Practice question set with answers. Use deep links to save questions.
5010 questions loaded. Showing page 2 of 63 for fast crawlable revision and deep linking.
81. Which language was declared the official language of Telangana in addition to Telugu?
- A. Kannada
- B. Tamil
- C. Hindi
- D. Urdu
Answer: Urdu
Explanation: Telangana's Official Languages (Amendment) Act made Urdu the second official language alongside Telugu.
82. Under Article 344(5), the Parliamentary Committee on Official Language is required to do what with the Commission's recommendations?
- A. Forward them to the Supreme Court for approval
- B. Enact them directly as law
- C. Examine them and report its opinion to the President
- D. Publish them without any report
Answer: Examine them and report its opinion to the President
Explanation: Article 344(5) makes it the Committee's duty to examine the Commission's recommendations and report its opinion to the President, who may then act under clause (6).
83. Who is regarded as the father of modern Hindi literature and Hindi theatre?
- A. Mahavir Prasad Dwivedi
- B. Ramchandra Shukla
- C. Premchand
- D. Bharatendu Harishchandra
Answer: Bharatendu Harishchandra
Explanation: Bharatendu Harishchandra (1850-1885) is regarded as the father of modern Hindi literature and Hindi theatre.
84. Surdas's 'Sursagar' is written chiefly in which language/dialect?
- A. Braj
- B. Rajasthani
- C. Awadhi
- D. Khadi Boli
Answer: Braj
Explanation: Sursagar, devoted to Krishna's life, is composed chiefly in Braj, the language of the Krishna-bhakti poets.
85. 'Bijak', a collection of verses, is associated with which poet-saint?
- A. Kabir
- B. Bihari
- C. Tulsidas
- D. Raskhan
Answer: Kabir
Explanation: The Bijak is the principal compilation of Kabir's sakhi, ramaini and sabad, collected by his followers.
86. How many specific matters, listed as clauses (a) to (e), does Article 344(2) require the Official Language Commission to make recommendations on?
- A. Five
- B. Three
- C. Four
- D. Six
Answer: Five
Explanation: Article 344(2) lists five heads: progressive use of Hindi, restrictions on English, language for Article 348 purposes, form of numerals, and any other matter referred by the President.
87. Tulsidas's 'Ramcharitmanas' was composed in which language/dialect?
- A. Bhojpuri
- B. Awadhi
- C. Maithili
- D. Braj
Answer: Awadhi
Explanation: Ramcharitmanas was composed in Awadhi; Surdas's Sursagar is in Braj.
88. Which of the following is NOT counted among the four pillars (chaar stambh) of Chhayavad?
- A. Suryakant Tripathi 'Nirala'
- B. Ramdhari Singh Dinkar
- C. Jaishankar Prasad
- D. Mahadevi Verma
Answer: Ramdhari Singh Dinkar
Explanation: The four pillars of Chhayavad are Prasad, Nirala, Sumitranandan Pant and Mahadevi Verma; Dinkar belongs to the later Rashtriya-Dhara.
89. 'Padmavat', a notable Sufi premakhyan in Awadhi, was composed by:
- A. Kabir
- B. Surdas
- C. Malik Muhammad Jayasi
- D. Rahim
Answer: Malik Muhammad Jayasi
Explanation: Malik Muhammad Jayasi wrote Padmavat (c. 1540) in Awadhi, a landmark of the Sufi premakhyan tradition.
90. Which ancient Tamil grammatical work is the oldest extant text on Tamil grammar?
- A. Tolkappiyam
- B. Manimekalai
- C. Tirukkural
- D. Silappatikaram
Answer: Tolkappiyam
Explanation: Tolkappiyam, attributed to Tolkappiyar, is the oldest surviving Tamil grammar; the others are literary works.
91. The traditional script of Manipuri (Meitei), revived in modern times, is:
- A. Tirhuta
- B. Gurmukhi
- C. Meitei Mayek
- D. Ol Chiki
Answer: Meitei Mayek
Explanation: Meitei Mayek is the traditional script of Manipuri, revived in the 20th century; Ol Chiki is for Santhali.
