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1441. Photochemical smog primarily contains which secondary pollutant formed from NOx and hydrocarbons in sunlight?
- A. Carbon monoxide
- B. Sulphur dioxide
- C. Ozone and peroxyacetyl nitrate (PAN)
- D. Lead particulates
Answer: Ozone and peroxyacetyl nitrate (PAN)
Explanation: Los Angeles-type (oxidising) smog forms in warm sunny conditions, unlike London-type (reducing) smog from SO2 and soot in cold, humid weather.
1442. Which process in a nuclear reactor uses heavy water (D2O) as a moderator in India's PHWRs?
- A. To convert U-238 into Pu-239 only
- B. To absorb neutrons and stop fission
- C. To slow down fast neutrons so that fission chain reaction is sustained with natural uranium
- D. To directly generate electricity
Answer: To slow down fast neutrons so that fission chain reaction is sustained with natural uranium
Explanation: Heavy water moderates neutrons with little absorption, enabling natural uranium fuel. Control rods (cadmium/boron) absorb neutrons. India's three-stage programme was devised by Homi Bhabha, with thorium in stage three.
1443. The PSLV is a polar launch vehicle with how many stages and alternating propellants?
- A. Four stages: solid, liquid, solid, liquid
- B. Three stages: all solid
- C. Two stages: solid and cryogenic
- D. Four stages: all liquid
Answer: Four stages: solid, liquid, solid, liquid
Explanation: PSLV uses solid (S139), liquid Vikas (L40/L37.5), solid (HPS3) and liquid (PS4) stages. GSLV uses a cryogenic upper stage.
1444. Chandrayaan-3 made India the first country to soft-land near the lunar:
- A. Far side centre
- B. South polar region
- C. Equator
- D. North pole
Answer: South polar region
Explanation: The Vikram lander touched down on 23 August 2023 near about 69 degrees S; the spot was named Shiv Shakti Point. India became the fourth country to soft-land on the Moon.
1445. The Odissi dance tradition traces its lineage to the Mahari (devadasi) tradition of which temple?
- A. Sun Temple, Modhera
- B. Kailasa temple, Ellora
- C. Jagannath temple, Puri
- D. Meenakshi temple, Madurai
Answer: Jagannath temple, Puri
Explanation: Maharis were devadasis serving Jagannath; the later Gotipua boys' tradition also fed Odissi. Its tribhanga posture and chauka are distinctive.
1446. Which classical dance form of Kerala is performed by women solo and is characterised by 'Mudras' and white-and-gold kasavu costume?
- A. Sattriya
- B. Kathakali
- C. Kuchipudi
- D. Mohiniyattam
Answer: Mohiniyattam
Explanation: Mohiniyattam ('dance of the enchantress') is lasya-oriented; Kathakali is male-dominated dance-drama with elaborate make-up. Sattriya (Assam) got classical status in 2000.
1447. The Mughal miniature painting 'Hamzanama' was commissioned by which emperor?
- A. Humayun
- B. Shah Jahan
- C. Jahangir
- D. Akbar
Answer: Akbar
Explanation: The Hamzanama (c. 1562-77) was an ambitious project at Akbar's atelier headed by Mir Sayyid Ali and Abdus Samad, with about 1,400 large cloth-backed paintings.
1448. The Nagara, Dravida and Vesara are three styles of Indian temple architecture. Vesara is a hybrid style flourishing in:
- A. Bengal
- B. Kashmir
- C. Odisha
- D. Deccan/Karnataka (Chalukya and Hoysala temples)
Answer: Deccan/Karnataka (Chalukya and Hoysala temples)
Explanation: Vesara blends Nagara curvilinear shikhara and Dravida pyramidal vimana elements; examples are Hoysala temples at Belur, Halebidu and Somanathapura.
1449. Which Rajasthan folk song-and-dance tradition of the Kalbelia community was inscribed on the UNESCO Intangible Cultural Heritage list in 2010?
- A. Chhau
- B. Garba
- C. Ghoomar
- D. Kalbelia songs and dances
Answer: Kalbelia songs and dances
Explanation: Kalbelia was inscribed in 2010; Chhau in 2010 as well; Garba of Gujarat was inscribed in 2023. Ghoomar is not separately inscribed.
1450. Which Chola ruler built the Brihadisvara temple at Thanjavur, completed around 1010 CE?
- A. Rajendra I
- B. Parantaka I
- C. Kulottunga I
- D. Rajaraja I
Answer: Rajaraja I
Explanation: The Brihadisvara (Rajarajeshvaram) temple is a UNESCO World Heritage Site (Great Living Chola Temples) with a vimana about 66 m high; Rajendra I built Gangaikonda Cholapuram.
