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161. The October 2024 India-China patrolling arrangement on the Line of Actual Control covered which two friction points in eastern Ladakh?
- A. Depsang and Demchok
- B. Gogra and Hot Springs
- C. Yangtse and Asaphila
- D. Galwan and Pangong Tso
Answer: Depsang and Demchok
Explanation: The understanding, announced just before the Kazan BRICS summit, allowed patrolling and grazing at Depsang and Demchok.
162. Who beat Novak Djokovic in the men's singles final of Wimbledon 2024?
- A. Jannik Sinner
- B. Daniil Medvedev
- C. Carlos Alcaraz
- D. Alexander Zverev
Answer: Carlos Alcaraz
Explanation: Alcaraz won in straight sets 6-2, 6-2, 7-6 to defend his Wimbledon title.
163. The FIFA World Cup 2026 is the first men's edition with 48 teams and is co-hosted by:
- A. USA, Canada and Mexico
- B. Qatar, UAE and Saudi Arabia
- C. Japan and South Korea
- D. Spain, Portugal and Morocco
Answer: USA, Canada and Mexico
Explanation: The 2026 men's World Cup is shared by the USA, Canada and Mexico; Qatar hosted in 2022.
164. Which city will host the 2032 Summer Olympic Games?
- A. Paris
- B. Mumbai
- C. Los Angeles
- D. Brisbane
Answer: Brisbane
Explanation: Brisbane (Australia) hosts 2032; Paris held 2024 and Los Angeles holds 2028.
165. The 2026 Asian Games are being hosted by which city or cities?
- A. Doha, Qatar
- B. Jakarta-Palembang, Indonesia
- C. Aichi-Nagoya, Japan
- D. Riyadh, Saudi Arabia
Answer: Aichi-Nagoya, Japan
Explanation: After Hangzhou 2023, the 20th Asian Games go to Aichi-Nagoya, Japan; Doha hosts the 2030 edition and Riyadh the 2034 edition.
166. ISRO's PSLV-C59 mission of 5 December 2024 launched the European Space Agency's Proba-3, designed to create:
- A. A lunar sample return
- B. A Mars orbiter
- C. Artificial total solar eclipses
- D. A space telescope at L2
Answer: Artificial total solar eclipses
Explanation: Proba-3's two spacecraft fly in precise formation so one blocks the Sun for the other, letting scientists study the corona.
167. Who was sworn in as Andhra Pradesh's Deputy Chief Minister in June 2024 in N. Chandrababu Naidu's government?
- A. Y. S. Sharmila
- B. Nara Lokesh
- C. Chiranjeevi
- D. Pawan Kalyan
Answer: Pawan Kalyan
Explanation: Jana Sena chief Pawan Kalyan became Deputy CM when the TDP-led NDA government took oath on 12 June 2024.
168. Who replaced Manohar Lal Khattar as the Chief Minister of Haryana in March 2024?
- A. Nayab Singh Saini
- B. Bhupinder Singh Hooda
- C. Anil Vij
- D. Rao Inderjit Singh
Answer: Nayab Singh Saini
Explanation: Nayab Singh Saini took over on 12 March 2024 and was sworn in again after the BJP's October 2024 victory.
169. Rekha Gupta, who became Delhi's Chief Minister in February 2025, succeeded which leader in the post?
- A. Arvind Kejriwal
- B. Atishi
- C. Sheila Dikshit
- D. Sushma Swaraj
Answer: Atishi
Explanation: After the BJP won 48 of 70 seats, Rekha Gupta took oath on 20 February 2025, succeeding AAP's Atishi.
170. Who was sworn in as Maharashtra's Chief Minister for the third time on 5 December 2024?
- A. Eknath Shinde
- B. Ajit Pawar
- C. Uddhav Thackeray
- D. Devendra Fadnavis
Answer: Devendra Fadnavis
Explanation: The BJP-led Mahayuti won the November 2024 Assembly poll and Fadnavis took oath at Azad Maidan, Mumbai.
171. Who became the first Chief Minister of Jammu & Kashmir after the 2024 Assembly election, the first since it became a Union Territory?
- A. Mehbooba Mufti
- B. Farooq Abdullah
- C. Omar Abdullah
- D. Sajad Lone
Answer: Omar Abdullah
Explanation: Omar Abdullah of the National Conference was sworn in on 16 October 2024 after the first Assembly polls in J&K in a decade.
