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1361. 14 September is observed as Hindi Diwas because on that date in 1949 the Constituent Assembly did what?
  1. A. Added Sindhi to the Eighth Schedule
  2. B. Adopted Hindi in Devanagari script as the official language of the Union
  3. C. Passed the Official Languages Act
  4. D. Created the Department of Official Language
Answer: Adopted Hindi in Devanagari script as the official language of the Union
Explanation: The Constituent Assembly adopted Hindi as the official language on 14 September 1949; the first Hindi Diwas was observed on 14 September 1953.
1362. As per Census 2011, which language had the second-largest number of mother-tongue speakers in India after Hindi?
  1. A. Tamil
  2. B. Bengali
  3. C. Telugu
  4. D. Marathi
Answer: Bengali
Explanation: Hindi (about 52.8 crore, 43.63 percent) was followed by Bengali (about 9.7 crore, 8.03 percent), then Marathi, Telugu and Tamil.
1363. Which pair of languages were granted Classical Language status in 2008?
  1. A. Telugu and Kannada
  2. B. Pali and Prakrit
  3. C. Malayalam and Odia
  4. D. Marathi and Assamese
Answer: Telugu and Kannada
Explanation: Telugu and Kannada were declared classical in 2008; Malayalam (2013) and Odia (2014) followed.
1364. In which year did Tamil become the first language declared a 'Classical Language' of India?
  1. A. 2004
  2. B. 2000
  3. C. 2013
  4. D. 2008
Answer: 2004
Explanation: Tamil was declared classical in October 2004; Sanskrit followed in 2005, Telugu and Kannada in 2008, Malayalam in 2013 and Odia in 2014.
1365. Which Eighth Schedule language is the official language of the State of Goa?
  1. A. Konkani
  2. B. Gujarati
  3. C. Marathi
  4. D. Kannada
Answer: Konkani
Explanation: The Goa, Daman and Diu Official Language Act, 1987 made Konkani in Devanagari the official language, with Marathi permitted for specified purposes.
1366. Meitei Mayek is the traditional script of which Eighth Schedule language?
  1. A. Nepali
  2. B. Bodo
  3. C. Konkani
  4. D. Manipuri (Meiteilon)
Answer: Manipuri (Meiteilon)
Explanation: Manipuri/Meiteilon, official language of Manipur, uses Meitei Mayek (revived) alongside the Bengali script.
1367. Which Eighth Schedule language is written in the Ol Chiki script devised by Pandit Raghunath Murmu?
  1. A. Dogri
  2. B. Santhali
  3. C. Maithili
  4. D. Bodo
Answer: Santhali
Explanation: Santhali is written in Ol Chiki, created in 1925 by Pandit Raghunath Murmu; the others are generally written in Devanagari.
1368. Which of the following languages is included in the Eighth Schedule?
  1. A. Rajasthani
  2. B. Dogri
  3. C. Tulu
  4. D. Bhojpuri
Answer: Dogri
Explanation: Dogri was included in 2003; Bhojpuri, Tulu and Rajasthani, despite long-standing demands, are not in the Eighth Schedule.
1369. The Ninety-sixth Amendment Act, 2011 made which change in the Eighth Schedule?
  1. A. Added English
  2. B. Removed Sanskrit
  3. C. Added Tulu
  4. D. Substituted 'Odia' for 'Oriya'
Answer: Substituted 'Odia' for 'Oriya'
Explanation: The 96th Amendment only changed the spelling/name from Oriya to Odia in the Eighth Schedule; no language was added or removed.
1370. Which set of languages was added to the Eighth Schedule by the Ninety-second Amendment, 2003?
  1. A. Tulu, Bhojpuri, Rajasthani and Garo
  2. B. Konkani, Manipuri and Nepali
  3. C. Bodo, Dogri, Maithili and Santhali
  4. D. Sindhi and Konkani
Answer: Bodo, Dogri, Maithili and Santhali
Explanation: The 92nd Amendment, effective 2004, added Bodo, Dogri, Maithili and Santhali, bringing the Schedule to 22 languages.
1371. Which Constitutional Amendment added Sindhi to the Eighth Schedule?
  1. A. Twenty-first Amendment, 1967
  2. B. Seventh Amendment, 1956
  3. C. Ninety-second Amendment, 2003
  4. D. Seventy-first Amendment, 1992
Answer: Twenty-first Amendment, 1967
Explanation: The 21st Amendment (1967) made Sindhi the 15th language of the Schedule, in recognition of the large Sindhi-speaking population after Partition.
1372. How many languages did the Eighth Schedule contain when the Constitution came into force in 1950?
  1. A. 18
  2. B. 22
  3. C. 15
  4. D. 14
Answer: 14
Explanation: The original Eighth Schedule listed 14 languages; Sindhi (1967), Konkani, Manipuri, Nepali (1992) and Bodo, Dogri, Maithili, Santhali (2003) later raised it to 22.