1451. Which treaty of 1802 made the Peshwa Baji Rao II accept British protection and effectively marked the collapse of Maratha independence?
- A. Treaty of Surji-Anjangaon
- B. Treaty of Salbai
- C. Treaty of Bassein
- D. Treaty of Purandar
Answer: Treaty of Bassein
Explanation: The Treaty of Bassein (31 Dec 1802) was a Subsidiary Alliance and led to the Second Anglo-Maratha War (1803-05). Salbai (1782) ended the First War.
1452. Which Mauryan text on statecraft was discovered and published by R. Shamasastry in 1909?
- A. Indica of Megasthenes
- B. Mudrarakshasa
- C. Arthashastra of Kautilya
- D. Rajatarangini
Answer: Arthashastra of Kautilya
Explanation: Shamasastry published the Arthashastra in 1909 from a palm-leaf manuscript; it has 15 books (adhikaranas) on administration, law, diplomacy and war.
1453. The Battle of Plassey (1757) was decisively influenced by the betrayal of Siraj-ud-Daulah by which commander?
- A. Mir Madan
- B. Mohan Lal
- C. Mir Jafar
- D. Mir Qasim
Answer: Mir Jafar
Explanation: Mir Jafar, commander of the Nawab's army, conspired with Robert Clive and was installed Nawab. Mir Qasim was installed later (1760) and was defeated at Buxar (1764).
1454. The Cabinet Mission (1946) plan proposed a Union of India with Centre having control over which three subjects?
- A. Foreign Affairs, Finance and Education
- B. Defence, Finance and Railways
- C. Defence, Taxation and Police
- D. Defence, Foreign Affairs and Communications
Answer: Defence, Foreign Affairs and Communications
Explanation: The plan grouped provinces into sections A, B and C, with residuary powers vested in the provinces, and provided for an interim government and Constituent Assembly elected by provincial assemblies.
1455. The Poona Pact (1932) between Gandhi and Ambedkar replaced separate electorates for the Depressed Classes with:
- A. Communal Award with 10% reservation
- B. Weightage in the Central Executive
- C. Reserved seats within general electorates (increased from 71 to 148 in provincial legislatures)
- D. Joint electorates with no reservation
Answer: Reserved seats within general electorates (increased from 71 to 148 in provincial legislatures)
Explanation: Following Gandhi's fast in Yerwada jail against Ramsay MacDonald's Communal Award (1932), reserved seats were raised from 71 to 148 in provincial legislatures and 18% in the Central Legislature.
1456. The Doctrine of Lapse, which led to annexation of Satara (1848), Jhansi (1853) and Nagpur (1854), was formulated by:
- A. Lord Hastings
- B. Lord Wellesley
- C. Lord Canning
- D. Lord Dalhousie
Answer: Lord Dalhousie
Explanation: Dalhousie (1848-56) denied adopted heirs the right to succeed in states under British paramountcy. Awadh was annexed separately (1856) on grounds of misgovernance.
1457. The Permanent Settlement (1793) in Bengal, introduced by Lord Cornwallis, made which class the proprietors responsible for fixed land revenue?
- A. Village headmen (mahalwari)
- B. Jagirdars with military service
- C. Zamindars
- D. Individual cultivators (ryots)
Answer: Zamindars
Explanation: Under the 1793 Regulation the zamindars became hereditary landowners paying a fixed revenue (about 10/11th of rent collected); defaulting led to sale of the estate under the Sunset Law.
1458. The Bretton Woods institutions established in 1944 are:
- A. UNCTAD and the World Bank
- B. IMF and the IBRD (World Bank)
- C. IMF and the Asian Development Bank
- D. WTO and IMF
Answer: IMF and the IBRD (World Bank)
Explanation: Founded at the Bretton Woods Conference (New Hampshire) for post-war monetary stability and reconstruction. The WTO replaced GATT in 1995.
1459. Which sector accounts for the largest share of India's workforce (PLFS data)?
- A. Agriculture and allied activities
- B. Manufacturing
- C. Construction
- D. Trade, hotels and restaurants
Answer: Agriculture and allied activities
Explanation: Agriculture employs over 45% of the workforce but contributes only about 15-18% of GVA, indicating disguised unemployment and low productivity.
1460. India's national income (GDP) series was rebased to the base year 2011-12 in 2015. Which new measure of output did the revised series adopt as the headline?
