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1201. Madhubani painting belongs to which State?

  1. A. Jharkhand
  2. B. Odisha
  3. C. West Bengal
  4. D. Bihar
Answer: Bihar
Explanation: Mithila region; the painting received a GI tag.

1202. Which painting style of Rajasthan is known for the 'Bani Thani'?

  1. A. Marwar
  2. B. Kishangarh
  3. C. Bundi
  4. D. Mewar
Answer: Kishangarh
Explanation: Painted by Nihal Chand under Raja Sawant Singh.
1203. The Hoysaleswara temple at Halebidu is built in which material typical of Hoysala art?
  1. A. Marble
  2. B. Granite only
  3. C. Soapstone
  4. D. Red sandstone
Answer: Soapstone
Explanation: Soft chlorite schist allows intricate carving.
1204. Which architectural style of temple is characterised by a 'Vimana' and 'Gopuram', typical of southern India?
  1. A. Dravida
  2. B. Hoysala only
  3. C. Nagara
  4. D. Vesara only
Answer: Dravida
Explanation: Dravida temples have pyramidal vimanas and gateway gopurams.

1205. The Sun Temple at Konark was built by:

  1. A. Kapilendra
  2. B. Anantavarman Chodaganga
  3. C. Narasimhadeva I of the Eastern Ganga dynasty
  4. D. Ashoka
Answer: Narasimhadeva I of the Eastern Ganga dynasty
Explanation: Built in the 13th century in the shape of a chariot.

1206. The Khajuraho group of temples were built by the:

  1. A. Palas
  2. B. Rashtrakutas
  3. C. Paramaras
  4. D. Chandelas
Answer: Chandelas
Explanation: Built between roughly 950 and 1050 CE in Nagara style.
1207. Which Mughal-era musician is counted among the 'Navaratnas' of Akbar's court and is known as a Dhrupad singer?
  1. A. Amir Khusrau
  2. B. Haridas
  3. C. Tansen
  4. D. Baiju Bawra
Answer: Tansen
Explanation: Tansen (Ramtanu Pande) was a Gwalior-trained musician.
1208. Pandit Shivkumar Sharma popularised which instrument in Hindustani classical music?
  1. A. Sarod
  2. B. Santoor
  3. C. Tabla
  4. D. Flute
Answer: Santoor
Explanation: The santoor is a hammered dulcimer from Jammu and Kashmir.
1209. Which musical instrument is associated with Ustad Bismillah Khan?
  1. A. Shehnai
  2. B. Sarod
  3. C. Sitar
  4. D. Santoor
Answer: Shehnai
Explanation: He received the Bharat Ratna in 2001.
1210. The Sangeet Natak Akademi recognises how many classical dance forms?
  1. A. Seven
  2. B. Six
  3. C. Eight
  4. D. Nine
Answer: Eight
Explanation: Bharatanatyam, Kathak, Kuchipudi, Odissi, Kathakali, Sattriya, Manipuri and Mohiniyattam.
1211. Sattriya dance, recognised as a classical dance in 2000, belongs to:
  1. A. Tripura
  2. B. Odisha
  3. C. Assam
  4. D. Manipur
Answer: Assam
Explanation: It was founded by Srimanta Sankardev in the 15th century and is the 8th classical form recognised by Sangeet Natak Akademi.
1212. Kuchipudi classical dance originated in a village of which State?
  1. A. Kerala
  2. B. Karnataka
  3. C. Telangana
  4. D. Andhra Pradesh
Answer: Andhra Pradesh
Explanation: Kuchipudi village in Krishna district; Siddhendra Yogi is credited with codifying it.

1213. Eutrophication of water bodies is caused by excess:

  1. A. Salt
  2. B. Oxygen
  3. C. Heavy metals
  4. D. Nutrients such as nitrates and phosphates
Answer: Nutrients such as nitrates and phosphates
Explanation: Algal blooms deplete dissolved oxygen.

1214. Acid rain is mainly caused by oxides of:

  1. A. Hydrogen
  2. B. Carbon only
  3. C. Sulphur and nitrogen
  4. D. Chlorine
Answer: Sulphur and nitrogen
Explanation: SO2 and NOx form sulphuric and nitric acids.
1215. Which gas is mainly responsible for the greenhouse effect on Earth, excluding water vapour, by quantity emitted?
  1. A. Carbon dioxide
  2. B. Methane
  3. C. Nitrous oxide
  4. D. Ozone
Answer: Carbon dioxide
Explanation: CO2 is the largest contributor by quantity.