172. Who was sworn in as the first BJP Chief Minister of Odisha in June 2024?
- A. Naveen Patnaik
- B. Dharmendra Pradhan
- C. Jual Oram
- D. Mohan Charan Majhi
Answer: Mohan Charan Majhi
Explanation: Mohan Charan Majhi, a tribal leader from Keonjhar, took oath on 12 June 2024, ending Naveen Patnaik's 24-year rule.
173. The 2024 Lok Sabha general election was conducted in how many phases and over what period?
- A. Eight phases, 1 April to 1 June
- B. Five phases, 19 April to 25 May
- C. Seven phases, 11 April to 19 May
- D. Seven phases, 19 April to 1 June
Answer: Seven phases, 19 April to 1 June
Explanation: Polling ran from 19 April to 1 June 2024 and counting was held on 4 June; the 2019 election had also been in seven phases (11 April-19 May).
174. Who succeeded Justice B. R. Gavai as the 53rd Chief Justice of India on 24 November 2025?
- A. Justice B. V. Nagarathna
- B. Justice D. Y. Chandrachud
- C. Justice Surya Kant
- D. Justice Vikram Nath
Answer: Justice Surya Kant
Explanation: Justice Surya Kant, a former Haryana-based judge elevated to the Supreme Court in 2019, became the 53rd CJI.
175. Which country holds the BRICS chairship in 2026, after Brazil's 2025 term?
- A. China
- B. Russia
- C. India
- D. South Africa
Answer: India
Explanation: India took over the BRICS chair for 2026 from Brazil, which hosted the 17th summit at Rio de Janeiro in July 2025.
176. Which country holds the G20 presidency for 2026, after South Africa's 2025 term?
- A. Brazil
- B. United States
- C. Indonesia
- D. India
Answer: United States
Explanation: The G20 presidency passed from Indonesia (2022) to India (2023), Brazil (2024), South Africa (2025) and the United States (2026).
177. Which country became NATO's 31st member on 4 April 2023?
- A. Georgia
- B. Ukraine
- C. Sweden
- D. Finland
Answer: Finland
Explanation: Finland joined in April 2023; Sweden followed in March 2024 as the 32nd member.
178. The WHO ended the COVID-19 Public Health Emergency of International Concern (PHEIC) on:
- A. 30 January 2020
- B. 5 May 2023
- C. 11 March 2020
- D. 12 December 2022
Answer: 5 May 2023
Explanation: WHO declared the PHEIC on 30 January 2020 and ended it on 5 May 2023; 11 March 2020 was when it called COVID-19 a pandemic.
179. Following student-led protests, Sheikh Hasina resigned as Bangladesh's Prime Minister and left the country on:
- A. 5 August 2024
- B. 1 July 2024
- C. 15 July 2024
- D. 8 August 2024
Answer: 5 August 2024
Explanation: The protests began over government-job quotas; Hasina resigned on 5 August 2024 and Muhammad Yunus took charge on 8 August.
180. Dr Manmohan Singh, who passed away on 26 December 2024, served as India's Prime Minister during:
- A. 2009-2019
- B. 1996-2004
- C. 2004-2014
- D. 1991-1996
Answer: 2004-2014
Explanation: He led two UPA governments from May 2004 to May 2014, and earlier was Finance Minister in 1991 during the economic reforms.
181. Which of the following was conferred the Bharat Ratna in 2024?
- A. Gulzarilal Nanda
- B. Lal Bahadur Shastri
- C. Chaudhary Charan Singh
- D. Morarji Desai
Answer: Chaudhary Charan Singh
Explanation: The 2024 Bharat Ratna list: Karpoori Thakur, L. K. Advani, P. V. Narasimha Rao, Chaudhary Charan Singh and M. S. Swaminathan.
182. Neeraj Chopra won the javelin silver medal at the Paris 2024 Olympics with a best throw of:
- A. 90.23 m
- B. 88.88 m
- C. 87.58 m
- D. 89.45 m
Answer: 89.45 m
Explanation: Neeraj threw 89.45 m behind Arshad Nadeem's Olympic record 92.97 m; 87.58 m was his Tokyo 2020 gold throw.
183. The final of the ICC Men's T20 World Cup 2024, in which India beat South Africa by 7 runs on 29 June 2024, was played at the Kensington Oval in:
- A. North Sound, Antigua
- B. Gros Islet, St Lucia
- C. Bridgetown, Barbados
- D. Providence, Guyana
Answer: Bridgetown, Barbados
Explanation: The 2024 T20 World Cup final was played at Kensington Oval, Bridgetown, Barbados; India won its second T20 World Cup.