- A. Gross Value Added at constant 1993-94 prices
- B. Net National Product only
- C. GNP at factor cost
- D. GDP at market prices (instead of factor cost)
Answer: GDP at market prices (instead of factor cost)
Explanation: The 2015 revision made GDP at market prices the headline aggregate (GVA at basic prices as the sectoral measure), aligning with the UN System of National Accounts 2008.
1461. Which GST component applies to an inter-State supply of goods?
- A. IGST, levied and collected by the Centre and apportioned to the destination State
- B. Only CGST
- C. UTGST and Customs duty
- D. CGST plus SGST
Answer: IGST, levied and collected by the Centre and apportioned to the destination State
Explanation: Integrated GST is charged on inter-State supplies and imports; credit is settled so that the consuming State finally gets the SGST share (destination-based consumption tax).
1462. Under the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016, the adjudicating authority for corporate insolvency resolution is:
- A. National Company Law Tribunal (NCLT)
- B. Debt Recovery Tribunal
- C. SEBI
- D. High Court
Answer: National Company Law Tribunal (NCLT)
Explanation: NCLT handles companies/LLPs, while the Debt Recovery Tribunal handles individuals and partnership firms. The IBBI regulates insolvency professionals; the CIRP has a 180-day timeline extendable by 90 days (330 days in total including litigation).
1463. The Minimum Support Price (MSP) is announced on the recommendation of:
- A. Food Corporation of India
- B. Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices (CACP)
- C. NITI Aayog
- D. Reserve Bank of India
Answer: Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices (CACP)
Explanation: The CACP recommends MSPs for 22 mandated crops (plus FRP of sugarcane); the Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs approves them.
1464. The 'Green Revolution' in India (mid-1960s) was primarily associated with the adoption of:
- A. Zero-budget natural farming
- B. Genetically modified Bt cotton
- C. Cooperative dairy societies
- D. High-yielding variety wheat and rice seeds, fertilisers and irrigation
Answer: High-yielding variety wheat and rice seeds, fertilisers and irrigation
Explanation: Led by M.S. Swaminathan and Norman Borlaug's Mexican dwarf wheat varieties; it concentrated gains in Punjab, Haryana and western U.P.
1465. Which Article of the Constitution requires the President to constitute a Finance Commission every five years?
- A. Article 266
- B. Article 275
- C. Article 282
- D. Article 280
Answer: Article 280
Explanation: Art. 280 provides for the Finance Commission; Art. 275 covers grants-in-aid to States; Art. 266 the Consolidated Funds.
1466. The Fifteenth Finance Commission, chaired by N.K. Singh, recommended the States' share in the divisible pool of central taxes at:
- A. 41 per cent
- B. 42 per cent
- C. 50 per cent
- D. 40 per cent
Answer: 41 per cent
Explanation: The 14th FC had raised the share to 42%; the 15th set 41% for 2021-26, after adjusting 1% for the new Union Territories of Jammu & Kashmir and Ladakh.
1467. As per the FRBM framework, which of the following is the correct definition of 'Revenue deficit'?
- A. Fiscal deficit minus interest payments
- B. Total expenditure minus total receipts excluding borrowings
- C. Revenue expenditure minus revenue receipts
- D. Capital expenditure minus capital receipts
Answer: Revenue expenditure minus revenue receipts
Explanation: Revenue deficit = revenue expenditure - revenue receipts. Primary deficit = fiscal deficit - interest payments. Effective revenue deficit nets out grants for capital assets.
1468. Which of the following correctly describes 'Stagflation'?
- A. Falling prices with rising output
- B. Falling prices with falling output
- C. High growth with low inflation
- D. High inflation coexisting with high unemployment and stagnant growth
Answer: High inflation coexisting with high unemployment and stagnant growth
Explanation: Stagflation contradicts the simple Phillips-curve trade-off; the 1970s oil shocks are the classic example. Falling prices with falling output is deflation/depression.
1469. The Repo rate is the rate at which the RBI:
- A. Borrows from commercial banks
- B. Lends to the government on ways-and-means advances
- C. Pays interest on CRR balances
- D. Lends short-term funds to commercial banks against government securities
Answer: Lends short-term funds to commercial banks against government securities
Explanation: Repo is the policy rate for injecting liquidity under LAF. The Standing Deposit Facility (SDF) rate, now the floor of the corridor, is 25 bps below repo and the MSF rate is 25 bps above.