92. Punjabi in India is traditionally written in which script?
- A. Perso-Arabic
- B. Devanagari
- C. Gurmukhi
- D. Brahmi only
Answer: Gurmukhi
Explanation: Punjabi in India is written in Gurmukhi, the script associated with Guru Angad; Shahmukhi (Perso-Arabic) is used in Pakistan.
93. Which of the following Eighth Schedule languages is traditionally written in the Perso-Arabic script?
- A. Odia
- B. Urdu
- C. Marathi
- D. Gujarati
Answer: Urdu
Explanation: Urdu is written in the Perso-Arabic (Nastaliq) script; Marathi uses Devanagari, Odia its own script and Gujarati the Gujarati script.
94. 'Rashmirathi', an epic poem centred on a character from the Mahabharata, was written by:
- A. Jaishankar Prasad
- B. Ramdhari Singh Dinkar
- C. Maithili Sharan Gupt
- D. Harivansh Rai Bachchan
Answer: Ramdhari Singh Dinkar
Explanation: Rashmirathi by Dinkar retells the life of Karna, the eldest Pandava born to Kunti before her marriage.
95. 'Madhushala', the best-known poetic work of Harivansh Rai Bachchan, was first published in:
- A. 1935
- B. 1947
- C. 1925
- D. 1952
Answer: 1935
Explanation: Madhushala, a collection of quatrains (rubaiyat), was published in 1935 by Harivansh Rai Bachchan.
96. Premchand's novel 'Godan', considered his masterpiece, was published in:
- A. 1925
- B. 1936
- C. 1947
- D. 1918
Answer: 1936
Explanation: Godan, Premchand's last completed novel about the peasant Hori, was published in 1936, the year he died.
97. 'Kamayani', a major epic poem of the Chhayavad school, was written by:
- A. Sumitranandan Pant
- B. Jaishankar Prasad
- C. Suryakant Tripathi 'Nirala'
- D. Maithili Sharan Gupt
Answer: Jaishankar Prasad
Explanation: Kamayani (1936) by Jaishankar Prasad is regarded as the finest epic of the Chhayavad movement.
98. Krishna Sobti, honoured with the 53rd Jnanpith Award (for 2017), is best known as a writer in which language?
- A. Sindhi
- B. Urdu
- C. Hindi
- D. Punjabi
Answer: Hindi
Explanation: Krishna Sobti wrote in Hindi (Zindaginama, Mitro Marjani, Dar Se Bichhuri) and received the 53rd Jnanpith Award for 2017.
99. Kunwar Narayan received the 41st Jnanpith Award (for 2005) for his contribution to which literature?
- A. Punjabi
- B. Gujarati
- C. Telugu
- D. Hindi
Answer: Hindi
Explanation: Kunwar Narayan, a Hindi poet and author of 'Atmajayee' and 'Kumarajiva', received the 41st Jnanpith Award for 2005.
100. Kedarnath Singh, who received the 49th Jnanpith Award (for 2013), wrote in which language?
- A. Marathi
- B. Bengali
- C. Hindi
- D. Urdu
Answer: Hindi
Explanation: Kedarnath Singh, a Hindi poet known for 'Akaal Mein Saaras' and 'Zameen Pak Rahi Hai', received the 49th Jnanpith Award for 2013.
101. Under Article 344(4), the twenty Lok Sabha and ten Rajya Sabha members of the Parliamentary Committee on Official Language are chosen by which method?
- A. Nomination by the Presiding Officers
- B. First-past-the-post voting
- C. Nomination by the Prime Minister
- D. Proportional representation by means of the single transferable vote
Answer: Proportional representation by means of the single transferable vote
Explanation: Article 344(4) says the 30 members are elected by the members of the House of the People and the Council of States respectively, per the system of proportional representation by the single transferable vote.
102. Article 346 lays down that the language for communication between States, or between a State and the Union, is the language authorised for Union official purposes. What does its proviso allow?
