educationally backward classes lists.
1415. The 103rd Constitutional Amendment (2019) provided 10% reservation for Economically Weaker Sections through which new clauses?
  1. A. Articles 16(4A) and 16(4B)
  2. B. Articles 15(6) and 16(6)
  3. C. Articles 335 and 338
  4. D. Articles 14(4) and 15(4)
Answer: Articles 15(6) and 16(6)
Explanation: Clauses 15(6) and 16(6) enable special provisions for EWS; the Supreme Court upheld the amendment in Janhit Abhiyan (2022) by 3:2.
1416. The 97th Constitutional Amendment (2011) gave constitutional status to which institutions, adding Part IXB?
  1. A. Self-help groups
  2. B. Water user associations
  3. C. Municipal corporations
  4. D. Cooperative societies
Answer: Cooperative societies
Explanation: It made the right to form cooperative societies a Fundamental Right under Article 19(1)(c) and added Article 43B and Part IXB.
1417. Which Amendment added Bodo, Dogri, Maithili and Santhali to the Eighth Schedule?
  1. A. 96th Amendment
  2. B. 92nd Amendment
  3. C. 71st Amendment
  4. D. 21st Amendment
Answer: 92nd Amendment
Explanation: The 92nd Amendment (2003, in force 2004) raised the languages from 18 to 22; Sindhi came via the 21st and Konkani, Manipuri, Nepali via the 71st.
1418. Which subject was transferred from the State List to the Concurrent List by the 42nd Amendment, 1976?
  1. A. Agriculture
  2. B. Police
  3. C. Public health
  4. D. Forests
Answer: Forests
Explanation: The 42nd Amendment moved five subjects to the Concurrent List: education, forests, weights and measures, protection of wild animals and birds, and administration of justice.
1419. Which judgment expanded the scope of Article 21 by holding that 'procedure established by law' must be just, fair and reasonable?
  1. A. A.K. Gopalan v. State of Madras
  2. B. Champakam Dorairajan v. State of Madras
  3. C. Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India
  4. D. ADM Jabalpur v. Shivkant Shukla
Answer: Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India
Explanation: Maneka Gandhi (1978) linked Articles 14, 19 and 21 (the 'golden triangle'), overruling the narrow Gopalan view.
1420. In which case did a 13-judge Supreme Court bench, by a 7:6 majority, propound the 'basic structure' doctrine?
  1. A. Shankari Prasad v. Union of India
  2. B. Golaknath v. State of Punjab
  3. C. Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala
  4. D. Minerva Mills v. Union of India
Answer: Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala
Explanation: Kesavananda Bharati (1973) held Parliament can amend the Constitution but cannot alter its basic structure.
1421. The GST Council is a constitutional body established under which Article inserted by the 101st Amendment?
  1. A. Article 286
  2. B. Article 246A
  3. C. Article 269A
  4. D. Article 279A
Answer: Article 279A
Explanation: Article 279A provides for the GST Council, chaired by the Union Finance Minister; Article 246A gives concurrent power to levy GST.
1422. Which Article provides for the State Election Commission to supervise elections to Panchayats?
  1. A. Article 243ZA
  2. B. Article 243K
  3. C. Article 243D
  4. D. Article 243I
Answer: Article 243K
Explanation: Article 243K vests superintendence of Panchayat elections in the State Election Commissioner; Article 243ZA covers municipal elections.
1423. The special status of the National Capital Territory of Delhi, with a Legislative Assembly, was created by which Amendment inserting Article 239AA?
  1. A. 71st Amendment
  2. B. 74th Amendment
  3. C. 61st Amendment
  4. D. 69th Amendment
Answer: 69th Amendment
Explanation: The 69th Amendment Act, 1991 inserted Articles 239AA and 239AB, creating the NCT of Delhi with a Legislative Assembly and Council of Ministers.
1424. Which Article gives the Governor the power to grant pardons, reprieves, respites or remissions, but NOT the power to pardon a death sentence?
  1. A. Article 72
  2. B. Article 163
  3. C. Article 213
  4. D. Article 161
Answer: Article 161
Explanation: Article 161 empowers the Governor, but only the President under Article 72 can pardon a death sentence or court-martial sentences.
1425. An Ordinance promulgated under Article 123 ceases to operate after how long from the reassembly of Parliament, unless approved earlier?
  1. A. Four weeks
  2. B. Six months
  3. C. Thirty days
  4. D. Six weeks
Answer: Six weeks
Explanation: An Ordinance must be laid before Parliament and ceases six weeks after reassembly (or earlier if both Houses disapprove).
1426. Within how many days must the Rajya Sabha return a Money Bill to the Lok Sabha with its recommendations?
  1. A. 14 days
  2. B. 7 days
  3. C. 21 days
  4. D. 30 days
Answer: 14 days
Explanation: Under Article 109, the Rajya Sabha must return a Money Bill within 14 days; the Lok Sabha may accept or reject its recommendations.
1427. Which of the following Bills has been passed at a joint sitting of the two Houses under Article 108?
  1. A. Lokpal Bill, 2011
  2. B. Constitution (Amendment) Bill, 1975
  3. C. Triple Talaq Bill, 2018
  4. D. Prevention of Terrorism Bill, 2002
Answer: Prevention of Terrorism Bill, 2002
Explanation: Joint sittings have been held thrice: Dowry Prohibition Bill (1961), Banking Service Commission Repeal Bill (1978) and POTA Bill (2002).