1373. Under Rule 7, may an employee of the Central Government submit an application or appeal in Hindi?
  1. A. Yes; it may be in Hindi or English and the employee cannot be required to supply a translation
  2. B. Only after passing Praveen
  3. C. No, only in English
  4. D. Only if the office is Region A
Answer: Yes; it may be in Hindi or English and the employee cannot be required to supply a translation
Explanation: Rule 7 permits an employee to submit applications, appeals or representations in Hindi or English, and he cannot be asked to furnish a translation.
1374. Under the Official Language Rules, 1976, how many Regions are the States and Union Territories divided into for correspondence purposes?
  1. A. Two: Hindi and non-Hindi
  2. B. Four: A, B, C and D
  3. C. Five zones
  4. D. Three: Region A, B and C
Answer: Three: Region A, B and C
Explanation: The Rules divide States and UTs into Region A (Hindi-speaking), Region B (Gujarat, Maharashtra, Punjab and certain UTs) and Region C (all others).
1375. A Region C Central Government office receives a letter in Hindi from an individual in Maharashtra. Which of the following replies is correct?
  1. A. The reply should be in English without translation
  2. B. The reply should be in Marathi
  3. C. No reply is needed
  4. D. The reply should be in Hindi
Answer: The reply should be in Hindi
Explanation: Rule 5 applies universally: a letter in Hindi must be answered in Hindi, regardless of which Region the receiving or sending office belongs to.
1376. Which of the following correctly describes the position of English after 26 January 1965 under the Official Languages Act?
  1. A. It was abolished for Parliament but kept for courts
  2. B. It was kept only for correspondence with foreign countries
  3. C. It may continue to be used for all official purposes of the Union for which it was used before and in Parliament
  4. D. It was replaced by Sanskrit
Answer: It may continue to be used for all official purposes of the Union for which it was used before and in Parliament
Explanation: Section 3(1) allows English to continue for all official purposes of the Union for which it was used before 26 January 1965 and for Parliamentary business.
1377. The Official Languages Act, 1963 came into force in respect of Section 3 on which date?
  1. A. 26 January 1965
  2. B. 26 January 1963
  3. C. 15 August 1963
  4. D. 14 September 1965
Answer: 26 January 1965
Explanation: Section 3 operates from 26 January 1965, the day after the fifteen-year period of Article 343(2) ended, when Hindi became the principal official language with English continuing as associate.
1378. The Parliamentary Committee that examined the Kher Commission's report in 1957 was chaired by whom?
  1. A. Lal Bahadur Shastri
  2. B. Govind Ballabh Pant
  3. C. Morarji Desai
  4. D. Jawaharlal Nehru
Answer: Govind Ballabh Pant
Explanation: The thirty-member Committee under Article 344(4) was chaired by Pandit Govind Ballabh Pant; its report led to the 1960 Presidential Order.
1379. The Government of India's Official Language Commission of 1955 was chaired by whom?
  1. A. Rajendra Prasad
  2. B. Kaka Kalelkar
  3. C. B. G. Kher
  4. D. Govind Ballabh Pant
Answer: B. G. Kher
Explanation: The Commission appointed in June 1955 under Article 344(1) was chaired by B.G. Kher and submitted its report in 1956; the Pant Committee examined it in 1957.
1380. The Official Language Resolution of 1968 contains a recommendation that Hindi-speaking areas adopt which linguistic measure?
  1. A. Compulsory study of Sanskrit alone
  2. B. Abolition of the three-language formula
  3. C. Study of a modern Indian language, preferably a South Indian language, besides Hindi and English
  4. D. Replacement of English by Hindi in all schools
Answer: Study of a modern Indian language, preferably a South Indian language, besides Hindi and English
Explanation: The 1968 Resolution endorsed the three-language formula, urging Hindi-speaking States to teach a modern Indian language, preferably a South Indian one, alongside Hindi and English.
1381. The Official Languages (Amendment) Act, 1967 principally altered which provision to give effect to the assurances given by Jawaharlal Nehru?
  1. A. Section 4
  2. B. Section 3
  3. C. Section 7
  4. D. Section 8
Answer: Section 3
Explanation: The 1967 amendment recast Section 3, making bilingualism compulsory for specified documents and tying the discontinuance of English to the consent of non-Hindi States.
1382. Under Section 4 of the Act, what is the Parliamentary Committee on Official Language required to do with its report?
  1. A. Publish it directly in the Gazette without the President
  2. B. Forward it only to the Home Secretary
  3. C. Present it to the President, who causes it to be laid before each House and sent to State Governments
  4. D. Present it to the Supreme Court
Answer: Present it to the President, who causes it to be laid before each House and sent to State Governments
Explanation: Under Section 4, the Committee presents its report to the President, who has it laid before each House of Parliament and sent to all State Governments.