1470. In the context of climate finance, the 'Paris Agreement' (2015) set the goal of limiting global temperature rise to:
- A. Exactly 1 degree C
- B. 2.5 degrees C by 2100
- C. Well below 2 degrees C above pre-industrial levels, pursuing 1.5 degrees C
- D. Below 3 degrees C
Answer: Well below 2 degrees C above pre-industrial levels, pursuing 1.5 degrees C
Explanation: Parties submit Nationally Determined Contributions (NDCs) reviewed every five years. India's updated NDC (2022) targets 45% emissions-intensity cut by 2030 from 2005 and net zero by 2070.
1471. Project Tiger was launched in 1973 first in which reserve (among the first nine)?
- A. Periyar
- B. Kanha
- C. Jim Corbett National Park
- D. Ranthambore
Answer: Jim Corbett National Park
Explanation: Project Tiger was launched on 1 April 1973 at Jim Corbett (Uttarakhand). The National Tiger Conservation Authority became statutory through the 2006 amendment to the WPA.
1472. Under the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972, which Schedule gives the highest protection with the severest penalties?
- A. Schedule V
- B. Schedule III
- C. Schedule IV
- D. Schedule I (and Part II of Schedule II)
Answer: Schedule I (and Part II of Schedule II)
Explanation: Schedule V lists vermin (e.g. common crow, rats) that may be hunted. The 2022 Amendment rationalised schedules from six to four.
1473. The Kigali Amendment (2016) to the Montreal Protocol aims to phase down:
- A. Black carbon
- B. Hydrofluorocarbons (HFCs)
- C. Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs)
- D. Carbon dioxide
Answer: Hydrofluorocarbons (HFCs)
Explanation: HFCs do not harm the ozone layer but are potent greenhouse gases. The Kigali Amendment came into force on 1 January 2019; India committed to start phase-down in 2028 (80% cut by 2047).
1474. CITES (1973) regulates international trade in specimens of endangered species through Appendices. Species threatened with extinction that are or may be affected by trade are listed in:
- A. Appendix III
- B. Appendix I
- C. Appendix IV
- D. Appendix II
Answer: Appendix I
Explanation: Appendix I species face extinction and commercial trade is generally prohibited; Appendix II needs export permits to avoid over-exploitation; Appendix III is country-requested listing.
1475. The Ramsar Convention (1971) primarily concerns the conservation of:
- A. Migratory species of wild animals
- B. Ozone layer
- C. Wetlands of international importance, especially as waterfowl habitat
- D. Trade in endangered species
Answer: Wetlands of international importance, especially as waterfowl habitat
Explanation: Ramsar is a treaty adopted in Ramsar, Iran. The Montreux Record lists Ramsar sites under threat; India's Keoladeo and Loktak have been on it. CMS is Bonn, CITES is Washington.
1476. The Western Disturbances bring winter rainfall mainly to north-west India. They originate over the:
- A. Arabian Sea
- B. Bay of Bengal
- C. Mediterranean Sea region
- D. South China Sea
Answer: Mediterranean Sea region
Explanation: They are extratropical cyclones carried east by the subtropical westerly jet stream; this rain benefits the rabi wheat crop.
1477. The Tropic of Cancer passes through which of the following sets of States?
- A. Gujarat, Madhya Pradesh, Odisha, Jharkhand, West Bengal, Meghalaya, Tripura, Mizoram
- B. Rajasthan, Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, Jharkhand, West Bengal, Tripura, Mizoram, Manipur
- C. Gujarat, Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand, West Bengal, Tripura, Mizoram
- D. Gujarat, Maharashtra, Chhattisgarh, Odisha, West Bengal, Assam, Mizoram, Tripura
Answer: Gujarat, Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand, West Bengal, Tripura, Mizoram
Explanation: The Tropic of Cancer (23.5 N) crosses eight Indian States from west to east in that order.
1478. Which soil, rich in iron and aluminium and formed by intense leaching, is typical of heavy-rainfall regions of the Western Ghats and Meghalaya?
- A. Laterite soil
- B. Desert soil
- C. Alluvial soil
- D. Regur (black) soil
Answer: Laterite soil
Explanation: Laterite forms under alternate wet and dry conditions with heavy leaching of silica; it is suited to cashew, tea and coffee but poor in humus.
1479. The Hooghly river, on which Kolkata stands, is a distributary of which river?
- A. Mahanadi
- B. Damodar
- C. Ganga (via the Bhagirathi)
- D. Brahmaputra
Answer: Ganga (via the Bhagirathi)
Explanation: The Bhagirathi-Hooghly is the western distributary of the Ganga, taking off at Farakka (Farakka Barrage feeder canal) to keep Kolkata port navigable.