- A. Any State may unilaterally prescribe its own language for Union communication
- B. The President may bar the use of English entirely
- C. Two or more States may agree to use Hindi for communication between themselves
- D. The Governor may choose the language for each letter
Answer: Two or more States may agree to use Hindi for communication between themselves
Explanation: The proviso to Article 346 provides that if two or more States agree that Hindi should be the language for communication between them, Hindi may be used.
103. According to Article 344(1), the Official Language Commission consists of a Chairman and other members representing which set of languages?
- A. Only the languages of the northern States
- B. The different languages specified in the Eighth Schedule
- C. The languages used in the Supreme Court
- D. Only Hindi and English
Answer: The different languages specified in the Eighth Schedule
Explanation: Article 344(1) provides for a Chairman and such other members, appointed by the President, as represent the different languages specified in the Eighth Schedule.
104. The Official Language Resolution, 1968 was adopted by Parliament in which month and year?
- A. January 1965
- B. January 1968
- C. May 1968
- D. December 1967
Answer: January 1968
Explanation: The Resolution was adopted by both Houses in January 1968, after the Official Languages (Amendment) Act, 1967, and sets out the policy on promotion of Hindi and the three-language formula.
105. Under the Jammu and Kashmir Official Languages Act, 2020, which set of languages became the official languages of the Union Territory?
- A. Urdu, Hindi, English, Kashmiri and Dogri
- B. Urdu, Punjabi and English
- C. Hindi and Dogri only
- D. Urdu and English only
Answer: Urdu, Hindi, English, Kashmiri and Dogri
Explanation: The 2020 Act added Kashmiri, Dogri and Hindi to Urdu and English as official languages of Jammu and Kashmir.
106. Which category of documents laid before Parliament is expressly covered by Section 3(3)(ii) of the Official Languages Act, 1963 for bilingual issue?
- A. Only Private Members' Bills
- B. Only the Speaker's rulings
- C. Administrative and other reports and official papers laid before a House of Parliament
- D. Only notices of questions
Answer: Administrative and other reports and official papers laid before a House of Parliament
Explanation: Section 3(3)(ii) covers administrative and other reports and official papers laid before a House or the Houses of Parliament, which must be issued in both Hindi and English.
107. In which year was Sanskrit declared a Classical Language by the Government of India?
- A. 2013
- B. 2004
- C. 2008
- D. 2005
Answer: 2005
Explanation: Sanskrit was declared a Classical Language in 2005, the year after Tamil became the first (2004).
108. Which two languages were declared Classical Languages by the Government of India in 2013 and 2014 respectively?
- A. Telugu and Kannada
- B. Odia and Bengali
- C. Sanskrit and Tamil
- D. Malayalam and Odia
Answer: Malayalam and Odia
Explanation: Malayalam received Classical Language status in 2013 and Odia in 2014, after Tamil (2004), Sanskrit (2005) and Telugu and Kannada (2008).
109. By how many languages has the Eighth Schedule grown since the original 14 of 1950 to reach its present 22?
- A. Eight
- B. Nine
- C. Six
- D. Seven
Answer: Eight
Explanation: Sindhi (1967), Konkani, Manipuri and Nepali (1992), and Bodo, Dogri, Maithili and Santhali (2003) make eight additions: 14 + 8 = 22.
110. Rule 11 of the Official Language Rules, 1976 requires which of the following to be in both Hindi and English?
- A. Only the minutes of departmental meetings
- B. Only the confidential reports of officers
- C. Only private correspondence of employees
- D. Manuals, codes and other procedural literature, forms, name-boards and letter-heads
Answer: Manuals, codes and other procedural literature, forms, name-boards and letter-heads
Explanation: Rule 11 requires manuals, codes and other procedural literature, forms and registers, and name-plates, sign-boards, letter-heads and similar items of Central Government offices to be bilingual.
111. Article 351 directs that Hindi be developed so as to serve as a medium of expression for the composite culture of India, securing its enrichment without interfering with which of its attributes?