1383. The Parliamentary Committee on Official Language under Section 4 was to be constituted after what period from the commencement of the Act?
  1. A. Fifteen years
  2. B. Five years
  3. C. Ten years
  4. D. Twenty years
Answer: Ten years
Explanation: Section 4(1) provided for the Committee as soon as may be after the expiry of ten years from the Act's commencement; it was constituted in 1976.
1384. An officer signs an order covered by Section 3(3) that is issued only in English. On whom does Rule 12(1) place the responsibility for this lapse?
  1. A. The nearest Hindi Salahkar Samiti member
  2. B. The Chief Justice of the State
  3. C. The person who signs the document
  4. D. The recipient of the document
Answer: The person who signs the document
Explanation: Rule 12(1) makes the person signing a Section 3(3) document responsible for ensuring it is issued in both Hindi and English.
1385. Who is responsible, under Rule 12(2) of the 1976 Rules, for ensuring compliance with the Act and Rules in a Central Government office?
  1. A. The Department of Official Language alone
  2. B. Only the Hindi Officer
  3. C. Only the Parliamentary Committee
  4. D. The administrative head of the office, who must devise suitable check-points
Answer: The administrative head of the office, who must devise suitable check-points
Explanation: Rule 12(2) makes the administrative head of each Central Government office responsible for compliance and requires him to devise suitable check-points.
1386. Which Rule of the 1976 Rules requires manuals, codes and other procedural literature of the Central Government to be printed bilingually?
  1. A. Rule 7
  2. B. Rule 5
  3. C. Rule 11
  4. D. Rule 3
Answer: Rule 11
Explanation: Rule 11 requires manuals, codes and other procedural literature, forms of registers and nameplates and letterheads to be in Hindi and English.
1387. When 80 per cent of the staff of a Central Government office have acquired working knowledge of Hindi, what does Rule 10(4) require?
  1. A. The office is closed for training
  2. B. The office is converted into a Region A office
  3. C. Its name is notified in the Official Gazette
  4. D. All English correspondence is banned
Answer: Its name is notified in the Official Gazette
Explanation: Under Rule 10(4), the head of office on reaching 80 percent working knowledge notifies the office in the Gazette.
1388. A letter in Hindi reaches an RPF zonal office from a citizen in Kerala. As per Rule 5, how must the office reply?
  1. A. In the language chosen by the Divisional head
  2. B. In English with a Hindi copy
  3. C. In Hindi
  4. D. In Malayalam
Answer: In Hindi
Explanation: Rule 5 requires that letters received in Hindi be replied to in Hindi, irrespective of the Region of the sender.
1389. The Official Language (Use for Official Purposes of the Union) Rules, 1976 extend to the whole of India except which State?
  1. A. Kerala
  2. B. Karnataka
  3. C. West Bengal
  4. D. Tamil Nadu
Answer: Tamil Nadu
Explanation: Rule 1(2) says the Rules extend to the whole of India except the State of Tamil Nadu.
1390. A High Court judge delivers a judgment in Hindi with the President's consent under Section 7 of the Official Languages Act. What additional requirement attaches to that judgment?
  1. A. It must be countersigned by the Chief Justice of India
  2. B. It must be approved by the State Legislature
  3. C. No further requirement exists
  4. D. It must be accompanied by an English translation issued under the authority of the court
Answer: It must be accompanied by an English translation issued under the authority of the court
Explanation: Section 7 allows, with the President's previous consent, Hindi or the State's official language for judgments, decrees or orders of the High Court, with an English translation issued under the court's authority.
1391. Section 6 of the Official Languages Act, 1963 relates to State enactments. What does it provide?
  1. A. State Acts must be enacted in English only
  2. B. All State Acts must be repealed if not in Hindi
  3. C. Where a State Act is in a language other than Hindi, a Hindi translation may be published in the State Official Gazette and treated as authoritative Hindi text
  4. D. Hindi translation is the sole valid text of State Acts
Answer: Where a State Act is in a language other than Hindi, a Hindi translation may be published in the State Official Gazette and treated as authoritative Hindi text
Explanation: Section 6 lets the Hindi translation of a State law published in the State's Official Gazette under the Governor's authority be deemed the authoritative Hindi text.
1392. Under Section 3(5) of the Official Languages Act, English continues in the Union-State communication context until which condition is fulfilled?
  1. A. All non-Hindi States' Legislatures pass resolutions for discontinuance and each House of Parliament then passes a resolution
  2. B. The Supreme Court directs discontinuance
  3. C. Fifty years elapse from 1965
  4. D. The Union Cabinet passes a resolution
Answer: All non-Hindi States' Legislatures pass resolutions for discontinuance and each House of Parliament then passes a resolution
Explanation: The 1967 amendment to Section 3(5) embodies the assurance that English continues until the Legislatures of all non-Hindi States resolve for its discontinuance and both Houses of Parliament concur.
