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1441. In a suspected sabotage of a railway track causing an accident, criminal investigation is primarily conducted by:
- A. NDMA
- B. The Divisional Railway Manager
- C. Government Railway Police (GRP) of the State, with agencies such as NIA if required
- D. Railway Claims Tribunal
Answer: Government Railway Police (GRP) of the State, with agencies such as NIA if required
Explanation: GRP registers the FIR and investigates crimes on railways; RPF assists and secures the site.
1442. Which Act of 1897 gives State Governments special powers to take measures during outbreak of dangerous epidemic diseases?
- A. Epidemic Diseases Act, 1897
- B. Public Health Act, 1897
- C. Quarantine Act, 1897
- D. Contagious Diseases Act, 1897
Answer: Epidemic Diseases Act, 1897
Explanation: The Epidemic Diseases Act, 1897 (4 sections) is invoked in epidemics.
1443. In public health emergencies, 'quarantine' differs from 'isolation' in that quarantine:
- A. Separates and restricts apparently healthy people who may have been exposed
- B. Applies only to animals
- C. Applies only to ships
- D. Separates people already confirmed ill
Answer: Separates and restricts apparently healthy people who may have been exposed
Explanation: Isolation separates the sick; quarantine separates the exposed but not yet ill.
1444. The Atomic Energy Regulatory Board (AERB), India's nuclear safety regulator, was constituted in:
- A. 2010
- B. 1983
- C. 1962
- D. 2005
Answer: 1983
Explanation: AERB was constituted in 1983 under the Atomic Energy Act, 1962.
1445. Potassium iodide tablets are issued in a nuclear emergency primarily to:
- A. Block uptake of radioactive iodine by the thyroid
- B. Neutralise radioactive caesium in the bones
- C. Prevent all radiation sickness
- D. Cure burns
Answer: Block uptake of radioactive iodine by the thyroid
Explanation: KI saturates the thyroid with stable iodine so radioactive iodine is not taken up.
1446. The three basic principles of protection from external radiation are:
- A. Dose, rate and alarm
- B. Heat, light and sound
- C. Speed, mass and charge
- D. Time, distance and shielding
Answer: Time, distance and shielding
Explanation: Minimise time near the source, maximise distance and use shielding.
1447. The basic rule for splinting a fractured long bone in first aid is to immobilise:
- A. Only the fracture site
- B. Only the joint above
- C. The entire body in a sitting position
- D. The joints above and below the fracture
Answer: The joints above and below the fracture
Explanation: Immobilising the joints above and below prevents movement at the fracture.
1448. Heat stroke is a medical emergency characterised by a core body temperature above:
- A. 38 degrees C with cold clammy skin
- B. 40 degrees C with hot dry skin and confusion
- C. 35 degrees C with pallor
- D. 37 degrees C with shivering
Answer: 40 degrees C with hot dry skin and confusion
Explanation: Heat stroke needs immediate cooling and urgent medical transfer.
1449. In relief camps, the Sphere standard for minimum covered living space is about:
- A. 0.5 square metre per person
- B. 1 square metre per person
- C. 10 square metres per person
- D. 3.5 square metres per person
Answer: 3.5 square metres per person
Explanation: Sphere sets a minimum of 3.5 sq m of covered living area per person.
1450. The Sphere standards recommend a minimum water supply for drinking, cooking and basic hygiene of at least:
- A. 3 litres per person per day
- B. 50 litres per person per day
- C. 100 litres per person per day
- D. 15 litres per person per day
Answer: 15 litres per person per day
Explanation: Sphere sets 15 litres per person per day; shelter 3.5 sq m covered area per person; at most 20 people per toilet.
1451. The NDMA Guidelines on Management of Cyclones and Floods were released in:
- A. 2016
- B. 2011
- C. 2005
- D. 2008
Answer: 2008
Explanation: Floods and cyclones guidelines both came in 2008, the earthquake guidelines in 2007.
1452. The NDMA Guidelines on Management of Urban Flooding were published in:
- A. 2014
- B. 2010
- C. 2005
- D. 2018
Answer: 2010
Explanation: They were issued in 2010 after Mumbai 2005 and Surat 2006 urban flood events.