- A. Its genius
- B. Its antiquity
- C. Its dialects
- D. Its script
Answer: Its genius
Explanation: Article 351 speaks of assimilating the forms, style and expressions of Hindustani and other Eighth Schedule languages 'without interfering with its genius' (hindi ki prakriti).
112. Under the proviso to Section 7 of the Official Languages Act, 1963, when a High Court's judgment, decree or order is passed in Hindi or a State's official language, it must be accompanied by:
- A. A translation in English issued under the authority of the High Court
- B. A summary approved by the Supreme Court Registrar
- C. The President's countersignature
- D. A certified Sanskrit translation
Answer: A translation in English issued under the authority of the High Court
Explanation: The proviso to Section 7 requires that where a judgment, decree or order is passed in Hindi or the State's official language, it shall be accompanied by an English translation issued under the authority of the High Court.
113. Article 210(2) provides that after fifteen years from the commencement of the Constitution, the words 'or in English' in Article 210(1) shall stand omitted unless:
- A. The State Legislature by law provides otherwise
- B. The High Court directs otherwise
- C. The Governor issues an ordinance
- D. The Union Home Ministry notifies otherwise
Answer: The State Legislature by law provides otherwise
Explanation: Article 210(2) mirrors Article 120(2): the words 'or in English' lapse after fifteen years unless the Legislature of the State by law provides otherwise.
114. Under Article 349, a Bill on the language to be used in the Supreme Court and High Courts could not be introduced in the first fifteen years without the previous sanction of the President, who was required to consult which material before granting it?
- A. The Attorney General's opinion alone
- B. A resolution of the Rajya Sabha
- C. The Official Language Commission's recommendations and the Parliamentary Committee's report
- D. The Law Commission's latest report
Answer: The Official Language Commission's recommendations and the Parliamentary Committee's report
Explanation: Article 349 barred such Bills or amendments without the President's previous sanction, and the President could grant sanction only after taking into consideration the Commission's recommendations and the Committee's report under Article 344.
115. Vishwa Hindi Diwas on 10 January was first observed in 2006 on the initiative of which Prime Minister?
- A. P. V. Narasimha Rao
- B. Manmohan Singh
- C. Atal Bihari Vajpayee
- D. Indira Gandhi
Answer: Manmohan Singh
Explanation: Prime Minister Manmohan Singh announced in 2006 that 10 January, the anniversary of the first World Hindi Conference (Nagpur, 1975), would be observed as Vishwa Hindi Diwas.
116. Sachchidananda Hirananda Vatsyayan 'Agyeya' received the Jnanpith Award in 1978 for which work?
- A. Ari O Karuna Prabhamay
- B. Kitni Navon Mein Kitni Baar
- C. Nadi Ke Dweep
- D. Shekhar: Ek Jivani
Answer: Kitni Navon Mein Kitni Baar
Explanation: Agyeya won the 1978 Jnanpith Award for the poetry collection 'Kitni Navon Mein Kitni Baar'.
117. Mahadevi Verma, one of the four pillars of Chhayavad, received the Jnanpith Award in 1982 for which collection?
- A. Deepshikha
- B. Yama
- C. Nihar
- D. Neerja
Answer: Yama
Explanation: Mahadevi Verma won the 1982 Jnanpith Award for 'Yama', a compilation of her poetry.
118. Article 344(6) empowers the President to issue directions on the language question after considering the Parliamentary Committee's report. With which overriding phrase does the clause begin?
- A. Without prejudice to Article 348
- B. Notwithstanding anything in Article 343
- C. Save as otherwise provided in Part III
- D. Subject to the provisions of Article 346
Answer: Notwithstanding anything in Article 343
Explanation: Article 344(6) begins 'Notwithstanding anything in Article 343', so the President may, after considering the report of the Committee under clause (5), issue directions in accordance with the whole or any part of that report.
119. Under Section 15 of the RPF Act, 1957, a member of the Force is for the purposes of the Act regarded as:
- A. On duty only inside railway premises
- B. Always on duty
- C. On duty only during his shift
- D. On duty only when in uniform
Answer: Always on duty
Explanation: Section 15 deems every member of the Force to be always on duty, which is why an off-duty RPF member remains bound to act against railway property offences.