1393. Which of these documents is covered by the mandatory-bilingual requirement of Section 3(3)?
  1. A. A private letter from a staff member to his family
  2. B. A press communique issued by a Central Government department
  3. C. A handwritten internal file note between two clerks
  4. D. An unpublished draft of a lecture
Answer: A press communique issued by a Central Government department
Explanation: Section 3(3) lists resolutions, general orders, rules, notifications, administrative reports and press communiques; internal file notings are governed by the Rules, not by this compulsion.
1394. An RPF circle office issues a tender notice for hiring vehicles. Under Section 3(3) of the Official Languages Act, 1963 (as amended in 1967), in what form must the notice be issued?
  1. A. In the regional language of the State of issue
  2. B. Hindi only
  3. C. English only
  4. D. Both Hindi and English
Answer: Both Hindi and English
Explanation: Section 3(3) makes both languages compulsory for, among other things, contracts, agreements, licences, permits, notices and forms of tender issued by or on behalf of the Central Government or its corporations.
1395. The States Reorganisation Commission's recommendations on linguistic minorities' safeguards were given constitutional shape by which two Articles inserted in 1956?
  1. A. Articles 344 and 345
  2. B. Articles 29 and 30
  3. C. Articles 350A and 350B
  4. D. Articles 347 and 348
Answer: Articles 350A and 350B
Explanation: The Seventh Amendment added Articles 350A (mother-tongue instruction at primary stage) and 350B (Special Officer for linguistic minorities).
1396. By what time was Parliament's power under Article 120(2) to continue English in its business to be reviewed, and what did the clause say?
  1. A. After fifteen years from commencement English ceases unless Parliament by law provides otherwise
  2. B. After ten years English is automatically replaced by Sanskrit
  3. C. After twenty-five years both languages cease
  4. D. After five years the Speaker decides the language
Answer: After fifteen years from commencement English ceases unless Parliament by law provides otherwise
Explanation: Article 120(2) says that after fifteen years from commencement, the words 'or in English' in clause (1) cease to have effect unless Parliament by law provides otherwise.
1397. For an inspector preparing a lecture: which Article lays down that the authoritative text of all Bills, Acts and Ordinances shall be in English until Parliament provides otherwise?
  1. A. Article 348(1)(b)
  2. B. Article 343(2)
  3. C. Article 347
  4. D. Article 346
Answer: Article 348(1)(b)
Explanation: Article 348(1)(b) makes English the language of authoritative texts of all Bills, amendments, Acts, Ordinances, orders, rules, regulations and bye-laws; Section 5 of the 1963 Act provides the Hindi authoritative text.
1398. Which of the following is NOT a matter on which the Official Language Commission is directed to make recommendations under Article 344(2)?
  1. A. Number of Eighth Schedule languages to be added
  2. B. Progressive use of Hindi for the official purposes of the Union
  3. C. Restrictions on the use of English for Union official purposes
  4. D. The form of numerals for Union official purposes
Answer: Number of Eighth Schedule languages to be added
Explanation: Article 344(2) lists Hindi's progressive use, restrictions on English, languages for Article 348, numerals and other specified matters; adding languages to the Eighth Schedule is not among them.
1399. Which two Constitutional provisions expressly link the Eighth Schedule to the development of Hindi and the work of the Official Language Commission?
  1. A. Article 344(1) and Article 351
  2. B. Article 343 and Article 345
  3. C. Article 120 and Article 210
  4. D. Article 348 and Article 349
Answer: Article 344(1) and Article 351
Explanation: Articles 344(1) and 351 are the two that refer to the Eighth Schedule; 344(1) concerns the Commission's constitution, 351 the assimilation of Eighth Schedule languages into Hindi.
1400. Under Article 345, which language continues to be used for State official purposes until the State Legislature adopts its own official language(s)?
  1. A. Hindi mandatorily
  2. B. The language(s) already in use for those purposes immediately before the Constitution's commencement
  3. C. The language specified by the Governor by notification
  4. D. English only
Answer: The language(s) already in use for those purposes immediately before the Constitution's commencement
Explanation: The proviso-like rule of Article 345 keeps the languages used immediately before 26 January 1950 until the State Legislature adopts one or more State languages or Hindi by law.
1401. Which Article gives any section of citizens having a distinct language, script or culture the right to conserve it?
  1. A. Article 25(1)
  2. B. Article 350A
  3. C. Article 29(1)
  4. D. Article 30(2)
Answer: Article 29(1)
Explanation: Article 29(1), a fundamental right, protects the interests of minorities by letting any section of citizens with a distinct language, script or culture conserve it.