1453. The NDMA Guidelines on Management of Landslides and Snow Avalanches were issued in:
- A. 2007
- B. 2009
- C. 2016
- D. 2012
Answer: 2009
Explanation: Landslide and snow avalanche guidelines date from 2009; urban flooding and tsunami guidelines from 2010.
1454. The NDMA Guidelines on Chemical Disasters (Industrial) were released in:
- A. 2019
- B. 2007
- C. 2004
- D. 2013
Answer: 2007
Explanation: Chemical (Industrial) disaster guidelines were issued in 2007; biological in 2008; nuclear and radiological in 2009.
1455. The National Disaster Management Authority was formally constituted by notification on:
- A. 27 September 2006
- B. 19 January 2006
- C. 23 December 2005
- D. 1 June 2016
Answer: 27 September 2006
Explanation: The NDMA was notified on 27 September 2006 under the DM Act, 2005.
1456. The Disaster Management Authority at district level, under Section 34, may do which of the following when a disaster threatens?
- A. Amend the National Plan
- B. Control and restrict entry, movement and departure of persons and vehicles in the vulnerable area
- C. Dismiss State officers
- D. Issue central bonds
Answer: Control and restrict entry, movement and departure of persons and vehicles in the vulnerable area
Explanation: Section 34 powers include restricting traffic and entry, removal of debris, shelter, and release of resources.
1457. Section 13 of the DM Act, 2005 empowers the Central Government to provide:
- A. Compulsory acquisition of land
- B. Free train travel for all
- C. Immunity from prosecution for relief workers
- D. Relief in repayment of loans or fresh loans on concessional terms to affected persons
Answer: Relief in repayment of loans or fresh loans on concessional terms to affected persons
Explanation: Section 13 allows concessional loans or relief in repayment in a severe disaster, following the NDMA's recommendation.
1458. Under Section 12 of the DM Act, 2005, the National Authority recommends guidelines for:
- A. Media accreditation
- B. Railway tariffs in disasters
- C. Minimum standards of relief to be provided to persons affected by disaster
- D. Recruitment of NDRF personnel
Answer: Minimum standards of relief to be provided to persons affected by disaster
Explanation: Section 12 covers shelter, food, water, medical cover and sanitation, ex gratia assistance for death and for restoring livelihood.
1459. The Vizag (Visakhapatnam) LG Polymers gas leak of 7 May 2020 involved:
- A. Ammonia
- B. Methyl isocyanate
- C. Styrene vapour
- D. Chlorine
Answer: Styrene vapour
Explanation: Styrene leaked from storage tanks at the RR Venkatapuram plant of LG Polymers.
1460. Joshimath in Uttarakhand drew national attention in January 2023 because of:
- A. A lake outburst in Ladakh
- B. A cyclone
- C. A train accident
- D. Land subsidence with cracks in houses
Answer: Land subsidence with cracks in houses
Explanation: Subsidence in Joshimath led to cracks in buildings and relocation of residents.
1461. The Wayanad landslides in Kerala (Mundakkai and Chooralmala) took place on:
- A. 7 February 2021
- B. 30 July 2024
- C. 2 June 2023
- D. 16 June 2013
Answer: 30 July 2024
Explanation: Heavy rainfall triggered massive landslides in Wayanad district in the early hours of 30 July 2024.
1462. The 2005 Kashmir (Muzaffarabad) earthquake that also affected Uri and Tangdhar in India occurred on:
- A. 30 September 1993
- B. 8 October 2005
- C. 26 December 2004
- D. 26 January 2001
Answer: 8 October 2005
Explanation: A 7.6 magnitude earthquake struck on 8 October 2005 with its epicentre near Muzaffarabad.
1463. The 2005 Mumbai floods occurred on which date?
- A. 8 October 2005
- B. 26 July 2005
- C. 26 December 2005
- D. 15 August 2005
Answer: 26 July 2005
Explanation: Over 940 mm rain fell in 24 hours on 26 July 2005, paralysing Mumbai including its rail network.
1464. The 26 December 2004 Indian Ocean tsunami was generated by an earthquake off the coast of:
- A. Sumatra (Indonesia)
- B. Chile
- C. Japan
- D. Alaska
Answer: Sumatra (Indonesia)
Explanation: A magnitude ~9.1 earthquake off northern Sumatra triggered it; Tamil Nadu, Andaman and Nicobar were badly hit.