120. Which section of the Railway Property (Unlawful Possession) Act, 1966 gives the inquiring officer of the Force the power to summon persons whose attendance is necessary?
- A. Section 3
- B. Section 9
- C. Section 11
- D. Section 5
Answer: Section 9
Explanation: Section 9 gives the power to summon; Section 8 provides for the inquiry by an officer of the Force and Section 10 requires officers to assist.
121. Section 11 of the Railway Property (Unlawful Possession) Act, 1966 applies to searches and arrests the provisions of the Code of Criminal Procedure, which has since been replaced by:
- A. Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023
- B. Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023
- C. Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023
- D. Railway Claims Tribunal Act, 1987
Answer: Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023
Explanation: The Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 has been replaced by the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, so the procedure for searches and arrests under the RP(UP) Act now follows the BNSS.
122. North Eastern Railway has its headquarters at:
- A. Hajipur
- B. Gorakhpur
- C. Guwahati
- D. Lucknow
Answer: Gorakhpur
Explanation: North Eastern Railway is headquartered at Gorakhpur, Uttar Pradesh, while Northeast Frontier Railway is at Maligaon, Guwahati.
123. Which section of the Railway Property (Unlawful Possession) Act, 1966 empowers a superior officer or member of the Force to arrest without warrant?
- A. Section 5
- B. Section 3
- C. Section 11
- D. Section 6
Answer: Section 6
Explanation: Section 6 gives the superior officer or member of the Force power to arrest without warrant; Section 3 is the penalty provision and Section 5 makes the offences non-cognizable.
124. Under Section 3 of the Railway Property (Unlawful Possession) Act, 1966, a first conviction for possessing railway property reasonably suspected to be stolen or unlawfully obtained carries, absent special reasons, a minimum imprisonment of:
- A. Six months
- B. One year (with fine)
- C. Two years
- D. Three years
Answer: One year (with fine)
Explanation: Section 3 provides imprisonment up to five years; for a first offence, absent adequate and special reasons recorded, the minimum is one year with fine. For a subsequent conviction the minimum rises to two years.
125. The Konkan Railway main line between Roha and Thokur is about how long?
- A. About 741 km
- B. About 456 km
- C. About 590 km
- D. About 905 km
Answer: About 741 km
Explanation: The Konkan Railway runs about 741 km from Roha in Maharashtra to Thokur near Mangaluru in Karnataka, via Goa.
126. The Railway Claims Tribunal was constituted under the Railway Claims Tribunal Act of which year?
- A. 1989
- B. 1987
- C. 1957
- D. 1966
Answer: 1987
Explanation: The Railway Claims Tribunal Act, 1987 created the Tribunal to decide claims for compensation for loss of goods and for accidents and untoward incidents.
127. Compensation for an 'untoward incident' such as a terrorist attack, robbery or accidental fall from a train is provided under which section of the Railways Act, 1989?
- A. Section 124
- B. Section 124A
- C. Section 123
- D. Section 137
Answer: Section 124A
Explanation: Section 124A provides compensation for untoward incidents, whereas Section 124 covers train accidents and Section 123 contains the definitions.
128. What is the maximum imprisonment under Section 143 of the Railways Act, 1989 for unauthorised procurement and supply of railway tickets (touting)?
- A. Six months
- B. Three years
- C. One year
- D. Five years
Answer: Three years
Explanation: Section 143 punishes unauthorised procurement and supply of tickets with imprisonment up to three years or fine up to Rs 10,000, or both.
129. Gorakhpur's record for the world's longest railway platform (about 1,366 m) was surpassed in March 2023 by the station at:
- A. Bilaspur
- B. Kollam
- C. Kharagpur
- D. Hubballi
Answer: Hubballi
Explanation: The platform at Shri Siddharoodha Swamiji Station, Hubballi, about 1,507 m long, was inaugurated in March 2023 and overtook Gorakhpur.