1216. The Great Indian Bustard is chiefly found in:

  1. A. Assam
  2. B. Odisha
  3. C. Rajasthan (Desert National Park)
  4. D. Kerala
Answer: Rajasthan (Desert National Park)
Explanation: It is Critically Endangered.

1217. The Red Data Book is maintained by:

  1. A. IUCN
  2. B. WWF
  3. C. FAO
  4. D. UNEP
Answer: IUCN
Explanation: It lists threatened species; 'Critically Endangered' is a high-risk category.

1218. Mangrove forests are typical of which ecosystem?

  1. A. Alpine meadows
  2. B. Deserts
  3. C. Tundra
  4. D. Coastal intertidal zones
Answer: Coastal intertidal zones
Explanation: They have pneumatophores (breathing roots).

1219. Which biosphere reserve was India's first, designated in 1986?

  1. A. Nanda Devi
  2. B. Nilgiri
  3. C. Gulf of Mannar
  4. D. Sundarbans
Answer: Nilgiri
Explanation: Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve spans Tamil Nadu, Kerala and Karnataka.

1220. The Silent Valley National Park lies in:

  1. A. Kerala
  2. B. Goa
  3. C. Karnataka
  4. D. Tamil Nadu
Answer: Kerala
Explanation: Located in the Nilgiri hills; saved from a hydroelectric project in the 1980s.

1221. The Narmada Bachao Andolan opposed:

  1. A. Tehri dam
  2. B. Nagarjuna Sagar
  3. C. Silent Valley project
  4. D. Sardar Sarovar dam
Answer: Sardar Sarovar dam
Explanation: Led by Medha Patkar.
1222. India's Nationally Determined Contribution includes reaching net-zero emissions by:
  1. A. 2060
  2. B. 2070
  3. C. 2050
  4. D. 2080
Answer: 2070
Explanation: Announced at COP26 Glasgow in 2021.
1223. The Paris Agreement aims to limit global temperature rise to well below:
  1. A. 2 degrees Celsius above pre-industrial levels
  2. B. 1 degree
  3. C. 4 degrees
  4. D. 3 degrees
Answer: 2 degrees Celsius above pre-industrial levels
Explanation: It pursues efforts to limit the rise to 1.5 degrees Celsius.

1224. The Kyoto Protocol (1997) set binding targets for reducing:

  1. A. Greenhouse gas emissions by developed countries
  2. B. Hazardous wastes trade
  3. C. Plastic waste
  4. D. Ozone-depleting substances
Answer: Greenhouse gas emissions by developed countries
Explanation: It entered into force in 2005 under the UNFCCC.

1225. The Montreal Protocol (1987) aims to phase out:

  1. A. Ozone-depleting substances
  2. B. Persistent organic pollutants
  3. C. Greenhouse gases
  4. D. Mercury
Answer: Ozone-depleting substances
Explanation: CFCs and halons are the primary targets.
1226. Chilika Lake was India's first Ramsar site declared in 1981 along with:
  1. A. Keoladeo National Park
  2. B. Loktak Lake
  3. C. Sambhar Lake
  4. D. Wular Lake
Answer: Keoladeo National Park
Explanation: Both were India's first two Ramsar sites.
1227. Which Convention is concerned with the protection of wetlands of international importance?
  1. A. Bonn Convention
  2. B. Ramsar Convention
  3. C. Basel Convention
  4. D. CITES
Answer: Ramsar Convention
Explanation: Adopted in 1971 at Ramsar, Iran; India joined in 1982.

1228. The Gir forest in Gujarat is the only natural habitat of the:

  1. A. Cheetah
  2. B. Asiatic lion
  3. C. Leopard
  4. D. Bengal tiger
Answer: Asiatic lion
Explanation: Gir lions are listed as Endangered.

1229. Kaziranga National Park is famous for protecting the:

  1. A. One-horned rhinoceros
  2. B. Snow leopard
  3. C. Red panda
  4. D. Asiatic lion
Answer: One-horned rhinoceros
Explanation: It lies in Assam and is a UNESCO World Heritage Site.

1230. The National Green Tribunal was established in:

  1. A. 2010
  2. B. 2002
  3. C. 2014
  4. D. 2006
Answer: 2010
Explanation: NGT Act 2010; the principal bench is in New Delhi.

1231. Project Tiger was launched in 1973 first at:

  1. A. Kanha
  2. B. Bandipur
  3. C. Jim Corbett National Park
  4. D. Ranthambore
Answer: Jim Corbett National Park
Explanation: Nine tiger reserves were initially notified.