1465. Tsunami natural warning signs on a coast include:
- A. A rising temperature in the sea only
- B. A strong earthquake and sudden withdrawal of the sea
- C. A cloudless sky
- D. Fog in the evening
Answer: A strong earthquake and sudden withdrawal of the sea
Explanation: A felt earthquake and unusual sea drawdown are natural warnings; move inland or to high ground at once.
1466. The 'triangle of life' idea is considered:
- A. Valid only for railway coaches
- B. Valid only in tsunamis
- C. Not supported by evidence; authorities recommend Drop, Cover and Hold On
- D. The standard NDMA advice
Answer: Not supported by evidence; authorities recommend Drop, Cover and Hold On
Explanation: Disaster agencies reject it in favour of Drop, Cover and Hold On.
1467. During an earthquake while in a building, the recommended action is:
- A. Run to the lift
- B. Drop, Cover and Hold On under sturdy furniture
- C. Stand in the doorway on the top floor
- D. Jump from the window
Answer: Drop, Cover and Hold On under sturdy furniture
Explanation: Drop, Cover, Hold On is the standard guidance; lifts must be avoided.
1468. After an earthquake, the first RPF action along a section is to:
- A. Close the station and send staff home
- B. Resume normal speed immediately
- C. Wait for the media to report damage
- D. Stop trains and report to control until the track and bridges are inspected
Answer: Stop trains and report to control until the track and bridges are inspected
Explanation: Trains are stopped and cautioned until the permanent way is certified safe.
1469. Rail track vulnerability to heat in summer is chiefly due to:
- A. Thermal expansion causing sun-kinks or buckling
- B. Magnetisation of the rails
- C. Ballast melting
- D. Rails shrinking
Answer: Thermal expansion causing sun-kinks or buckling
Explanation: Welded rails expand in heat; buckling must be reported and protected with speed restrictions.
1470. Which sign indicates imminent bridge washout danger that RPF track patrols must report immediately?
- A. Slight drizzle
- B. Moderate wind
- C. Distant thunder
- D. Water level near or above danger level, scouring of piers or settlement of the approach
Answer: Water level near or above danger level, scouring of piers or settlement of the approach
Explanation: High water, pier scour and embankment subsidence are classic bridge-failure warning signs.
1471. In a flood, a railway line is submerged and a train is stranded in the open. Which action by RPF is correct?
- A. Tell passengers to cross the track at night
- B. Ask all passengers to wade through the flood to the nearest village
- C. Open all doors and leave the train unattended
- D. Keep passengers inside until rescue teams with boats arrive, supply water and communicate regularly
Answer: Keep passengers inside until rescue teams with boats arrive, supply water and communicate regularly
Explanation: Wading through floodwater is hazardous; passengers are safest on the train until organised evacuation.
1472. Which RPF duty at a disaster site is most closely associated with preventing theft from victims and wreckage?
- A. Cordoning the site and preparing an inventory of recovered property
- B. Declaring the cause of the accident
- C. Disbursing compensation
- D. Operating the relief crane
Answer: Cordoning the site and preparing an inventory of recovered property
Explanation: The RPF secures railway and passenger property and lists recovered items for hand-over.
1473. At a mass-casualty site, a casualty tagged Black under triage is one who is:
- A. Awaiting transport after stabilisation
- B. Dead or unlikely to survive given available resources
- C. Slightly injured and walking
- D. Needing immediate surgery with good survival chance
Answer: Dead or unlikely to survive given available resources
Explanation: Black = deceased or expectant; Red = immediate; Yellow = delayed; Green = minor.
1474. The ratio of chest compressions to breaths for a child (two rescuers) in modern CPR guidelines is:
- A. 15:2
- B. 30:2
- C. 10:2
- D. 5:1
Answer: 15:2
Explanation: Two-rescuer paediatric CPR uses 15:2; single rescuer uses 30:2.
1475. Which first-aid measure is appropriate for a casualty found unconscious but breathing normally after a collision?
- A. Sit him upright and slap his face
- B. Leave him until the ambulance arrives with no checks
- C. Pour water into the mouth
- D. Recovery position with airway kept open, if spinal injury is not suspected
Answer: Recovery position with airway kept open, if spinal injury is not suspected
Explanation: Recovery position keeps the airway clear; never give fluids to an unconscious casualty.