184. Which section of the RP(UP) Act, 1966 deals with the disposal of persons arrested under the Act, before the inquiry by an officer of the Force?
- A. Section 11
- B. Section 4
- C. Section 10
- D. Section 7
Answer: Section 7
Explanation: Section 7 deals with the disposal of persons arrested under the Act. Section 6 gives the power of arrest, Section 8 provides for inquiry by an officer of the Force, Section 10 provides for search warrants and Section 11 applies the Code of Criminal Procedure to searches and arrests.
185. A transporter's vehicle carrying stolen railway property is seized by the RPF. How is custody of the vehicle handled pending trial?
- A. The Magistrate may release it on a bond (supurdnama) with conditions, after the seizure is reported
- B. It is auctioned immediately by the RPF Inspector
- C. It becomes railway property automatically
- D. It is returned to the driver without bond
Answer: The Magistrate may release it on a bond (supurdnama) with conditions, after the seizure is reported
Explanation: After the seizure report under BNSS s.106, the Magistrate decides interim custody under the Code's property-disposal provisions (s.497 onwards), commonly on supurdnama so that the vehicle is not left to rot. RPF has no power to forfeit or auction it.
186. 'Ramman', a ritual theatre and festival inscribed on UNESCO's Intangible Cultural Heritage list in 2009, is performed in which Indian state?
- A. Gujarat
- B. Uttarakhand
- C. Rajasthan
- D. Himachal Pradesh
Answer: Uttarakhand
Explanation: Ramman is a religious festival and ritual theatre of the Garhwal Himalayas, performed in Saloor-Dungra village of Chamoli district in honour of Bhumiyal Devta.
187. Kala-azar (visceral leishmaniasis), spread by sandflies, is caused by which type of organism?
- A. A protozoan (Leishmania donovani)
- B. A virus
- C. A bacterium
- D. A fungus
Answer: A protozoan (Leishmania donovani)
Explanation: Kala-azar is caused by the protozoan Leishmania donovani and transmitted by the female sandfly Phlebotomus argentipes; it remains endemic in parts of Bihar, Jharkhand, West Bengal and Uttar Pradesh.
188. Astigmatism of the human eye is corrected by using:
- A. Bifocal lenses
- B. Cylindrical lenses
- C. Convex spherical lenses
- D. Concave spherical lenses
Answer: Cylindrical lenses
Explanation: Astigmatism arises from unequal curvature of the cornea or lens in different planes, so a cylindrical lens that bends light in one plane only is used for correction.
189. Besides iron and carbon, which two metals are the principal alloying elements in common stainless steel?
- A. Zinc and copper
- B. Aluminium and magnesium
- C. Chromium and nickel
- D. Tin and lead
Answer: Chromium and nickel
Explanation: Stainless steel contains at least about 10.5% chromium, which forms a protective oxide layer, and commonly nickel (e.g. 18/8 steel) for toughness and corrosion resistance.
190. The share of States in the divisible pool of central taxes was raised from 32 per cent to 42 per cent on the recommendation of which Finance Commission?
- A. Twelfth Finance Commission
- B. Thirteenth Finance Commission
- C. Fifteenth Finance Commission
- D. Fourteenth Finance Commission
Answer: Fourteenth Finance Commission
Explanation: The Fourteenth Finance Commission, chaired by Y.V. Reddy, recommended 42 per cent for 2015-20; the Fifteenth Finance Commission set it at 41 per cent after Jammu and Kashmir became a Union Territory.
191. Pellagra, characterised by dermatitis, diarrhoea and dementia, results from deficiency of which vitamin?
- A. Niacin (Vitamin B3)
- B. Folic acid (Vitamin B9)
- C. Pyridoxine (Vitamin B6)
- D. Riboflavin (Vitamin B2)
Answer: Niacin (Vitamin B3)
Explanation: Pellagra is classically described by the 'three Ds' (dermatitis, diarrhoea, dementia) and is caused by niacin deficiency, historically common in populations dependent on maize.
192. The Treaty of Gandamak (1879) concluded which of the following conflicts?
- A. First phase of the Second Anglo-Afghan War
- B. First Anglo-Afghan War
- C. Second Anglo-Sikh War
- D. Third Anglo-Burmese War
Answer: First phase of the Second Anglo-Afghan War
Explanation: By the Treaty of Gandamak (May 1879) Amir Yakub Khan accepted a British Resident at Kabul and ceded control of foreign policy; the Resident was murdered months later and war resumed.