1232. The Environment (Protection) Act was passed after which tragedy?

  1. A. Latur earthquake
  2. B. Chernobyl
  3. C. Uphaar fire
  4. D. Bhopal Gas Tragedy
Answer: Bhopal Gas Tragedy
Explanation: The EPA 1986 followed the 1984 Bhopal disaster.

1233. The Wildlife (Protection) Act in India was enacted in:

  1. A. 1972
  2. B. 1991
  3. C. 1980
  4. D. 1986
Answer: 1972
Explanation: The 1972 Act has six Schedules; Schedule I gives the highest protection.

1234. Which type of radiation has the highest penetrating power?

  1. A. UV rays
  2. B. Gamma rays
  3. C. Alpha rays
  4. D. Beta rays
Answer: Gamma rays
Explanation: Alpha is stopped by paper, beta by aluminium, gamma needs lead.

1235. The escape velocity from Earth's surface is about:

  1. A. 11.2 km/s
  2. B. 7.9 km/s
  3. C. 15 km/s
  4. D. 9.8 km/s
Answer: 11.2 km/s
Explanation: 7.9 km/s is the orbital velocity near the surface.

1236. Which scientist proposed the three laws of planetary motion?

  1. A. Tycho Brahe
  2. B. Johannes Kepler
  3. C. Isaac Newton
  4. D. Galileo Galilei
Answer: Johannes Kepler
Explanation: Kepler's laws were derived from Tycho Brahe's observations.

1237. The first successful smallpox vaccine was developed by:

  1. A. Louis Pasteur
  2. B. Jonas Salk
  3. C. Robert Koch
  4. D. Edward Jenner
Answer: Edward Jenner
Explanation: Jenner used cowpox material in 1796.

1238. Penicillin was discovered by:

  1. A. Louis Pasteur
  2. B. Edward Jenner
  3. C. Robert Koch
  4. D. Alexander Fleming
Answer: Alexander Fleming
Explanation: Fleming discovered it in 1928 from Penicillium notatum.

1239. The study of fungi is called:

  1. A. Phycology
  2. B. Pteridology
  3. C. Mycology
  4. D. Virology
Answer: Mycology
Explanation: Phycology is the study of algae.

1240. Vitamin K is essential for:

  1. A. Bone hardening
  2. B. Nerve conduction
  3. C. Blood clotting
  4. D. Vision
Answer: Blood clotting
Explanation: It helps synthesis of prothrombin and other clotting factors.

1241. Which part of the brain controls balance and coordination?

  1. A. Cerebellum
  2. B. Medulla oblongata
  3. C. Hypothalamus
  4. D. Cerebrum
Answer: Cerebellum
Explanation: The cerebellum fine-tunes posture and movement.

1242. The total number of bones in an adult human body is:

  1. A. 206
  2. B. 198
  3. C. 212
  4. D. 300
Answer: 206
Explanation: A newborn has about 270-300 bones that fuse.
1243. The normal systolic/diastolic blood pressure of a healthy adult is about:
  1. A. 160/100 mm Hg
  2. B. 140/90 mm Hg
  3. C. 100/60 mm Hg
  4. D. 120/80 mm Hg
Answer: 120/80 mm Hg
Explanation: Measured by a sphygmomanometer.

1244. Which pigment gives red colour to blood?

  1. A. Melanin
  2. B. Chlorophyll
  3. C. Carotene
  4. D. Haemoglobin
Answer: Haemoglobin
Explanation: Haemoglobin contains iron.

1245. Photosynthesis takes place in which part of the chloroplast?

  1. A. Cristae
  2. B. Grana and stroma
  3. C. Nucleus
  4. D. Matrix
Answer: Grana and stroma
Explanation: Light reactions in grana, Calvin cycle in stroma.

1246. Kala-azar is caused by:

  1. A. Trypanosoma gambiense
  2. B. Giardia lamblia
  3. C. Plasmodium vivax
  4. D. Leishmania donovani
Answer: Leishmania donovani
Explanation: Spread by the sandfly.

1247. Which disease is caused by a virus?

  1. A. Tuberculosis
  2. B. Cholera
  3. C. Typhoid
  4. D. Dengue
Answer: Dengue
Explanation: Dengue is caused by a flavivirus spread by Aedes aegypti.

1248. Malaria is caused by a protozoan of the genus:

  1. A. Entamoeba
  2. B. Leishmania
  3. C. Trypanosoma
  4. D. Plasmodium
Answer: Plasmodium
Explanation: Transmitted by female Anopheles mosquito.