130. A male person who enters or remains in a compartment reserved for females is liable to penalty under which section of the Railways Act, 1989?
- A. Section 162
- B. Section 156
- C. Section 153
- D. Section 147
Answer: Section 162
Explanation: Section 162 penalises a male person entering or remaining in a compartment reserved for females; Section 156 is roof, step or engine travel and Section 147 is trespass.
131. Which offence does Section 156 of the Railways Act, 1989 penalise?
- A. Unauthorised hawking in a train
- B. Being drunk or causing nuisance on railway premises
- C. Travelling on the roof, step or engine of a train without authority
- D. Entering a compartment reserved for females
Answer: Travelling on the roof, step or engine of a train without authority
Explanation: Section 156 penalises travelling on the roof, step or engine of a train. The ladies' compartment offence is Section 162, drunkenness or nuisance is Section 145 and hawking is Section 144.
132. Section 12 of the Railway Protection Force Act, 1957 relates to the power of a superior officer or member of the Force to:
- A. Try offences summarily as a Magistrate
- B. Sanction prosecution of railway servants
- C. Arrest without warrant a person concerned in an offence relating to railway property
- D. Frame rules for the Force
Answer: Arrest without warrant a person concerned in an offence relating to railway property
Explanation: Section 12 of the RPF Act is the power to arrest without warrant; it is distinct from the arrest power in Section 6 of the RP(UP) Act, 1966.
133. Kavach, the indigenous automatic train protection system of Indian Railways, was developed by:
- A. RDSO with Indian industry partners
- B. CRIS
- C. DFCCIL
- D. ICF Chennai
Answer: RDSO with Indian industry partners
Explanation: Kavach was developed by RDSO together with Indian industry partners to prevent train collisions and signal overruns.
134. Endangering the safety of persons travelling by railway through a WILFUL act or omission is punishable under which section of the Railways Act, 1989?
- A. Section 156
- B. Section 150
- C. Section 154
- D. Section 153
Answer: Section 153
Explanation: Section 153 covers endangering safety by a wilful act or omission, while Section 154 covers the rash or negligent version and Section 150 covers malicious wrecking of a train.
135. The Bogibeel rail-cum-road bridge over the Brahmaputra is located near which Assam town?
- A. Silchar
- B. Dibrugarh
- C. Jorhat
- D. Tezpur
Answer: Dibrugarh
Explanation: The Bogibeel Bridge, inaugurated in December 2018, lies near Dibrugarh and links the south and north banks of the Brahmaputra.
136. Which section of the Railways Act, 1989 deals with damage to certain railway property, as distinct from malicious wrecking under Section 150?
- A. Section 151
- B. Section 141
- C. Section 162
- D. Section 146
Answer: Section 151
Explanation: Section 151 deals with damage to certain railway property. Section 150 is malicious wrecking, Section 146 is obstructing a railway servant, Section 162 is the ladies' compartment offence and Section 141 is needless interference with means of communication.
137. Diesel Locomotive Works, Varanasi was renamed in 2020 as:
- A. Banaras Locomotive Works
- B. Kashi Locomotive Works
- C. Ganga Locomotive Works
- D. Varanasi Locomotive Works
Answer: Banaras Locomotive Works
Explanation: DLW Varanasi, set up in 1961 with ALCO technology, was renamed Banaras Locomotive Works in 2020 after it moved to electric locomotive production.
138. The Gatimaan Express, launched in 2016 as India's first 160 km/h train, runs between Agra Cantt and which Delhi station?
- A. Anand Vihar Terminal
- B. New Delhi
- C. Old Delhi
- D. Hazrat Nizamuddin
Answer: Hazrat Nizamuddin
Explanation: The Gatimaan Express runs between Hazrat Nizamuddin in Delhi and Agra Cantt.
139. The Manak Nagar campus of RDSO, the research, design and standards organisation of Indian Railways, is located in which city?
- A. Lucknow
- B. Nagpur
- C. Kolkata
- D. Chennai
Answer: Lucknow
Explanation: RDSO is headquartered at Manak Nagar, Lucknow, and issues standards and specifications for Indian Railways.