193. Which Indian member resigned from the Viceroy's Executive Council in protest against the Jallianwala Bagh massacre and the Punjab repression of 1919?
- A. Sir C. Sankaran Nair
- B. Sir Ali Imam
- C. Sir Tej Bahadur Sapru
- D. Sir S.P. Sinha
Answer: Sir C. Sankaran Nair
Explanation: C. Sankaran Nair resigned from the Executive Council in 1919 over the Punjab atrocities; he later wrote 'Gandhi and Anarchy', which led to a famous libel case in London.
194. The Bohr effect in human physiology describes:
- A. Increased affinity of haemoglobin for oxygen at higher CO2 concentration
- B. Decreased affinity of haemoglobin for oxygen at higher CO2 concentration or lower pH
- C. Conversion of carbonic acid to bicarbonate in plasma
- D. Binding of carbon monoxide to haemoglobin
Answer: Decreased affinity of haemoglobin for oxygen at higher CO2 concentration or lower pH
Explanation: In active tissues higher CO2 and lower pH shift the oxygen-haemoglobin dissociation curve to the right, so haemoglobin releases more oxygen where it is needed.
195. Plants with Crassulacean Acid Metabolism (CAM), such as Opuntia and pineapple, open their stomata mainly:
- A. During midday, to maximise gas exchange
- B. Only during rainfall
- C. At night, to reduce water loss
- D. Only at dawn and dusk
Answer: At night, to reduce water loss
Explanation: CAM plants take in CO2 at night when evaporation is low, store it as malic acid, and use it for the Calvin cycle during the day with stomata closed - an adaptation to arid conditions.
196. The Victoria Memorial in Kolkata was conceived after Queen Victoria's death in 1901 on the initiative of which Viceroy?
- A. Lord Minto
- B. Lord Hardinge
- C. Lord Curzon
- D. Lord Ripon
Answer: Lord Curzon
Explanation: Lord Curzon proposed the memorial in 1901; its foundation stone was laid in 1906 and it was opened to the public in 1921.
197. After nitrogen and oxygen, which gas is the third most abundant in dry air by volume?
- A. Helium
- B. Carbon dioxide
- C. Argon
- D. Neon
Answer: Argon
Explanation: Dry air is about 78.08% nitrogen, 20.95% oxygen and 0.93% argon; carbon dioxide is only about 0.04%.
198. A rocket accelerates in outer space, where there is no air to push against, primarily because of:
- A. Conservation of linear momentum as exhaust gases are expelled backward
- B. Magnetic interaction with Earth's field
- C. Gravitational pull of the Moon
- D. Atmospheric pressure acting on the nozzle
Answer: Conservation of linear momentum as exhaust gases are expelled backward
Explanation: Expelling exhaust backward gives the rocket an equal forward momentum, consistent with Newton's third law and conservation of momentum; no external medium is needed.
199. Erythropoietin, the hormone that stimulates red blood cell production in the bone marrow, is produced mainly by the:
- A. Liver
- B. Kidneys
- C. Spleen
- D. Pancreas
Answer: Kidneys
Explanation: Peritubular interstitial cells of the kidney release erythropoietin in response to low oxygen levels (hypoxia); chronic kidney disease therefore often causes anaemia.
200. Humayun's Tomb in Delhi, regarded as the first garden-tomb on the Indian subcontinent, was commissioned by:
- A. His widow Bega Begum (Haji Begum)
- B. Shah Jahan
- C. His son Akbar personally as architect
- D. Bairam Khan
Answer: His widow Bega Begum (Haji Begum)
Explanation: Humayun's widow Bega Begum commissioned the tomb (begun c. 1565) and the Persian architect Mirak Mirza Ghiyas designed it; it inspired later Mughal tomb architecture including the Taj Mahal.
201. The Kiel Canal, one of the world's busiest artificial waterways, connects the North Sea with which other sea?
- A. Baltic Sea
- B. Black Sea
- C. Adriatic Sea
- D. Mediterranean Sea
Answer: Baltic Sea
Explanation: The Kiel Canal in northern Germany links the North Sea (at Brunsbuttel) to the Baltic Sea (at Kiel), saving ships the voyage around Denmark's Jutland peninsula.
202. The Sahel, a belt of semi-arid land stretching across Africa, forms the transition zone between the Sahara Desert and which region to its south?