1428. For impeachment of the President under Article 61, a resolution must be moved in a House after notice signed by at least what fraction of its total members, with how many days' notice?
  1. A. One-tenth; 7 days
  2. B. One-fourth; 14 days
  3. C. One-third; 21 days
  4. D. One-half; 30 days
Answer: One-fourth; 14 days
Explanation: Notice signed by at least one-fourth of total members and 14 days' notice are required; the resolution must be passed by a two-thirds majority of total membership.
1429. A proclamation of National Emergency must be approved by both Houses of Parliament within what period, failing which it lapses?
  1. A. Two months
  2. B. Fourteen days
  3. C. One month
  4. D. Six months
Answer: One month
Explanation: Under Article 352(4) as amended by the 44th Amendment, approval by a special majority within one month is required; it then continues for six months at a time.
1430. The 44th Amendment Act, 1978 replaced 'internal disturbance' with which phrase as a ground for proclaiming a National Emergency under Article 352?
  1. A. Financial instability
  2. B. Communal violence
  3. C. Armed rebellion
  4. D. Civil war
Answer: Armed rebellion
Explanation: After the 44th Amendment, an Emergency can be declared on grounds of war, external aggression or 'armed rebellion'; the President needs the Cabinet's written advice.
1431. Which Article empowers Parliament to create new All India Services by a Rajya Sabha resolution passed by two-thirds of members present and voting?
  1. A. Article 323
  2. B. Article 308
  3. C. Article 315
  4. D. Article 312
Answer: Article 312
Explanation: Article 312 requires a Rajya Sabha resolution (two-thirds present and voting) declaring it necessary in the national interest, followed by a law of Parliament.
1432. Which Article provides for the Inter-State Council to inquire into and advise on disputes between States?
  1. A. Article 307
  2. B. Article 262
  3. C. Article 280
  4. D. Article 263
Answer: Article 263
Explanation: Article 263 empowers the President to establish an Inter-State Council; Article 262 deals with inter-State river water disputes.
1433. The Eleventh Schedule, listing the powers and responsibilities of Panchayats, contains how many subjects?
  1. A. 32
  2. B. 18
  3. C. 29
  4. D. 24
Answer: 29
Explanation: The Eleventh Schedule (73rd Amendment, Article 243G) lists 29 subjects; the Twelfth Schedule for municipalities lists 18.
1434. Which Constitutional Amendment Act inserted Article 21A, making education a Fundamental Right for children aged 6-14 years?
  1. A. 73rd Amendment
  2. B. 86th Amendment
  3. C. 93rd Amendment
  4. D. 42nd Amendment
Answer: 86th Amendment
Explanation: The 86th Amendment Act, 2002 inserted Article 21A, changed Article 45 and added Fundamental Duty 51A(k).
1435. Sikkim became the 22nd State of the Indian Union by which Constitutional Amendment?
  1. A. 36th Amendment (1975)
  2. B. 42nd Amendment (1976)
  3. C. 35th Amendment (1974)
  4. D. 31st Amendment (1973)
Answer: 36th Amendment (1975)
Explanation: The 35th Amendment made Sikkim an associate state in 1974; the 36th Amendment, 1975, gave it full statehood.
1436. The Royal Indian Navy Mutiny of February 1946 began on which ship at Bombay?
  1. A. HMIS Godavari
  2. B. HMIS Hindustan
  3. C. HMIS Talwar
  4. D. HMIS Kistna
Answer: HMIS Talwar
Explanation: The ratings' strike began on HMIS Talwar on 18 February 1946, led by the Naval Central Strike Committee under M. S. Khan.
1437. Which three INA officers were tried together at the Red Fort in the first INA trial (1945)?
  1. A. Mohan Singh, Rash Behari Bose and A. C. Chatterjee
  2. B. N. S. Gill, Mohan Singh and A. D. Loganathan
  3. C. Lakshmi Sahgal, J. K. Bhonsle and Habibur Rahman
  4. D. Shah Nawaz Khan, P. K. Sehgal and G. S. Dhillon
Answer: Shah Nawaz Khan, P. K. Sehgal and G. S. Dhillon
Explanation: A Hindu, a Muslim and a Sikh officer were tried together; Bhulabhai Desai led the defence and the sentences were remitted.

1438. The Simla Conference (1945) under Wavell failed mainly because:

  1. A. The princes objected to the plan
  2. B. Jinnah insisted that only the Muslim League could nominate all Muslim members
  3. C. The Viceroy withdrew the proposal
  4. D. Congress refused to attend
Answer: Jinnah insisted that only the Muslim League could nominate all Muslim members
Explanation: Jinnah demanded that the League alone nominate all Muslim members of the Executive Council, which Congress could not accept.
1439. Who was the first Chief Justice of the Federal Court of India, inaugurated in 1937?
  1. A. Sir Patrick Spens
  2. B. Sir Shah Muhammad Sulaiman
  3. C. Sir Maurice Gwyer
  4. D. Sir Harilal Kania
Answer: Sir Maurice Gwyer
Explanation: The Federal Court under the Government of India Act 1935 began at Delhi on 1 October 1937 with Sir Maurice Gwyer as Chief Justice.
1440. Under the Poona Pact (1932), the number of seats reserved for the Depressed Classes in the provincial legislatures was:
  1. A. 148
  2. B. 71
  3. C. 120
  4. D. 200
Answer: 148
Explanation: The Pact raised the Communal Award's 71 reserved seats to 148 with joint electorates and a primary-election system.

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