1476. Crowd density above which the risk of crush injuries becomes serious is generally taken to be about:
- A. 0.5 persons per square metre
- B. 2 persons per square metre
- C. 1 person per square metre
- D. 5 persons per square metre
Answer: 5 persons per square metre
Explanation: At about 5 persons per sq m, movement becomes involuntary; above 6-7 crowd turbulence and crush are likely.
1477. When a crowd surges on a station foot overbridge, the most effective immediate crowd-control measure is to:
- A. Stop inflow at the source and open alternative exit routes
- B. Close all exits
- C. Increase announcements of train arrivals
- D. Push people back towards the platform
Answer: Stop inflow at the source and open alternative exit routes
Explanation: Reducing inflow and creating outflow relieves crush pressure.
1478. A train fire breaks out in a coach on a bridge. The most appropriate RPF-guided action is to:
- A. Keep running to the next station at full speed
- B. Throw water on the coach from the bridge
- C. Lock all doors to control the fire
- D. Stop the train safely, uncouple the burning coach from the rest, and evacuate passengers away from it
Answer: Stop the train safely, uncouple the burning coach from the rest, and evacuate passengers away from it
Explanation: Isolate the burning vehicle and evacuate; speed and locked doors worsen spread.
1479. The Traction Power Controller (TPC) is responsible during a rail accident for:
- A. Controlling the crowd
- B. Switching off and restoring OHE power in the affected section
- C. Issuing media statements
- D. Deciding compensation amounts
Answer: Switching off and restoring OHE power in the affected section
Explanation: TPC grants power block/permit to work and restores power after clearance.
1480. Overhead traction wires (25 kV AC) are found hanging over a derailed coach. The first action before approaching is to:
- A. Get the traction power switched off and earthed through the TPC/control
- B. Cut the wire using a hacksaw
- C. Touch it with a wooden stick to test it
- D. Assume it is dead if the train stopped
Answer: Get the traction power switched off and earthed through the TPC/control
Explanation: Traction current must be isolated and earthed by the competent power controller before anyone approaches.
1481. While rescuing passengers from a derailed coach at night, which RPF practice best prevents secondary injuries?
- A. Use the coach roof as a stretcher
- B. Pull all casualties out by the arms immediately
- C. Move only the walking wounded and leave others
- D. Do not move casualties with suspected spinal injury except to avoid danger; use proper stretchers and lighting
Answer: Do not move casualties with suspected spinal injury except to avoid danger; use proper stretchers and lighting
Explanation: Spinal precautions and controlled extrication prevent worsening of injuries.
1482. An ASI of RPF reaches a derailment site before railway officials. Which sequence of priorities is correct?
- A. Recover valuables first, then help the injured
- B. Cordon the area, then collect statements, and only later inform control
- C. Inform control, start rescue and first aid, cordon the area, then protect property and evidence
- D. Wait for the CRS before any rescue action
Answer: Inform control, start rescue and first aid, cordon the area, then protect property and evidence
Explanation: Life saving and alerting control come first; protection of property and evidence follow.
1483. School Safety Policy Guidelines were issued by NDMA in:
- A. 2005
- B. 2023
- C. 2016
- D. 2011
Answer: 2016
Explanation: NDMA issued the National Disaster Management Guidelines: School Safety Policy in 2016, and Hospital Safety in 2016 as well.
1484. Which app, developed by IITM Pune, provides lightning alerts to users?
- A. Umang
- B. Meghdoot
- C. Damini
- D. Mausam Seva
Answer: Damini
Explanation: The Damini app gives lightning alerts based on a lightning-detection network; Meghdoot is for agro-advisories.
1485. SACHET, launched by NDMA, is best described as:
- A. A Common Alerting Protocol-based platform for disaster alerts to mobiles
- B. A satellite for cyclone tracking
- C. A relief fund for fire victims
- D. A training academy for NDRF
Answer: A Common Alerting Protocol-based platform for disaster alerts to mobiles
Explanation: SACHET integrates agencies' warnings (IMD, CWC, INCOIS, etc.) and sends geo-targeted SMS and cell broadcast alerts.