140. The Railways Act, 1989, which came into force on 1 July 1990, repealed which earlier statute?
- A. Indian Railways Act, 1890
- B. Indian Railways Act, 1905
- C. Railway Companies Act, 1920
- D. Railway Property Act, 1966
Answer: Indian Railways Act, 1890
Explanation: The Railways Act, 1989 replaced the Indian Railways Act, 1890 and came into force on 1 July 1990.
141. The headquarters of Northeast Frontier Railway at Maligaon is in which city?
- A. Guwahati
- B. Imphal
- C. Siliguri
- D. Dibrugarh
Answer: Guwahati
Explanation: Northeast Frontier Railway is headquartered at Maligaon, Guwahati, Assam.
142. The South Coast Railway zone, announced in 2019, has its headquarters at:
- A. Vijayawada
- B. Bhubaneswar
- C. Visakhapatnam
- D. Secunderabad
Answer: Visakhapatnam
Explanation: South Coast Railway has its headquarters at Visakhapatnam.
143. The first passenger train in eastern India, on 15 August 1854, ran on the East Indian Railway from Howrah to:
- A. Burdwan
- B. Hooghly
- C. Raniganj
- D. Allahabad
Answer: Hooghly
Explanation: The East Indian Railway opened its first section from Howrah to Hooghly on 15 August 1854; the line was extended to Raniganj later.
144. The status of the Railway Protection Force as an 'armed force of the Union' was conferred by the Railway Protection Force (Amendment) Act of:
- A. 1985
- B. 1957
- C. 2003
- D. 1966
Answer: 1985
Explanation: The RPF Act, 1957 was amended in 1985 to declare the Force an armed force of the Union.
145. The first steam locomotive built by Chittaranjan Locomotive Works in 1950 was named:
- A. Azad
- B. Deshbandhu
- C. Lokmanya
- D. Fairy Queen
Answer: Deshbandhu
Explanation: CLW's first steam locomotive, Deshbandhu, was turned out in 1950 and named after Deshbandhu Chittaranjan Das.
146. IRCTC, which handles online ticketing, catering and tourism for Indian Railways, was incorporated in:
- A. 1986
- B. 1999
- C. 2003
- D. 2006
Answer: 1999
Explanation: IRCTC was incorporated in 1999 as a Public Sector Undertaking of the Ministry of Railways.
147. Who was appointed India's first Chief of Defence Staff in December 2019?
- A. Gen. M. M. Naravane
- B. Air Chief Marshal R. K. S. Bhadauria
- C. Gen. Bipin Rawat
- D. Gen. Anil Chauhan
Answer: Gen. Bipin Rawat
Explanation: Gen. Bipin Rawat took charge on 31 December 2019 as head of the new Department of Military Affairs; he died in a helicopter crash in December 2021.
148. Under the Agnipath scheme announced in June 2022, Agniveers are enrolled for a service period of:
- A. Three years
- B. Seven years
- C. Five years
- D. Four years
Answer: Four years
Explanation: Agniveers serve four years, after which up to 25 per cent of each batch can be retained in regular cadre.
149. India's Mars Orbiter Mission (Mangalyaan) entered Mars orbit on 24 September 2014, making India the first country to do so:
- A. With a sample-return capsule
- B. Using a reusable launcher
- C. With a crewed spacecraft
- D. In its very first attempt
Answer: In its very first attempt
Explanation: MOM, launched by PSLV-C25 on 5 November 2013, made India the first Asian nation to reach Mars orbit and the first globally to do so on a first attempt.
150. Goods and Services Tax was introduced through which Constitutional Amendment Act?
- A. 103rd Amendment Act, 2019
- B. 97th Amendment Act, 2011
- C. 99th Amendment Act, 2014
- D. 101st Amendment Act, 2016
Answer: 101st Amendment Act, 2016
Explanation: The 101st Amendment inserted Article 279A creating the GST Council; GST took effect on 1 July 2017.