1480. The Supreme Court's 'rarest of rare' doctrine for death penalty was propounded in:
- A. Machhi Singh v. State of Punjab (1983)
- B. Jagmohan Singh v. State of U.P. (1973)
- C. Bachan Singh v. State of Punjab (1980)
- D. Mithu v. State of Punjab (1983)
Answer: Bachan Singh v. State of Punjab (1980)
Explanation: A Constitution Bench in Bachan Singh upheld the death penalty's validity but limited it to the rarest of rare cases; Machhi Singh later elaborated categories. Mithu struck down the mandatory death penalty (s.303 IPC).
1481. Which Article provides that a Bill for the formation of a new State or alteration of boundaries requires prior recommendation of the President and reference to the affected State Legislature, whose views are NOT binding?
- A. Article 368
- B. Article 2
- C. Article 4
- D. Article 3
Answer: Article 3
Explanation: Under Art. 3 the Bill needs the President's recommendation; the State Legislature's views are only ascertained, not binding. Such a law is not an amendment under Art. 368 (Art. 4).
1482. Which Article empowers Parliament to legislate on a State subject in the national interest if the Rajya Sabha passes a resolution by two-thirds of members present and voting?
- A. Article 252
- B. Article 249
- C. Article 250
- D. Article 253
Answer: Article 249
Explanation: Article 249 allows such a law for a year at a time (renewable); Art. 250 is during Emergency, Art. 252 by consent of States, Art. 253 for treaties.
1483. The Vishaka guidelines (1997) on sexual harassment at the workplace were framed by the Supreme Court by relying on:
- A. Article 23 and ILO Convention 111 only
- B. Articles 14, 15, 19(1)(g) and 21 read with CEDAW
- C. Only the Indian Penal Code
- D. Article 51A alone
Answer: Articles 14, 15, 19(1)(g) and 21 read with CEDAW
Explanation: In the absence of legislation the Court laid down binding guidelines; Parliament later enacted the Sexual Harassment of Women at Workplace (Prevention, Prohibition and Redressal) Act, 2013.
1484. Section 66A of the Information Technology Act, 2000 was struck down in 2015 in:
- A. Romesh Thappar v. State of Madras
- B. Shreya Singhal v. Union of India
- C. Bennett Coleman v. Union of India
- D. Anuradha Bhasin v. Union of India
Answer: Shreya Singhal v. Union of India
Explanation: The Court held s.66A (offensive messages online) violates Art. 19(1)(a) and is not saved by Art. 19(2) as it was vague and over-broad.
1485. In Justice K.S. Puttaswamy v. Union of India (2017), a nine-judge bench held that the right to privacy is:
- A. Intrinsic to Article 21 and Part III, overruling M.P. Sharma and Kharak Singh to that extent
- B. A Directive Principle under Article 38
- C. A statutory right under the Aadhaar Act only
- D. Available only against State action in criminal matters
Answer: Intrinsic to Article 21 and Part III, overruling M.P. Sharma and Kharak Singh to that extent
Explanation: The unanimous verdict declared privacy a fundamental right as part of life and personal liberty (Art. 21) and the freedoms in Part III, overruling the contrary dicta in M.P. Sharma (1954) and Kharak Singh (1962).
1486. Article 21A (Right to Education for ages 6-14) was inserted by which Amendment and made operational by which Act?
- A. 93rd Amendment (2005); RTE Act 2005
- B. 86th Amendment (2002); Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan Act 2001
- C. 42nd Amendment (1976); RTE Act 2009
- D. 86th Amendment (2002); RTE Act 2009
Answer: 86th Amendment (2002); RTE Act 2009
Explanation: The 86th Amendment (2002) added Art. 21A, amended Art. 45 and added Fundamental Duty 51A(k). The RTE Act came into force on 1 April 2010.
1487. In I.R. Coelho v. State of Tamil Nadu (2007), the Supreme Court held that laws placed in the Ninth Schedule:
- A. After 24 April 1973 are open to challenge if they violate the basic structure
- B. Can only be challenged on federalism grounds
- C. Are immune only if placed before 1951
- D. Are totally immune from judicial review
Answer: After 24 April 1973 are open to challenge if they violate the basic structure
Explanation: A 9-judge bench held that Article 31B protection does not extend to laws that damage the basic structure; the cut-off date is the Kesavananda judgment (24 April 1973).