1249. The deficiency of iodine causes:

  1. A. Anaemia
  2. B. Rickets
  3. C. Scurvy
  4. D. Goitre
Answer: Goitre
Explanation: Iodine is needed for thyroxine production.

1250. Which hormone is called the 'fight or flight' hormone?

  1. A. Thyroxine
  2. B. Insulin
  3. C. Oxytocin
  4. D. Adrenaline
Answer: Adrenaline
Explanation: Adrenaline from the adrenal medulla raises heart rate and glucose.

1251. DNA fingerprinting was developed by:

  1. A. Watson and Crick
  2. B. Alec Jeffreys
  3. C. Kary Mullis
  4. D. Frederick Sanger
Answer: Alec Jeffreys
Explanation: Jeffreys developed it in 1984 at Leicester.

1252. Suicide bags of the cell are:

  1. A. Peroxisomes
  2. B. Vacuoles
  3. C. Lysosomes
  4. D. Centrioles
Answer: Lysosomes
Explanation: Lysosomes release digestive enzymes that can digest the cell itself.

1253. Which blood group is called the universal donor?

  1. A. B negative
  2. B. A positive
  3. C. AB positive
  4. D. O negative
Answer: O negative
Explanation: O negative red cells lack A, B and Rh antigens.

1254. The vitamin deficiency causing night blindness is of:

  1. A. Vitamin A
  2. B. Vitamin C
  3. C. Vitamin B1
  4. D. Vitamin D
Answer: Vitamin A
Explanation: Vitamin A is needed for rhodopsin synthesis.

1255. Bronze is an alloy of copper and:

  1. A. Nickel
  2. B. Lead
  3. C. Zinc
  4. D. Tin
Answer: Tin
Explanation: Brass is copper and zinc.

1256. The alloy used for making electrical heating coils is:

  1. A. Solder
  2. B. Bronze
  3. C. Nichrome
  4. D. Brass
Answer: Nichrome
Explanation: Nichrome (Ni-Cr) has high resistivity and melting point.
1257. Which gas is used in the manufacture of vanaspati ghee through hydrogenation?
  1. A. Nitrogen
  2. B. Carbon dioxide
  3. C. Oxygen
  4. D. Hydrogen
Answer: Hydrogen
Explanation: Vegetable oils are hydrogenated with a nickel catalyst.

1258. The pH of pure water at 25 degrees Celsius is:

  1. A. 7
  2. B. 5.6
  3. C. 14
  4. D. 1
Answer: 7
Explanation: Neutral water has equal H+ and OH- concentrations.

1259. Plaster of Paris is chemically:

  1. A. Calcium sulphate hemihydrate
  2. B. Calcium carbonate
  3. C. Calcium oxychloride
  4. D. Calcium sulphate dihydrate
Answer: Calcium sulphate hemihydrate
Explanation: CaSO4.1/2 H2O; gypsum is the dihydrate.

1260. Which element has the chemical symbol 'W'?

  1. A. Tungsten
  2. B. Tin
  3. C. Zinc
  4. D. Tellurium
Answer: Tungsten
Explanation: W comes from 'Wolfram'; its high melting point suits lamp filaments.

1261. The fuse wire is made of a material that has:

  1. A. High melting point
  2. B. Low melting point
  3. C. High resistivity only
  4. D. Magnetic property
Answer: Low melting point
Explanation: Typically a tin-lead alloy that melts when current exceeds the rating.

1262. Ultrasound frequencies are above:

  1. A. 2,000 Hz
  2. B. 20,000 Hz
  3. C. 20 Hz
  4. D. 200 Hz
Answer: 20,000 Hz
Explanation: Human audible range is 20 Hz to 20 kHz.

1263. The speed of sound is highest in:

  1. A. Vacuum
  2. B. Steel
  3. C. Water
  4. D. Air
Answer: Steel
Explanation: Sound travels fastest in solids, such as steel; it cannot travel in vacuum.

1264. The blue colour of the sky is due to:

  1. A. Dispersion by clouds
  2. B. Absorption of red light by ozone
  3. C. Rayleigh scattering
  4. D. Reflection from oceans
Answer: Rayleigh scattering
Explanation: Shorter blue wavelengths scatter more strongly (inverse fourth power of wavelength).

1265. The phenomenon responsible for the twinkling of stars is:

  1. A. Total internal reflection
  2. B. Atmospheric refraction
  3. C. Dispersion
  4. D. Diffraction
Answer: Atmospheric refraction
Explanation: Varying air density continuously changes apparent starlight path.
1266. The Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management (FRBM) Act was passed in:
  1. A. 2008
  2. B. 1999
  3. C. 2012
  4. D. 2003
Answer: 2003
Explanation: FRBM 2003 sought to reduce the fiscal deficit and eliminate revenue deficit.