1402. Which Constitution Amendment inserted Article 394A, making the Hindi translation of the Constitution authoritative?
  1. A. Forty-second Amendment, 1976
  2. B. Sixty-first Amendment, 1989
  3. C. Seventy-first Amendment, 1992
  4. D. Fifty-eighth Amendment, 1987
Answer: Fifty-eighth Amendment, 1987
Explanation: The 58th Amendment (1987) inserted Article 394A, authorising the President to publish a Hindi translation under his authority, deemed the authoritative Hindi text.
1403. Which Article is the State-legislature counterpart of Article 120, prescribing the language of business in the State Legislature?
  1. A. Article 210
  2. B. Article 345
  3. C. Article 208
  4. D. Article 348
Answer: Article 210
Explanation: Article 210 provides that business in a State Legislature is transacted in the State's official language(s) or Hindi or English, with the Speaker permitting mother-tongue speech where needed.
1404. A Member of Parliament who cannot adequately express himself in Hindi or English wishes to speak in his mother tongue. Who may permit this under Article 120(1)?
  1. A. The Prime Minister
  2. B. The Chairman of the Council of States or the Speaker of the House of the People, as the case may be
  3. C. The Leader of the House
  4. D. The Secretary-General of the House
Answer: The Chairman of the Council of States or the Speaker of the House of the People, as the case may be
Explanation: The proviso to Article 120(1) allows the presiding officer to permit a member who cannot adequately express himself in Hindi or English to address the House in his mother tongue.
1405. Article 351 directs the Union to promote the spread of Hindi so that it may serve as a medium of expression for all elements of the composite culture of India. Which source does it name as primary for vocabulary?
  1. A. Sanskrit
  2. B. Persian
  3. C. English
  4. D. Urdu
Answer: Sanskrit
Explanation: Article 351 says Hindi should draw its vocabulary primarily from Sanskrit and secondarily from other languages, while assimilating Hindustani and Eighth Schedule languages' forms, style and expressions.
1406. To whom does the Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities under Article 350B report, and who then lays the report before Parliament?
  1. A. Reports to the Chief Justice, who publishes it
  2. B. Reports to the Speaker, who tables it in Lok Sabha only
  3. C. Reports to the President, who causes it to be laid before each House of Parliament
  4. D. Reports to the Home Secretary, who forwards it to States
Answer: Reports to the President, who causes it to be laid before each House of Parliament
Explanation: Under Article 350B the Special Officer is appointed by the President, investigates safeguards for linguistic minorities and reports to the President, who has the reports laid before each House and sent to the State Governments.
1407. Article 350A, directing every State to provide instruction in the mother tongue at the primary stage to linguistic minority children, was inserted by which Amendment?
  1. A. Constitution (Fifty-eighth Amendment) Act, 1987
  2. B. Constitution (Fourth Amendment) Act, 1955
  3. C. Constitution (Seventh Amendment) Act, 1956
  4. D. Constitution (Twenty-first Amendment) Act, 1967
Answer: Constitution (Seventh Amendment) Act, 1956
Explanation: The Seventh Amendment (1956), implementing States Reorganisation Commission suggestions, added Articles 350A and 350B.
1408. A railway employee's grievance petition is written in a language used in the State, not Hindi or English. Which Article protects his right to submit it?
  1. A. Article 120
  2. B. Article 350
  3. C. Article 343
  4. D. Article 394A
Answer: Article 350
Explanation: Article 350 entitles every person to submit a representation for redress of grievance to any Union or State officer or authority in any language used in the Union or the State.
1409. Which Article bars introduction of a Bill on the Article 348(1) language matters in Parliament during the first fifteen years without the President's previous sanction?
  1. A. Article 345
  2. B. Article 350B
  3. C. Article 351
  4. D. Article 349
Answer: Article 349
Explanation: Article 349 lays down a special procedure: previous sanction of the President, who must first consider the Official Language Commission's report and the Parliamentary Committee's report.
1410. A State Legislature enacts a law in its own language. Under Article 348(3), what is the status of the English translation published in the State's Official Gazette?
  1. A. It is deemed the authoritative text in the English language
  2. B. It is valid only after Parliament ratifies it
  3. C. It has no legal standing
  4. D. It is valid only for the Supreme Court's reference
Answer: It is deemed the authoritative text in the English language
Explanation: Article 348(3) deems the translation published under the authority of the Governor in the Official Gazette to be the authoritative English text where the State uses a language other than English or Hindi.
1411. Until Parliament provides otherwise by law, in which language must all proceedings in the Supreme Court and in every High Court be conducted under Article 348(1)(a)?
  1. A. English
  2. B. Hindi
  3. C. Sanskrit
  4. D. The language of the State concerned
Answer: English
Explanation: Article 348(1)(a) fixes English for the Supreme Court and High Courts until Parliament legislates; the 348(2) relaxation for High Courts needs the President's consent.