1488. For impeachment of the President under Article 61, the resolution must be moved by at least what fraction of the House, with notice of how many days?
- A. One-third of members; 30 days' notice
- B. One-tenth of members; 7 days' notice
- C. One-half of members; 21 days' notice
- D. One-fourth of members; 14 days' notice
Answer: One-fourth of members; 14 days' notice
Explanation: The charge must be signed by one-fourth of the total members with 14 days' notice, and passed by two-thirds of the total membership of the originating House, then investigated and passed similarly by the other House.
1489. The Rajya Sabha must return a Money Bill passed by the Lok Sabha within how many days, failing which it is deemed passed?
- A. 14 days
- B. 6 weeks
- C. 21 days
- D. 30 days
Answer: 14 days
Explanation: Under Art. 109, the Rajya Sabha has 14 days from receipt to return the Money Bill with recommendations; the Lok Sabha may accept or reject them. Money Bill status is certified by the Speaker (Art. 110(3)).
1490. An Ordinance promulgated under Article 123 ceases to operate at the latest:
- A. Six weeks after Parliament reassembles, unless disapproved earlier
- B. Six months after promulgation
- C. Immediately when Parliament meets
- D. One year after promulgation
Answer: Six weeks after Parliament reassembles, unless disapproved earlier
Explanation: An ordinance must be laid before both Houses and lapses six weeks after reassembly or earlier if both Houses pass resolutions disapproving it. Maximum life is thus six months plus six weeks.
1491. Which case held that a Presidential Proclamation under Article 356 is subject to judicial review and that federalism is a basic feature?
- A. State of Rajasthan v. Union of India (1977)
- B. Shankari Prasad v. Union of India (1951)
- C. S.R. Bommai v. Union of India (1994)
- D. Golaknath v. State of Punjab (1967)
Answer: S.R. Bommai v. Union of India (1994)
Explanation: Bommai (9-judge bench) held secularism and federalism are basic structure, that majority must be tested on the floor of the House, and that Art. 356 is open to judicial review.
1492. In Kihoto Hollohan v. Zachillhu (1992), the Supreme Court:
- A. Upheld the Tenth Schedule but struck down para 7 barring court jurisdiction, for want of ratification by States
- B. Held anti-defection violates freedom of speech under Article 19(1)(a)
- C. Held the Speaker's decision is absolutely final and immune from review
- D. Struck down the entire Tenth Schedule
Answer: Upheld the Tenth Schedule but struck down para 7 barring court jurisdiction, for want of ratification by States
Explanation: The Court held para 7 required ratification under Art. 368(2) proviso since it affected courts' jurisdiction, so it was invalid; the Speaker acts as a tribunal whose decisions are subject to judicial review.
1493. The 91st Amendment (2003) strengthened the anti-defection law by:
- A. Omitting the exemption for a 'split' (one-third members) in the Tenth Schedule
- B. Removing the Speaker's role as decision-maker
- C. Extending the law to nominated members
- D. Raising the merger threshold to three-fourths
Answer: Omitting the exemption for a 'split' (one-third members) in the Tenth Schedule
Explanation: The 91st Amendment omitted para 3 (split) of the Tenth Schedule; only a merger of two-thirds of a party's legislators is protected. It also capped Councils of Ministers at 15% of House strength (Art. 75(1A), 164(1A)).
1494. Article 279A, establishing the GST Council, was inserted by which Constitutional Amendment?
- A. 101st Amendment Act, 2016
- B. 100th Amendment Act, 2015
- C. 102nd Amendment Act, 2018
- D. 99th Amendment Act, 2014
Answer: 101st Amendment Act, 2016
Explanation: The 101st Amendment (2016) inserted Art. 246A (concurrent power to tax goods and services), Art. 279A (GST Council) and omitted Art. 268A. The 102nd gave constitutional status to the NCBC.
1495. Which Articles were inserted by the 103rd Amendment (2019) to provide 10% reservation for economically weaker sections?
- A. Articles 46 and 335
- B. Articles 15(4) and 16(4)
- C. Articles 15(6) and 16(6)
- D. Articles 330A and 332A
Answer: Articles 15(6) and 16(6)
Explanation: The 103rd Amendment added Art. 15(6) (education, including private unaided institutions) and Art. 16(6) (public employment); the Supreme Court upheld it in Janhit Abhiyan v. Union of India (2022) by 3:2.
1496. Article 16(4A), permitting reservation in promotions for SC/STs, was inserted by which Amendment, overcoming the Indra Sawhney (1992) ruling?