1267. SEBI was granted statutory powers by the SEBI Act in:

  1. A. 1988
  2. B. 1995
  3. C. 2000
  4. D. 1992
Answer: 1992
Explanation: SEBI was set up in 1988 and given statutory status in 1992.

1268. The Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code was enacted in:

  1. A. 2013
  2. B. 2019
  3. C. 2016
  4. D. 2008
Answer: 2016
Explanation: IBC 2016 created the NCLT-led resolution process and the IBBI.

1269. The GST (Goods and Services Tax) came into effect on:

  1. A. 1 January 2018
  2. B. 1 July 2017
  3. C. 26 January 2017
  4. D. 1 April 2017
Answer: 1 July 2017
Explanation: The 101st Constitutional Amendment Act, 2016 enabled GST.

1270. The base year of the new GDP series introduced in 2015 was:

  1. A. 2004-05
  2. B. 2010-11
  3. C. 2014-15
  4. D. 2011-12
Answer: 2011-12
Explanation: The 2011-12 base year replaced 2004-05; GDP now uses market prices.
1271. The inflation target under the flexible inflation targeting framework in India is:
  1. A. 2% with +/-1%
  2. B. 5% with +/-3%
  3. C. 4% with a band of +/-2%
  4. D. 6% with +/-1%
Answer: 4% with a band of +/-2%
Explanation: CPI inflation of 4% with tolerance band 2-6%, in force since 2016.

1272. Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) of the RBI has how many members?

  1. A. Six
  2. B. Seven
  3. C. Nine
  4. D. Five
Answer: Six
Explanation: Three RBI officials (including the Governor) and three external members; Governor has a casting vote.
1273. The Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR) requires banks to maintain a portion of their deposits in the form of:
  1. A. Liquid assets such as cash, gold and government securities
  2. B. Cash with RBI only
  3. C. Foreign currency
  4. D. Real estate
Answer: Liquid assets such as cash, gold and government securities
Explanation: SLR is maintained with the bank itself; CRR is kept with the RBI.
1274. The Reserve Bank of India was established in 1935 on the recommendation of:
  1. A. Wood Commission
  2. B. Hilton Young Commission
  3. C. Sadler Commission
  4. D. Simon Commission
Answer: Hilton Young Commission
Explanation: The RBI began operations on 1 April 1935 and was nationalised on 1 January 1949.
1275. Bank nationalisation in India took place in 1969 (14 banks) under the Prime Ministership of:
  1. A. Indira Gandhi
  2. B. Jawaharlal Nehru
  3. C. Lal Bahadur Shastri
  4. D. Morarji Desai
Answer: Indira Gandhi
Explanation: Banks with deposits above Rs 50 crore were nationalised on 19 July 1969; six more in 1980.

1276. Operation Flood, the dairy development programme, was led by:

  1. A. Norman Borlaug
  2. B. Verghese Kurien
  3. C. B. P. Pal
  4. D. M. S. Swaminathan
Answer: Verghese Kurien
Explanation: Launched in 1970 by NDDB, it made India the world's largest milk producer.

1277. The Green Revolution in India was associated with the work of:

  1. A. Jagjivan Ram only
  2. B. Harish Chandra
  3. C. M. S. Swaminathan
  4. D. Verghese Kurien
Answer: M. S. Swaminathan
Explanation: Swaminathan, with Norman Borlaug's wheat varieties, led India's Green Revolution from the mid-1960s.
1278. Which Five-Year Plan was followed by 'Plan Holidays' from 1966-69?
  1. A. Fourth Plan
  2. B. Second Plan
  3. C. Fifth Plan
  4. D. Third Plan
Answer: Third Plan
Explanation: Three annual plans were implemented after the Third Plan failed amid wars and drought.

1279. The Harrod-Domar model formed the basis of which Five-Year Plan?

  1. A. Second Plan
  2. B. Fourth Plan
  3. C. First Plan
  4. D. Eighth Plan
Answer: First Plan
Explanation: The First Plan (1951-56) stressed agriculture, irrigation and power.
1280. The Mahalanobis model underpinned which Five-Year Plan, emphasising heavy industry?
  1. A. Second Plan
  2. B. Fifth Plan
  3. C. First Plan
  4. D. Third Plan
Answer: Second Plan
Explanation: The Second Plan (1956-61) prioritised capital goods and the public sector.

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