151. The Atal Tunnel under the Rohtang Pass, opened on 3 October 2020, has a length of about:
- A. 6.5 km
- B. 4.2 km
- C. 9.02 km
- D. 11.2 km
Answer: 9.02 km
Explanation: The 9.02-km tunnel links Manali with Lahaul-Spiti and is among the world's longest highway tunnels above 10,000 feet.
152. Which station became India's first railway station redeveloped under the PPP model to be inaugurated, in November 2021?
- A. Gandhinagar Capital, Gujarat
- B. Bijwasan, Delhi
- C. Ayodhya Dham Junction
- D. Rani Kamlapati (formerly Habibganj), Bhopal
Answer: Rani Kamlapati (formerly Habibganj), Bhopal
Explanation: Habibganj was renamed Rani Kamlapati and reopened as a world-class station in November 2021.
153. India's first Vande Bharat Express, flagged off on 15 February 2019, ran between:
- A. New Delhi and Katra
- B. Howrah and New Jalpaiguri
- C. New Delhi and Varanasi
- D. Mumbai and Gandhinagar
Answer: New Delhi and Varanasi
Explanation: The semi-high-speed Train 18 / Vande Bharat was built at ICF Chennai and started on the New Delhi-Varanasi route.
154. The International Criminal Court, which issued an arrest warrant against Russian President Vladimir Putin in March 2023, has its seat in:
- A. Brussels
- B. The Hague
- C. New York
- D. Geneva
Answer: The Hague
Explanation: The ICC sits at The Hague, Netherlands; the International Court of Justice, the UN's principal judicial organ, is also at The Hague.
155. The 13th Ministerial Conference (MC13) of the World Trade Organization, held in February-March 2024, took place in:
- A. Geneva
- B. Nairobi
- C. Abu Dhabi
- D. Buenos Aires
Answer: Abu Dhabi
Explanation: MC13 was held in Abu Dhabi, UAE, from 26 February to 2 March 2024.
156. The school structure proposed by the National Education Policy 2020 replaces the 10+2 system with:
- A. 5+3+3+4
- B. 3+5+4
- C. 4+4+4
- D. 6+3+3
Answer: 5+3+3+4
Explanation: The 5+3+3+4 design covers foundational, preparatory, middle and secondary stages; the Union Cabinet approved NEP on 29 July 2020.
157. National Startup Day in India is observed every year on:
- A. 12 January
- B. 28 February
- C. 15 February
- D. 16 January
Answer: 16 January
Explanation: 16 January marks the 2016 launch of Startup India; the day was declared National Startup Day in 2022.
158. The PM Gati Shakti National Master Plan, launched on 13 October 2021, is mainly intended to:
- A. Create a national land bank for industries only
- B. Privatise national highways
- C. Fund new Vande Bharat trains
- D. Plan multimodal infrastructure projects on a single digital GIS platform
Answer: Plan multimodal infrastructure projects on a single digital GIS platform
Explanation: Gati Shakti brings railways, roads, ports, airways and other ministries onto one platform for integrated planning and last-mile connectivity.
159. The 'Ek Ped Maa Ke Naam' campaign, which encourages planting a tree in one's mother's name, was launched by the Prime Minister on:
- A. Earth Day, 22 April 2023
- B. Independence Day 2023
- C. Van Mahotsav, July 2022
- D. World Environment Day, 5 June 2024
Answer: World Environment Day, 5 June 2024
Explanation: The campaign was launched on 5 June 2024 and the PM planted a sapling at Buddha Jayanti Park, Delhi in 2024.
160. The Kailash Mansarovar Yatra resumed in June 2025 through which two routes?
- A. Lipulekh and Shipki La
- B. Nathu La and Jelep La
- C. Shipki La and Nathu La
- D. Lipulekh (Uttarakhand) and Nathu La (Sikkim)
Answer: Lipulekh (Uttarakhand) and Nathu La (Sikkim)
Explanation: The Yatra, suspended after 2019, was restarted in 2025 by the Ministry of External Affairs via the Lipulekh and Nathu La passes.
IUC AcademyHome