1412. A Governor wants proceedings of the High Court in his State to be conducted in Hindi. What does Article 348(2) require?
  1. A. Previous consent of the President, and the authorisation does not extend to judgments, decrees and orders
  2. B. Concurrence of the Chief Justice of India
  3. C. Only a resolution of the State Legislature, covering judgments too
  4. D. A Parliamentary law passed with two-thirds majority
Answer: Previous consent of the President, and the authorisation does not extend to judgments, decrees and orders
Explanation: Under Article 348(2) the Governor, with the President's previous consent, may authorise Hindi or the State's official language in High Court proceedings, but not in judgments, decrees or orders.
1413. A substantial section of a State's population demands recognition of the language it speaks. Under Article 347, who can direct such recognition?
  1. A. The Supreme Court on a public interest petition
  2. B. The Governor alone, without reference to the President
  3. C. The Registrar General of India after the census
  4. D. The President, if satisfied that a substantial proportion of the population desires it
Answer: The President, if satisfied that a substantial proportion of the population desires it
Explanation: Article 347 empowers the President to direct that a language spoken by a substantial proportion of a State's population be officially recognised in that State, for the whole or part of it.
1414. The Bihar Government writes to the Karnataka Government on an administrative matter. Absent any mutual agreement, which language does Article 346 prescribe for this communication?
  1. A. Any language chosen by the Governor of the sending State
  2. B. Always Hindi, since Bihar is a Hindi State
  3. C. Always the official language of the recipient State
  4. D. The official language for the time being authorised for use in the Union
Answer: The official language for the time being authorised for use in the Union
Explanation: Article 346: inter-State and State-Union communication uses the Union's authorised official language, but two or more States may agree to use Hindi between themselves.
1415. Under Article 344(6), what may the President do after considering the Parliamentary Committee's report on the Commission's recommendations?
  1. A. Amend the Constitution directly through an ordinance
  2. B. Issue directions in accordance with the whole or any part of that report
  3. C. Refer the report to the Supreme Court for a binding opinion
  4. D. Dissolve the Committee and reconstitute the Commission at once
Answer: Issue directions in accordance with the whole or any part of that report
Explanation: Article 344(6) empowers the President to issue directions in accordance with the whole or any part of the Committee's report; the 1960 Presidential Order followed this route.
1416. How is the Parliamentary Committee examining the Official Language Commission's recommendations under Article 344(4) composed and elected?
  1. A. 20 members: 10 from each House, chosen by the Speaker
  2. B. 30 members: 20 from Lok Sabha, 10 from Rajya Sabha, by proportional representation through single transferable vote
  3. C. 40 members: 25 from Lok Sabha and 15 from Rajya Sabha, by simple majority vote
  4. D. 30 members nominated by the President equally from both Houses
Answer: 30 members: 20 from Lok Sabha, 10 from Rajya Sabha, by proportional representation through single transferable vote
Explanation: Article 344(4) provides for a Committee of thirty members, twenty from the House of the People and ten from the Council of States, elected under proportional representation by the single transferable vote.
1417. The Constitution requires the President to constitute an Official Language Commission at the expiration of five years from commencement and thereafter at what interval?
  1. A. At the expiration of every five years
  2. B. At the expiration of fifteen years
  3. C. Annually, by the Home Ministry
  4. D. At the expiration of ten years
Answer: At the expiration of ten years
Explanation: Article 344(1): a Commission at the end of five years from commencement (1955, B.G. Kher) and thereafter at the end of ten years.
1418. Which constitutional clause is the enabling provision under which Parliament later enacted Section 3 of the Official Languages Act, 1963 to continue English beyond the initial fifteen years?
  1. A. Article 348(2)
  2. B. Article 350(1)
  3. C. Article 344(6)
  4. D. Article 343(3)
Answer: Article 343(3)
Explanation: Article 343(3) lets Parliament by law provide for the continued use of English (or the English numerals) after the fifteen-year period for specified purposes; Section 3 of the 1963 Act was enacted under it.
1419. An Inspector drafting a training note must state the form of numerals prescribed by Article 343(1) for the official purposes of the Union. Which is correct?
  1. A. Only Roman numerals
  2. B. The international form of Indian numerals
  3. C. Numerals of the Eighth Schedule language of each State
  4. D. Only Devanagari numerals
Answer: The international form of Indian numerals
Explanation: Article 343(1) makes Hindi in Devanagari script the Union's official language and provides that the form of numerals shall be the international form of Indian numerals.