- A. Sudanian savanna
- B. Ethiopian highlands
- C. Kalahari desert
- D. Congo rainforest
Answer: Sudanian savanna
Explanation: The Sahel lies between the Sahara to the north and the wetter Sudanian savanna to the south, and is prone to droughts and desertification.
203. The neutron was discovered in 1932 by which scientist?
- A. Niels Bohr
- B. James Chadwick
- C. Ernest Rutherford
- D. Henri Becquerel
Answer: James Chadwick
Explanation: James Chadwick identified the neutron in 1932 by bombarding beryllium with alpha particles, earning the 1935 Nobel Prize in Physics.
204. Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) increases water reabsorption mainly by acting on which part of the nephron?
- A. Bowman's capsule
- B. Distal convoluted tubule and collecting duct
- C. Ascending limb of the loop of Henle
- D. Proximal convoluted tubule
Answer: Distal convoluted tubule and collecting duct
Explanation: ADH from the posterior pituitary inserts aquaporin channels into the distal tubule and collecting duct cells, letting water leave the filtrate and producing concentrated urine.
205. By the Treaty of Brest-Litovsk (March 1918), Soviet Russia made peace with which group of powers?
- A. The Central Powers, led by Germany
- B. The League of Nations members
- C. The Axis Powers of the 1930s
- D. The Allied Powers, led by Britain and France
Answer: The Central Powers, led by Germany
Explanation: The Bolshevik government signed Brest-Litovsk with Germany, Austria-Hungary, Bulgaria and the Ottoman Empire, taking Russia out of the First World War at the cost of large territorial losses.
206. The cold Humboldt (Peru) Current, which makes the coast of northern Chile and Peru unusually dry, flows in which ocean?
- A. Pacific Ocean
- B. Indian Ocean
- C. Atlantic Ocean
- D. Southern Ocean
Answer: Pacific Ocean
Explanation: The Humboldt Current carries cold water northward along South America's Pacific coast; upwelling and stable air suppress rainfall, helping create the Atacama Desert.
207. Which of the following countries does NOT have a coastline on the Caspian Sea?
- A. Uzbekistan
- B. Turkmenistan
- C. Kazakhstan
- D. Azerbaijan
Answer: Uzbekistan
Explanation: The five Caspian littoral states are Russia, Kazakhstan, Turkmenistan, Iran and Azerbaijan; landlocked Uzbekistan has no Caspian coast.
208. Which is the highest mountain peak lying entirely within the territory of Nepal?
- A. Dhaulagiri I
- B. Kangchenjunga
- C. Makalu
- D. Lhotse
Answer: Dhaulagiri I
Explanation: Dhaulagiri I (8,167 m) lies wholly in Nepal; Kangchenjunga, Lhotse, Makalu and Cho Oyu all sit on the border with India or China.
209. The 'Namghar' (prayer hall) and 'Sattra' (monastic institution) traditions of Assam were popularised by which Vaishnavite saint-reformer?
- A. Vallabhacharya
- B. Srimanta Sankardev
- C. Ramananda
- D. Chaitanya Mahaprabhu
Answer: Srimanta Sankardev
Explanation: Srimanta Sankardev (1449-1568) founded the Ekasarana Dharma, using Namghars, Sattras, the Borgeet songs and Sattriya dance-drama to spread devotion in Assam.
210. Which of the following devices works on the principle of electromagnetic induction discovered by Michael Faraday?
- A. Transformer
- B. Light-emitting diode
- C. Electric heater
- D. Dry cell
Answer: Transformer
Explanation: A transformer relies on a changing magnetic flux in the primary coil inducing an EMF in the secondary coil, as described by Faraday's law; it works only on alternating current.
211. Which major river of Africa crosses the Equator twice in its course?
- A. Congo
- B. Zambezi
- C. Niger
- D. Nile
Answer: Congo
Explanation: The Congo River, in its arc through the Congo basin, crosses the Equator twice, which gives it a steady flow year-round as one part is always in a rainy season.
212. The 'Abhinaya Darpana', a classical treatise that describes hand gestures (mudras) used in Indian classical dance, is attributed to:
- A. Bharata Muni
- B. Abhinavagupta
- C. Nandikeshvara
- D. Kalhana
Answer: Nandikeshvara
Explanation: Nandikeshvara's Abhinaya Darpana is a major text on gestures (hastas) and expression, while Bharata Muni's Natyashastra is the foundational treatise on performing arts.