1486. The Aapda Mitra scheme launched in 2016 as a pilot trains volunteers in how many most hazard-prone districts?
- A. 30 districts in 25 States
- B. 100 districts in 29 States
- C. 5 districts in 2 States
- D. 10 districts in 5 States
Answer: 30 districts in 25 States
Explanation: The pilot covered 30 flood- or hazard-prone districts of 25 States to train community volunteers.
1487. Which Union Ministry is nodal for nuclear and radiological emergencies?
- A. Ministry of Environment
- B. Department of Atomic Energy
- C. Ministry of Power
- D. Ministry of Health
Answer: Department of Atomic Energy
Explanation: DAE is nodal; NDMA issued its nuclear and radiological emergencies guidelines in 2009.
1488. Which Union Ministry is the nodal ministry for biological disasters and epidemics?
- A. Ministry of Environment
- B. Ministry of Science and Technology
- C. Ministry of Health and Family Welfare
- D. Ministry of Agriculture
Answer: Ministry of Health and Family Welfare
Explanation: Health Ministry is nodal for biological disasters; Agriculture for drought and pest attacks.
1489. Which Union Ministry is the nodal ministry for disasters caused by railway accidents?
- A. Ministry of Home Affairs
- B. Ministry of Road Transport
- C. Ministry of Railways
- D. Ministry of Civil Aviation
Answer: Ministry of Railways
Explanation: Railway accidents are handled by Ministry of Railways, air accidents by Civil Aviation, with MHA coordinating.
1490. The National Crisis Management Committee (NCMC) is headed by:
- A. The Prime Minister
- B. The Chief of Defence Staff
- C. The Union Home Minister
- D. The Cabinet Secretary
Answer: The Cabinet Secretary
Explanation: The NCMC, headed by the Cabinet Secretary, coordinates response to major crises.
1491. In 2002 the responsibility for disaster management in the Union Government was shifted from the Ministry of Agriculture to the:
- A. Ministry of Environment
- B. Ministry of Railways
- C. Ministry of Home Affairs
- D. Ministry of Defence
Answer: Ministry of Home Affairs
Explanation: After the Gujarat earthquake the subject moved to MHA in 2002.
1492. The High Powered Committee (HPC) on Disaster Management, set up in August 1999, was chaired by:
- A. J. C. Pant
- B. K. Kasturirangan
- C. Montek Singh Ahluwalia
- D. Bhagwati Prasad
Answer: J. C. Pant
Explanation: The HPC chaired by J. C. Pant submitted its report in October 2001, recommending a national DM framework.
1493. Risk in disaster management is often expressed as:
- A. Hazard + Capacity
- B. Capacity x Exposure / Hazard
- C. Vulnerability - Hazard
- D. Hazard x Vulnerability / Capacity
Answer: Hazard x Vulnerability / Capacity
Explanation: Risk rises with hazard and vulnerability and falls with coping capacity.
1494. Operation Madad was the Indian Navy's relief effort during the:
- A. 2013 Uttarakhand floods
- B. 2018 Kerala floods
- C. 2001 Gujarat earthquake
- D. 1999 Odisha cyclone
Answer: 2018 Kerala floods
Explanation: Operation Madad rescued stranded people in Kerala in August 2018.
1495. Operation Dost, in which NDRF teams were deployed abroad in February 2023, was India's assistance to:
- A. Myanmar after a tsunami
- B. Sri Lanka after a cyclone
- C. Nepal after floods
- D. Turkey and Syria after earthquakes
Answer: Turkey and Syria after earthquakes
Explanation: Operation Dost followed the 6 February 2023 earthquakes in Turkey and Syria.
1496. Operation Maitri was India's relief operation after which disaster?
- A. Nepal earthquake, April 2015
- B. Turkey earthquake, February 2023
- C. Kerala floods, August 2018
- D. Indian Ocean tsunami, December 2004
Answer: Nepal earthquake, April 2015
Explanation: Operation Maitri followed the 25 April 2015 Gorkha earthquake; NDRF teams and IAF aircraft were deployed.
1497. The first phase of the World Bank-assisted National Cyclone Risk Mitigation Project (NCRMP) covered which States?
- A. West Bengal and Tamil Nadu
- B. Kerala and Karnataka
- C. Gujarat and Maharashtra
- D. Andhra Pradesh and Odisha
Answer: Andhra Pradesh and Odisha
Explanation: NCRMP Phase I (2011 onwards) built multi-purpose cyclone shelters and embankments in Andhra Pradesh and Odisha.