1420. The Gandhara school of art, showing Greco-Roman influence in Buddhist sculpture, flourished primarily under the:
  1. A. Kushanas
  2. B. Satavahanas
  3. C. Guptas
  4. D. Mauryas
Answer: Kushanas
Explanation: Gandhara art (Taxila, Peshawar) used grey schist stone and depicted the Buddha with wavy hair and Hellenistic drapery; Mathura school used red sandstone; Kanishka was its notable patron.
1421. The Bhakti saint Kabir's compositions are collected in the Bijak, compiled by his disciple:
  1. A. Raidas
  2. B. Bhagodas
  3. C. Namdev
  4. D. Dhanna
Answer: Bhagodas
Explanation: The Bijak has three sections: Ramaini, Sabda and Sakhi. Kabir's verses are also in the Guru Granth Sahib and the Kabir Granthavali.
1422. The Chipko Movement (1973) originated in which district of present-day Uttarakhand, and its prominent leader was:
  1. A. Almora; Medha Patkar
  2. B. Tehri; Baba Amte
  3. C. Chamoli; Chandi Prasad Bhatt and Sunderlal Bahuguna
  4. D. Nainital; Vandana Shiva only
Answer: Chamoli; Chandi Prasad Bhatt and Sunderlal Bahuguna
Explanation: It began in Mandal/Reni village, Chamoli, with Gaura Devi leading women to hug trees against felling by contractors; Bhatt's Dasholi Gram Swarajya Sangh was involved.
1423. Which gas, produced by anaerobic decomposition in paddy fields and ruminant digestion, has a higher 100-year global warming potential than CO2 by about 28 times?
  1. A. Nitrous oxide
  2. B. Methane
  3. C. Ozone
  4. D. Sulphur hexafluoride
Answer: Methane
Explanation: Methane's GWP-100 is about 28-30; nitrous oxide about 265-298; SF6 about 23,500.
1424. Which international agreement, concluded in 2022, set the '30 by 30' target to protect 30% of land and oceans by 2030?
  1. A. Cartagena Protocol
  2. B. Nagoya Protocol
  3. C. Kunming-Montreal Global Biodiversity Framework
  4. D. Aichi Biodiversity Targets
Answer: Kunming-Montreal Global Biodiversity Framework
Explanation: Adopted at CBD COP15 (Montreal, December 2022). The Nagoya Protocol covers access and benefit sharing; the Cartagena Protocol covers biosafety of living modified organisms.

1425. The 'Gini coefficient' is a measure of:

  1. A. Income or wealth inequality (0 = perfect equality, 1 = perfect inequality)
  2. B. Inflation rate
  3. C. Human capital
  4. D. Gross domestic savings
Answer: Income or wealth inequality (0 = perfect equality, 1 = perfect inequality)
Explanation: Derived from the Lorenz curve: it is the ratio of the area between the line of equality and the Lorenz curve to the total area under the line of equality.
1426. Which tax is levied by the Union but its proceeds are assigned entirely to the States under Article 269?
  1. A. Tax on inter-State sale/consignment of goods (and taxes on newspapers' advertisements)
  2. B. Union excise duty
  3. C. Corporation tax
  4. D. Customs duty
Answer: Tax on inter-State sale/consignment of goods (and taxes on newspapers' advertisements)
Explanation: Art. 269 taxes are levied and collected by the Union but assigned to the States; Art. 270 taxes (e.g. income tax) are shared; Art. 268 duties are levied by the Union but collected and appropriated by States.
1427. Which of these is a Ramsar-listed Indian wetland that is the largest freshwater lake in the north-east and has the floating Keibul Lamjao National Park?
  1. A. Deepor Beel
  2. B. Pulicat Lake
  3. C. Loktak Lake
  4. D. Chilika Lake
Answer: Loktak Lake
Explanation: Keibul Lamjao is the world's only floating national park and home to the endangered Sangai (brow-antlered deer). Chilika is a brackish lagoon in Odisha.
1428. The Indian Standard Time is based on which longitude, passing near Mirzapur?
  1. A. 80 degrees E
  2. B. 82.5 degrees E
  3. C. 90 degrees E
  4. D. 77 degrees E
Answer: 82.5 degrees E
Explanation: IST is UTC+5:30, set by the 82.5 E meridian (about 5 h 30 min ahead of Greenwich); it was adopted nationally in 1947.
1429. Which Indian State has the maximum forest cover in terms of area, per India State of Forest Report?
  1. A. Odisha
  2. B. Madhya Pradesh
  3. C. Chhattisgarh
  4. D. Arunachal Pradesh
Answer: Madhya Pradesh
Explanation: Madhya Pradesh has the largest forest cover by area; Mizoram has the highest percentage of forest cover relative to its geographical area. The report is published biennially by the Forest Survey of India, Dehradun.
1430. Which Indian river flows through a rift valley, flowing westwards into the Arabian Sea and having Omkareshwar and Maheshwar on its banks?