213. Which element has the highest electronegativity on the Pauling scale?
- A. Chlorine
- B. Oxygen
- C. Fluorine
- D. Nitrogen
Answer: Fluorine
Explanation: Fluorine has an electronegativity of about 3.98 on the Pauling scale, the highest of all elements, followed by oxygen (3.44).
214. Which princely state was the first to be annexed by the British under the Doctrine of Lapse, in 1848?
- A. Satara
- B. Sambalpur
- C. Jhansi
- D. Nagpur
Answer: Satara
Explanation: Satara was annexed in 1848 after Raja Appa Sahib died without a natural heir; Sambalpur (1849), Jhansi (1853) and Nagpur (1854) followed.
215. Kandahar, repeatedly contested between the Mughals and the Safavids, was permanently lost by the Mughals in 1649 during the reign of:
- A. Akbar
- B. Aurangzeb
- C. Shah Jahan
- D. Jahangir
Answer: Shah Jahan
Explanation: Safavid Shah Abbas II recaptured Kandahar in 1649, and Mughal sieges under Aurangzeb and Dara Shikoh in 1652-53 failed to retake it during Shah Jahan's reign.
216. In a normal electrocardiogram (ECG), the QRS complex represents:
- A. Repolarisation of the ventricles
- B. Repolarisation of the atria
- C. Depolarisation of the atria
- D. Depolarisation of the ventricles
Answer: Depolarisation of the ventricles
Explanation: The P wave is atrial depolarisation, the QRS complex is ventricular depolarisation (triggering ventricular contraction) and the T wave is ventricular repolarisation.
217. Which of the following best describes the Mediterranean type of climate?
- A. Rain throughout the year with no dry season
- B. Hot, wet summers and cold, dry winters
- C. Hot, dry summers and mild, rainy winters
- D. Cold summers and heavy summer snowfall
Answer: Hot, dry summers and mild, rainy winters
Explanation: Mediterranean climates (about 30-45 degrees latitude on western continental margins) have winter rain from westerlies and dry summers under subtropical high pressure.
218. Which leader of the Revolt of 1857, aged about 80, led the rebels in Bihar from his base at Jagdishpur near Arrah?
- A. Khan Bahadur Khan
- B. Maulvi Ahmadullah Shah
- C. Nana Sahib
- D. Kunwar Singh
Answer: Kunwar Singh
Explanation: Kunwar Singh, the zamindar of Jagdishpur, led the revolt in Bihar and fought in the Arrah-Azamgarh region until his death in April 1858.
219. Under the Right to Information Act, 2005, if the information sought concerns the life or liberty of a person, the PIO must provide it within:
- A. 15 days
- B. 48 hours
- C. 7 days
- D. 24 hours
Answer: 48 hours
Explanation: Section 7(1) requires a reply within 30 days normally, but within 48 hours where the information concerns the life or liberty of a person.
220. An object is placed at a distance of 40 cm from a convex lens of focal length 20 cm. The image formed will be:
- A. Real, inverted, diminished, at 30 cm
- B. Real, inverted, magnified, at 60 cm
- C. Virtual, erect, magnified, at 40 cm on the same side
- D. Real, inverted, same size, at 40 cm on the other side
Answer: Real, inverted, same size, at 40 cm on the other side
Explanation: With u = -40 cm and f = +20 cm, the lens formula 1/v = 1/f + 1/u gives v = +40 cm; the object is at 2F so the image is real, inverted and equal in size.
221. Who hoisted the Congress flag at Gowalia Tank Maidan, Bombay, on 9 August 1942 after the top leaders had been arrested?
- A. Sucheta Kripalani
- B. Aruna Asaf Ali
- C. Sarojini Naidu
- D. Usha Mehta
Answer: Aruna Asaf Ali
Explanation: Aruna Asaf Ali hoisted the flag at Gowalia Tank on 9 August 1942 and then went underground, later editing the monthly 'Inquilab'; Usha Mehta ran the underground Congress Radio.
222. Kalsubai, the highest peak of the Western Ghats in Maharashtra, lies in which district?
- A. Satara
- B. Pune
- C. Ahmednagar
- D. Raigad
Answer: Ahmednagar
Explanation: Kalsubai (1,646 m) in the Sahyadri range lies in Akole taluka of Ahmednagar district, and is known as the 'Everest of Maharashtra'.
223. The Indian Association (1876), regarded as a forerunner of the Indian National Congress, was founded by Surendranath Banerjee and which other leader?