- A. 81st Amendment, 2000
- B. 103rd Amendment, 2019
- C. 77th Amendment, 1995
- D. 93rd Amendment, 2005
Answer: 77th Amendment, 1995
Explanation: Indra Sawhney held reservation cannot apply to promotions and capped it at 50%. The 77th Amendment (1995) added Art. 16(4A). The 81st Amendment added Art. 16(4B) (carry-forward vacancies exempt from the 50% ceiling).
1497. The Chief Election Commissioner can be removed from office in the same manner as:
- A. The Attorney General
- B. The Comptroller and Auditor General's only by the Prime Minister's advice
- C. A Governor
- D. A Judge of the Supreme Court
Answer: A Judge of the Supreme Court
Explanation: Article 324(5) provides the CEC cannot be removed except in like manner and on like grounds as a Supreme Court Judge (address by both Houses with special majority). Other Election Commissioners can be removed only on the CEC's recommendation.
1498. Under Article 311(2), an inquiry before dismissing a civil servant is NOT required when the dismissal is:
- A. For failure in a departmental examination
- B. On the ground of conduct that led to his conviction on a criminal charge
- C. For habitual absence from duty of more than a month
- D. Where the officer has applied for voluntary retirement
Answer: On the ground of conduct that led to his conviction on a criminal charge
Explanation: Article 311(2) provisos exempt inquiry in three cases: conviction on a criminal charge, impracticability of holding an inquiry (reasons recorded), and State security as certified by the President/Governor.
1499. The Eleventh and Twelfth Schedules, added by the 73rd and 74th Amendments, list how many subjects respectively?
- A. 29 and 12
- B. 18 and 29
- C. 24 and 18
- D. 29 and 18
Answer: 29 and 18
Explanation: The Eleventh Schedule (Panchayats, Part IX) has 29 subjects; the Twelfth Schedule (Municipalities, Part IX-A) has 18.
1500. Which provisions did the Supreme Court strike down in Minerva Mills v. Union of India (1980)?
- A. Clauses (4) and (5) of Article 368 inserted by the 42nd Amendment
- B. Article 39(b) and (c)
- C. Clause (3) of Article 13
- D. Article 31C in its entirety
Answer: Clauses (4) and (5) of Article 368 inserted by the 42nd Amendment
Explanation: Clauses (4)-(5) barred judicial review of constitutional amendments and gave unlimited amending power; the Court held limited amending power is itself a basic feature. It also read harmony between Part III and Part IV as basic structure.
1501. In Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala (1973), the basic structure doctrine was upheld by what margin?
- A. 5:4 by a 9-judge bench
- B. 9:4 by a 13-judge bench
- C. 7:6 by a 13-judge bench
- D. 6:5 by an 11-judge bench
Answer: 7:6 by a 13-judge bench
Explanation: The largest ever bench (13 judges) held by a 7:6 majority that Parliament can amend the Constitution under Art. 368 but cannot destroy its basic structure.
1502. The 42nd Constitutional Amendment (1976) inserted which set of words into the Preamble?
- A. Socialist, Secular and Integrity
- B. Secular, Federal and Integrity
- C. Sovereign, Socialist and Fraternity
- D. Democratic, Secular and Unity
Answer: Socialist, Secular and Integrity
Explanation: The 42nd Amendment added 'Socialist', 'Secular' and 'Integrity' (in 'unity and integrity of the Nation'). It is the only amendment to alter the Preamble.
1503. Bhimbetka rock shelters are famous for:
- A. Mughal gardens
- B. Gupta sculpture
- C. Chola bronzes
- D. Prehistoric cave paintings
Answer: Prehistoric cave paintings
Explanation: In Raisen district, Madhya Pradesh; UNESCO site since 2003.
1504. The Bagh caves paintings are in:
- A. Karnataka
- B. Maharashtra
- C. Madhya Pradesh
- D. Odisha
Answer: Madhya Pradesh
Explanation: Dhar district; Buddhist murals of the Gupta period.
1505. Elephanta Caves are dedicated primarily to:
- A. Vishnu
- B. Buddha
- C. Shiva
- D. Mahavira
Answer: Shiva
Explanation: The Trimurti (Maheshamurti) sculpture is the highlight.
1506. Which is the oldest surviving Buddhist cave temple with chaitya halls in western India among these?
- A. Ellora Cave 10
- B. Bhaja caves
- C. Ajanta Cave 1
- D. Elephanta
Answer: Bhaja caves
Explanation: Bhaja (2nd century BCE) near Lonavala; Elephanta is Shaivite.