  1. A. Narmada
  2. B. Luni
  3. C. Sabarmati
  4. D. Mahi
Answer: Narmada
Explanation: The Narmada originates at Amarkantak and flows between the Vindhyas and Satpuras, forming the Dhuandhar and Kapildhara falls and emptying through the Gulf of Khambhat.
1431. The Kaveri river originates at Talakaveri in which hill range, and its delta is called the 'Garden of Southern India'?
  1. A. Brahmagiri range, Western Ghats (Karnataka)
  2. B. Satpura range
  3. C. Eastern Ghats in Odisha
  4. D. Nilgiri hills in Kerala
Answer: Brahmagiri range, Western Ghats (Karnataka)
Explanation: The Kaveri rises in Kodagu and flows through Karnataka and Tamil Nadu into the Bay of Bengal; Hogenakkal and Shivanasamudra are its falls.
1432. The Right to Information Act, 2005 requires the Public Information Officer to supply information within how many days of a normal request?
  1. A. 60 days
  2. B. 45 days
  3. C. 30 days
  4. D. 15 days
Answer: 30 days
Explanation: Section 7(1): 30 days; 48 hours if it concerns the life or liberty of a person. First appeal lies to the senior officer within 30 days; second appeal to the Information Commission within 90 days.
1433. The Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act, 2013 provides that the Lokpal shall consist of a Chairperson and not more than how many members?
  1. A. Four members
  2. B. Eight members (50% judicial)
  3. C. Ten members
  4. D. Twelve members
Answer: Eight members (50% judicial)
Explanation: At least 50% of members must be judicial and at least 50% from SC, ST, OBC, minorities and women. The Prime Minister falls within its jurisdiction subject to safeguards.
1434. Which Article of the Constitution deals with the Constitution Bench reference (substantial question of law) before the Supreme Court?
  1. A. Article 137
  2. B. Article 145(3)
  3. C. Article 142
  4. D. Article 131
Answer: Article 145(3)
Explanation: Art. 145(3) requires a minimum of five judges to decide cases involving a substantial question of law on the interpretation of the Constitution; Art. 142 gives power to do 'complete justice'.
1435. The Fundamental Duties were added to the Constitution on the recommendation of which committee?
  1. A. Swaran Singh Committee
  2. B. Sarkaria Commission
  3. C. Balwant Rai Mehta Committee
  4. D. Ashok Mehta Committee
Answer: Swaran Singh Committee
Explanation: Part IVA (Art. 51A) was inserted by the 42nd Amendment (1976) with ten duties; an eleventh (parent's duty to educate children aged 6-14) was added by the 86th Amendment.
1436. Which Article provides that the Governor may reserve a Bill for the consideration of the President?
  1. A. Article 163
  2. B. Article 213
  3. C. Article 200
  4. D. Article 201
Answer: Article 200
Explanation: Art. 200 covers Governor's assent, withholding, return or reservation; Art. 201 covers the President's action on reserved bills; Art. 213 is Governor's ordinance power.
1437. Under Article 72, the President's power to grant pardon extends to which category that the Governor's power under Article 161 does NOT?
  1. A. Sentences by court martial and death sentences
  2. B. Suspension of sentences
  3. C. Sentences under State laws
  4. D. Fines imposed by magistrates
Answer: Sentences by court martial and death sentences
Explanation: The President can pardon court-martial sentences and all death sentences; the Governor cannot pardon death sentences or court-martial sentences, though he can suspend, remit or commute a death sentence.
1438. Which pH range of rainwater is conventionally called 'acid rain'?
  1. A. Below 6.5
  2. B. Below 4.0
  3. C. Below 7.0
  4. D. Below 5.6
Answer: Below 5.6
Explanation: Natural rain is slightly acidic (about 5.6) due to dissolved CO2; acid rain with lower pH is caused chiefly by SO2 and NOx forming sulphuric and nitric acids.
1439. The phenomenon by which light bends around obstacles, being more pronounced when the obstacle size is comparable to the wavelength, is called:
  1. A. Total internal reflection
  2. B. Refraction
  3. C. Diffraction
  4. D. Polarisation
Answer: Diffraction
Explanation: Diffraction demonstrates wave nature; polarisation shows light waves are transverse. Optical fibres use total internal reflection.
1440. In human blood, the Rh factor incompatibility can cause erythroblastosis fetalis when:
  1. A. Both parents are Rh-negative
  2. B. An Rh-negative mother carries an Rh-positive fetus (second pregnancy onwards)
  3. C. An Rh-positive mother carries an Rh-negative fetus
  4. D. The mother is blood group O
Answer: An Rh-negative mother carries an Rh-positive fetus (second pregnancy onwards)
Explanation: Maternal anti-Rh antibodies formed after the first delivery cross the placenta in later pregnancies; prevented by anti-D immunoglobulin.

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