- A. W.C. Bonnerjee
- B. Dinshaw Wacha
- C. Ananda Mohan Bose
- D. Pherozeshah Mehta
Answer: Ananda Mohan Bose
Explanation: The Indian Association was founded in Calcutta in 1876 by Surendranath Banerjee and Ananda Mohan Bose as a more broad-based political body than the British Indian Association.
224. The Tropic of Capricorn passes through several countries. Which of the following is NOT crossed by it?
- A. Botswana
- B. Paraguay
- C. Bolivia
- D. Chile
Answer: Bolivia
Explanation: The Tropic of Capricorn crosses Namibia, Botswana, South Africa, Mozambique, Madagascar, Australia, Chile, Argentina, Paraguay and Brazil, but not Bolivia.
225. In the human stomach, the inactive precursor pepsinogen is converted into the active enzyme pepsin by:
- A. Bicarbonate
- B. Bile salts
- C. Enterokinase
- D. Hydrochloric acid
Answer: Hydrochloric acid
Explanation: Chief cells secrete pepsinogen, and HCl from parietal cells activates it (and pepsin then activates more pepsinogen); enterokinase instead activates trypsinogen in the intestine.
226. In C4 plants such as maize and sugarcane, the first stable product of atmospheric CO2 fixation in the mesophyll cells is a four-carbon compound. Which one?
- A. Ribulose bisphosphate
- B. Oxaloacetic acid
- C. Pyruvic acid
- D. 3-Phosphoglyceric acid
Answer: Oxaloacetic acid
Explanation: PEP carboxylase fixes CO2 onto phosphoenolpyruvate in mesophyll cells to give oxaloacetic acid (4C); C3 plants instead form 3-phosphoglyceric acid (3C) via RuBisCO.
227. Under the BNSS, 2023, a pardon to an accomplice may be tendered by a Chief Judicial Magistrate at any stage of investigation, inquiry or trial (and a Magistrate of the first class during inquiry or trial) for offences that are:
- A. Triable exclusively by the Court of Session or Special Judge, or punishable with imprisonment which may extend to seven years or more
- B. Only bailable offences
- C. Only petty offences
- D. Only offences punishable with death
Answer: Triable exclusively by the Court of Session or Special Judge, or punishable with imprisonment which may extend to seven years or more
Explanation: The pardon provision covers offences triable exclusively by the Court of Session or Special Judge, and offences punishable with imprisonment which may extend to seven years or with a more severe sentence.
228. Under the BNSS, 2023, when a Judge or Magistrate who has recorded part or whole of the evidence ceases to have jurisdiction and is succeeded by another, the successor:
- A. Must discard all recorded evidence and restart
- B. Must obtain the High Court's permission to read it
- C. May act on the evidence recorded by his predecessor, and may re-summon any witness whose further examination he thinks necessary
- D. May only use the evidence if the accused consents in writing
Answer: May act on the evidence recorded by his predecessor, and may re-summon any witness whose further examination he thinks necessary
Explanation: A successor may act on the predecessor's recorded evidence and may re-summon witnesses if further examination is necessary in the interest of justice.
229. Under the BNSS, 2023, a person ordered to give security for keeping the peace or for good behaviour may appeal against that order to:
- A. The Court of Session
- B. The High Court only
- C. The Supreme Court
- D. The Chief Judicial Magistrate
Answer: The Court of Session
Explanation: An appeal from an order requiring security for peace or good behaviour lies to the Court of Session.
230. Under the BNSS, 2023, an offence committed outside India by a citizen of India, though it may be dealt with as if committed at any place in India where he is found, cannot be inquired into or tried in India without:
- A. The consent of the foreign Government alone
- B. The previous sanction of the Central Government
- C. A direction from the High Court
- D. A recommendation from the Sessions Judge
Answer: The previous sanction of the Central Government
Explanation: For extraterritorial offences by Indian citizens, inquiry or trial in India requires the previous sanction of the Central Government.
231. Under the BNSS, 2023, an offence of criminal misappropriation or criminal breach of trust may be inquired into or tried by a Court within whose local jurisdiction:
- A. Only the head office of the accused's employer is situated
- B. Only the offence was committed
- C. Only the complainant resides
- D. The offence was committed, or any part of the property was received or retained, or was required to be returned or accounted for by the accused
Answer: The offence was committed, or any part of the property was received or retained, or was required to be returned or accounted for by the accused
Explanation: For misappropriation and breach of trust, jurisdiction lies where the offence was committed or where any part of the property was received, retained or had to be accounted for.