1507. The Carnatic music Trinity includes Tyagaraja, Muthuswami Dikshitar and:
- A. Syama Sastri
- B. Purandara Dasa
- C. Swati Tirunal
- D. Annamacharya
Answer: Syama Sastri
Explanation: All three were contemporaries from Thiruvarur.
1508. The Sitar is credited to innovation by:
- A. Tansen
- B. Haridas
- C. Bhatkhande
- D. Amir Khusro
Answer: Amir Khusro
Explanation: Khusrau is also credited with qawwali and tabla innovation by tradition.
1509. Who was the founder of Dhrupad's modern school in the Mughal court, one of Akbar's Navratnas?
- A. Amir Khusro
- B. Haridas
- C. Tansen
- D. Baiju
Answer: Tansen
Explanation: Tansen's original name was Ramtanu Pande; he composed raga Miyan ki Malhar.
1510. The 'Raslila' tradition is associated with which classical dance?
- A. Mohiniyattam
- B. Manipuri
- C. Odissi
- D. Kuchipudi
Answer: Manipuri
Explanation: Manipuri expresses Vaishnava themes of Radha-Krishna.
1511. Which dance form uses 'Tribhanga' posture prominently?
- A. Kathakali
- B. Odissi
- C. Kathak
- D. Bharatanatyam
Answer: Odissi
Explanation: Odissi originated in Odisha; Jayadeva's Gita Govinda is a major text.
1512. Which Indian classical dance is performed with 'Mudras' and originated from Tamil Nadu's temples as 'Sadir'?
- A. Manipuri
- B. Odissi
- C. Kathak
- D. Bharatanatyam
Answer: Bharatanatyam
Explanation: Revived by E. Krishna Iyer and Rukmini Devi Arundale.
1513. The Charminar in Hyderabad was built by:
- A. Asaf Jah I
- B. Muhammad Quli Qutb Shah
- C. Abul Hasan Tana Shah
- D. Ibrahim Qutb Shah
Answer: Muhammad Quli Qutb Shah
Explanation: Built in 1591 to commemorate the end of a plague epidemic.
1514. Gol Gumbaz at Bijapur, famed for its whispering gallery, is the tomb of:
- A. Ibrahim Adil Shah II
- B. Yusuf Adil Shah
- C. Ali Adil Shah
- D. Muhammad Adil Shah
Answer: Muhammad Adil Shah
Explanation: One of the largest domes in the world without pillar support.
1515. Which tomb is called the 'Poor Man's Taj'?
- A. Safdarjung's Tomb
- B. Itmad-ud-Daulah
- C. Gol Gumbaz
- D. Bibi Ka Maqbara, Aurangabad
Answer: Bibi Ka Maqbara, Aurangabad
Explanation: Built by Azam Shah in memory of his mother Dilras Banu Begum.
1516. The tomb of Humayun in Delhi, a precursor of the Taj Mahal, was designed by:
- A. Ustad Isa
- B. Abdul Karim
- C. Mirak Mirza Ghiyas
- D. Ahmad Lahori
Answer: Mirak Mirza Ghiyas
Explanation: Commissioned by Hamida Banu Begum (c. 1565-72).
1517. The Hawa Mahal in Jaipur was built by:
- A. Sawai Jai Singh II
- B. Man Singh I
- C. Sawai Pratap Singh
- D. Bhim Singh
Answer: Sawai Pratap Singh
Explanation: Designed by Lal Chand Ustad in 1799; Jantar Mantar was built by Jai Singh II.
1518. The Nagara, Dravida and Vesara are:
- A. Schools of painting
- B. Styles of temple architecture
- C. Dance forms
- D. Ragas
Answer: Styles of temple architecture
Explanation: Vesara is the hybrid Deccan style, seen under Chalukyas and Hoysalas.
1519. The 'Vimana' in South Indian temple architecture refers to:
- A. Gateway tower
- B. Temple tank
- C. Tower over the sanctum
- D. Mandapa pillars
Answer: Tower over the sanctum
Explanation: Gopuram is the gateway tower; Shikhara is the northern equivalent.
1520. The Gommateshwara (Bahubali) statue is at:
- A. Ranakpur
- B. Mount Abu
- C. Shravanabelagola
- D. Ellora
Answer: Shravanabelagola
Explanation: Commissioned by Chamundaraya, minister of the Ganga king Rachamalla; Mahamastakabhisheka held every 12 years.
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