1498. The NDMP 2016 is organised around how many priority themes aligned with the Sendai Framework?
- A. Four
- B. Seven
- C. Five
- D. Three
Answer: Four
Explanation: Four themes: understanding disaster risk, inter-agency coordination, investing in DRR (structural and non-structural), and capacity development.
1499. The first National Disaster Management Plan, prepared under Section 11 of the DM Act, 2005, was released by the Prime Minister on:
- A. 15 August 2005
- B. 2 October 2019
- C. 1 June 2016
- D. 26 January 2009
Answer: 1 June 2016
Explanation: The NDMP was released on 1 June 2016, as the first national plan; a revised plan aligned with Sendai followed in 2019.
1500. The National Calamity Contingent Duty (NCCD), a source of central funds for calamity relief, was introduced in:
- A. 2005
- B. 2001
- C. 2016
- D. 1985
Answer: 2001
Explanation: NCCD was introduced in the Finance Act 2001 after the Odisha super cyclone and Gujarat earthquake period.
1501. A State may use up to what share of its SDRF allocation for local disasters that it notifies, outside the notified list of disasters?
- A. 50 per cent
- B. 25 per cent
- C. 10 per cent
- D. 5 per cent
Answer: 10 per cent
Explanation: States may use up to 10% of SDRF funds for locally specific disasters.
1502. Special-category States (such as Himachal Pradesh and Uttarakhand) contribute what share to their SDRF under current norms?
- A. 10 per cent
- B. Nothing
- C. 50 per cent
- D. 25 per cent
Answer: 10 per cent
Explanation: The Centre gives 90% and special-category States 10% of their SDRF.
1503. Under the Finance Commission norms, the Centre-State funding share for the SDRF in general-category States is:
- A. 50:50
- B. 75:25
- C. 60:40
- D. 90:10
Answer: 75:25
Explanation: The Centre contributes 75% and the State 25% to the SDRF in general States; 90:10 applies to special-category States.
1504. Which official in the IRS is responsible for the safety of response personnel and can halt unsafe operations?
- A. Logistics Section Chief
- B. Planning Section Chief
- C. Safety Officer
- D. Liaison Officer
Answer: Safety Officer
Explanation: The Safety Officer in the Command Staff monitors hazards and may stop unsafe operations.
1505. The Command Staff in the NDMA's IRS comprises the Incident Commander and which three officers?
- A. Operations, Planning and Logistics Chiefs
- B. Staging, Base and Camp Managers
- C. Finance, Legal and Medical Officers
- D. Information and Media Officer, Safety Officer and Liaison Officer
Answer: Information and Media Officer, Safety Officer and Liaison Officer
Explanation: Command Staff: Information & Media Officer, Safety Officer, Liaison Officer; General Staff: Operations, Planning, Logistics Section Chiefs.
1506. In the Incident Response System, who is the Responsible Officer at the district level?
- A. The Superintendent of Police
- B. The District Magistrate
- C. The Chief Medical Officer
- D. The Station Master
Answer: The District Magistrate
Explanation: The DM is the Responsible Officer and appoints the Incident Commander; the IC runs the Incident Response Team.
1507. At the scene of a mass-casualty rail accident, the 'Golden Hour' refers to:
- A. The hour before dawn when rescue should stop
- B. The first hour of media briefing
- C. The last hour of the CRS inquiry
- D. The first hour after injury, in which definitive care most improves survival
Answer: The first hour after injury, in which definitive care most improves survival
Explanation: Trauma outcomes depend on rapid transport and treatment within roughly the first hour.
1508. The 15 February 2025 crowd crush at New Delhi Railway Station was linked to travellers heading to:
- A. Kedarnath Yatra
- B. Amritsar for the Golden Temple
- C. Prayagraj for the Maha Kumbh
- D. Vaishno Devi
Answer: Prayagraj for the Maha Kumbh
Explanation: A stampede on a foot overbridge/platforms killed 18 passengers amid Maha Kumbh traffic.
1509. The unmanned level crossings on the Indian Railways broad gauge network were eliminated by:
- A. April 2023
- B. 31 January 2019
- C. March 2005
- D. December 2012
Answer: 31 January 2019
Explanation: All unmanned level crossings on broad gauge were removed by 31 January 2019.