232. Under the BNSS, 2023, when a person already undergoing a term of imprisonment (other than life) is sentenced on a subsequent conviction to imprisonment, the later sentence ordinarily:
- A. Commences at the expiration of the previous sentence, unless the Court directs that it run concurrently
- B. Replaces the earlier sentence
- C. Runs concurrently by default
- D. Is limited to six months
Answer: Commences at the expiration of the previous sentence, unless the Court directs that it run concurrently
Explanation: The default is consecutive running; a Court may direct concurrency expressly.
233. Under the BNSS, 2023, when a person already undergoing imprisonment for life is sentenced on a subsequent conviction to imprisonment or imprisonment for life, the subsequent sentence:
- A. Starts after the first sentence ends
- B. Is automatically remitted
- C. Is void
- D. Runs concurrently with the previous sentence
Answer: Runs concurrently with the previous sentence
Explanation: For a person already serving a life term, any subsequent sentence of imprisonment runs concurrently with it by operation of law.
234. Under the BNSS, 2023, once a Court has signed its judgment or final order disposing of a case, it shall not alter or review it except to:
- A. Add new witnesses
- B. Change the sentence on request
- C. Substitute a conviction with acquittal
- D. Correct a clerical or arithmetical error
Answer: Correct a clerical or arithmetical error
Explanation: After signing, a Court becomes functus officio and may only correct clerical or arithmetical errors.
235. Under the BNSS, 2023, after a Sessions Court convicts an accused (and does not proceed to release him on probation), the Judge shall:
- A. Refer the sentence to the Public Prosecutor
- B. Hear the accused on the question of sentence and then pass sentence according to law
- C. Pass sentence immediately without any hearing
- D. Await a report from the police station
Answer: Hear the accused on the question of sentence and then pass sentence according to law
Explanation: A separate hearing on sentence is required after conviction in a Sessions trial before the Judge passes sentence according to law.
236. Under the BNSS, 2023, the legal effect of the composition of an offence is that it has the effect of:
- A. An acquittal of the accused with whom the offence has been compounded
- B. A conviction with reduced sentence
- C. Suspension of the trial for one year
- D. Discharge subject to re-prosecution
Answer: An acquittal of the accused with whom the offence has been compounded
Explanation: A lawful composition operates as an acquittal of the accused with whom the offence is compounded.
237. Under the compounding provisions of the BNSS, 2023, a compoundable offence cannot be compounded where the accused:
- A. Is a woman
- B. Is, by reason of a previous conviction, liable to enhanced punishment or to a punishment of a different kind for the offence
- C. Is represented by an advocate
- D. Is a first-time offender
Answer: Is, by reason of a previous conviction, liable to enhanced punishment or to a punishment of a different kind for the offence
Explanation: Composition is barred where, because of a previous conviction, the accused would face enhanced or different punishment for the offence.
238. Under the BNSS, 2023, if a subordinate Court is satisfied that a pending case involves the validity of an Act which it considers invalid but which has not been declared so by the High Court or Supreme Court, it shall:
- A. Decide the validity itself and declare the Act void
- B. State a case setting out its opinion and reasons and refer it to the High Court
- C. Forward the matter to the Law Commission
- D. Dismiss the case
Answer: State a case setting out its opinion and reasons and refer it to the High Court
Explanation: A subordinate Court cannot declare an Act invalid; it must refer the question to the High Court with its opinion and reasons.
239. Under the BNSS, 2023, if a person has applied for revision of an order either to the High Court or to the Sessions Judge, then:
- A. No further application by him shall be entertained by the other Court
- B. The Supreme Court must be informed
- C. Both Courts hear the matter together
- D. He may apply again to the other Court on the same matter
Answer: No further application by him shall be entertained by the other Court
Explanation: Once a person has invoked the revisional jurisdiction of either the High Court or the Sessions Judge, the other cannot entertain a further application by the same person.
240. Under the BNSS, 2023, in exercising revisional powers the High Court or Sessions Judge is NOT empowered to:
- A. Order inquiry into a complaint dismissed by a Magistrate
- B. Direct that the execution of a sentence be suspended
- C. Call for and examine the record of any proceeding
- D. Convert a finding of acquittal into one of conviction
Answer: Convert a finding of acquittal into one of conviction
Explanation: A revisional Court cannot convert a finding of acquittal into conviction; it may only order retrial or further inquiry in appropriate cases.