1510. Claims for compensation arising from railway accidents are adjudicated by:
- A. Consumer Disputes Commission
- B. Railway Claims Tribunal
- C. The Railway Board
- D. NDMA
Answer: Railway Claims Tribunal
Explanation: The Railway Claims Tribunal Act, 1987 created the tribunal with benches across the country.
1511. Compensation for death or injury of passengers in 'untoward incidents' is payable under which section of the Railways Act, 1989?
- A. Section 66
- B. Section 124A
- C. Section 113
- D. Section 147
Answer: Section 124A
Explanation: Section 124A provides no-fault compensation; claims are heard by the Railway Claims Tribunal.
1512. Under the Railways Act, 1989, the term 'untoward incident' is defined in section:
- A. Section 150
- B. Section 124
- C. Section 123(c)
- D. Section 3
Answer: Section 123(c)
Explanation: Section 123(c) defines untoward incident (terrorist act, violence, robbery, dacoity, rioting, shoot-out, arson in a train carrying passengers; accidental fall).
1513. Until the Commissioner of Railway Safety permits, the accident site should ordinarily be handled so that:
- A. All wreckage is cleared at once for traffic
- B. Wagons are cut and removed before photography
- C. Wreckage is not disturbed beyond what rescue and restoration of life-saving access require
- D. Signal and track records are overwritten
Answer: Wreckage is not disturbed beyond what rescue and restoration of life-saving access require
Explanation: Evidence (wheel marks, track, signals, relay positions) is preserved for the inquiry once lives are saved.
1514. The statutory inquiry into a serious train accident under the Railways Act, 1989 is conducted by:
- A. The Director General RPF
- B. The Divisional Railway Manager
- C. The Commissioner of Railway Safety (CRS)
- D. The Railway Board Chairman
Answer: The Commissioner of Railway Safety (CRS)
Explanation: The CRS, who functions under the Ministry of Civil Aviation, independent of Railway Board, conducts statutory inquiries.
1515. Which of the following is the number of the integrated all-India emergency response helpline launched under the ERSS?
- A. 112
- B. 101
- C. 1098
- D. 108
Answer: 112
Explanation: 112 is the single emergency number; 101 is fire, 108 ambulance and 1098 Childline.
1516. Rashtriya Rail Sanraksha Kosh (RRSK), announced in the 2017-18 Budget, had a corpus of:
- A. Rs 1 lakh crore over five years
- B. Rs 10,000 crore
- C. Rs 5 lakh crore
- D. Rs 50,000 crore over ten years
Answer: Rs 1 lakh crore over five years
Explanation: RRSK was a Rs 1 lakh crore fund over five years for safety works such as track renewal and level crossing removal.
1517. The Indian Railways Kavach system, first notified as the indigenous Train Collision Avoidance System, was developed by:
- A. Foreign vendors under a licence
- B. ISRO exclusively
- C. RDSO with Indian industry partners
- D. DRDO alone
Answer: RDSO with Indian industry partners
Explanation: Kavach is an indigenous Automatic Train Protection system developed by RDSO with Indian industries; it aims at SIL-4 safety.
1518. The 29 September 2017 Elphinstone Road (Mumbai) station disaster was a:
- A. Stampede on a foot overbridge
- B. Platform fire
- C. Bomb blast
- D. Train collision
Answer: Stampede on a foot overbridge
Explanation: A stampede on a narrow foot overbridge during heavy rain killed 23 people.
1519. The 19 October 2018 Amritsar rail accident, killing about 59 people, happened when:
- A. A DMU ran over people standing on the track watching a Dussehra effigy burning
- B. A bridge collapsed in a flood
- C. Two express trains collided head-on
- D. A fire broke out in a coach
Answer: A DMU ran over people standing on the track watching a Dussehra effigy burning
Explanation: The crowd had spilled on to the track near Joda Phatak; it is cited as a crowd-management and trespass failure.
1520. The Jnaneswari Express derailment and collision of 28 May 2010 occurred near Sardiha in which state?
- A. Odisha
- B. West Bengal
- C. Bihar
- D. Jharkhand
Answer: West Bengal
Explanation: The train derailed due to sabotage of the track near Khemasuli/Sardiha in West Bengal and was hit by a goods train, killing about 148.
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