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1521. The Rafiganj rail accident of 9 September 2002 involved which train falling off the Dhave river bridge in Bihar?
- A. Howrah-New Delhi Rajdhani Express
- B. Sealdah Duronto
- C. Kalka Mail
- D. Jnaneswari Express
Answer: Howrah-New Delhi Rajdhani Express
Explanation: The Rajdhani derailed on the Dhave river bridge near Rafiganj, with over 100 deaths, attributed to sabotage.
1522. The Firozabad rail collision of 20 August 1995 involved which trains?
- A. Golden Temple Mail and Frontier Mail
- B. Rajdhani and Shatabdi
- C. Kalindi Express and Purushottam Express
- D. Howrah Mail and Gitanjali
Answer: Kalindi Express and Purushottam Express
Explanation: Purushottam Express rammed the stationary Kalindi Express, which had hit a nilgai, near Firozabad.
1523. The 1956 Ariyalur train accident, after which a Union Railway Minister resigned, occurred at a bridge over which river?
- A. Marudaiyaru (Kollidam region), Tamil Nadu
- B. Bagmati, Bihar
- C. Ganga, Uttar Pradesh
- D. Sabarmati, Gujarat
Answer: Marudaiyaru (Kollidam region), Tamil Nadu
Explanation: Lal Bahadur Shastri offered to resign after the Ariyalur accident (November 1956) where a bridge collapsed in floods.
1524. The 1981 Bihar train disaster, one of India's worst rail accidents, involved a train falling into which river?
- A. Bagmati
- B. Gandak
- C. Kosi
- D. Sone
Answer: Bagmati
Explanation: On 6 June 1981 a train between Mansi and Saharsa fell off the Bagmati bridge, with several hundred deaths.
1525. The Dhanushkodi train tragedy of December 1964, in which the Pamban-Dhanushkodi passenger train was swept away, was caused by:
- A. A cyclone with a storm surge
- B. A dam burst
- C. A bridge collision
- D. An earthquake
Answer: A cyclone with a storm surge
Explanation: A severe cyclone and storm surge on 22-23 December 1964 destroyed Dhanushkodi and washed away the train.
1526. The NDMA Guidelines on 'Medical Preparedness and Mass Casualty Management' date from:
- A. 2019
- B. 2007
- C. 2016
- D. 2010
Answer: 2007
Explanation: The medical preparedness and mass casualty guidelines were issued in 2007.
1527. The National Policy on Disaster Management was approved by the Union Cabinet in:
- A. October 2009
- B. January 2006
- C. December 2005
- D. June 2016
Answer: October 2009
Explanation: The National Policy on Disaster Management was approved in October 2009; the first NDMP followed in 2016.
1528. The NDMA Guidelines on Incident Response System (IRS) were issued in:
- A. 2007
- B. 2013
- C. 2020
- D. 2010
Answer: 2010
Explanation: IRS guidelines were issued in 2010 on the model of an Incident Command System.
1529. The NDMA Guidelines for Preparation of Action Plan: Prevention and Management of Heat-Wave were issued in:
- A. 2016
- B. 2023
- C. 2005
- D. 2010
Answer: 2016
Explanation: Heat-wave guidelines were issued in 2016 (earlier heat-wave action plans date to Ahmedabad, 2013).
1530. The NDMA Guidelines on Managing Crowds at Events and Venues of Mass Gathering were published in:
- A. 2008
- B. 2019
- C. 2021
- D. 2014
Answer: 2014
Explanation: The 2014 guide covers stampede prevention, crowd estimation and venue design.
1531. The NDMA Guidelines on 'Management of Dead in the Aftermath of Disasters' were issued in:
- A. 2005
- B. 2019
- C. 2016
- D. 2010
Answer: 2010
Explanation: These guidelines on dignified management of the dead were issued in 2010.
1532. Which extinguishing agent is most suitable for a live electrical fire in a railway control panel?
- A. Wet sand bucket thrown from distance
- B. Water jet
- C. Foam
- D. Carbon dioxide
Answer: Carbon dioxide
Explanation: CO2 is non-conductive and leaves no residue; water and foam conduct electricity.
1533. The 'PASS' technique for using a portable fire extinguisher stands for:
- A. Prepare, Assess, Switch, Shout
- B. Pull, Aim, Squeeze, Sweep
- C. Push, Alert, Spray, Stop
- D. Point, Arm, Start, Spray
Answer: Pull, Aim, Squeeze, Sweep
Explanation: Pull the pin, aim at the base of the fire, squeeze the handle, sweep side to side.
1534. Which fire class involves combustible metals such as magnesium and sodium?
- A. Class D
- B. Class A
- C. Class C
- D. Class B
Answer: Class D
Explanation: Class A solids; B flammable liquids; C gases; D metals; water must not be used on D fires.
1535. For severe external bleeding from a limb, the first-line first-aid measure is:
- A. Giving water to drink
- B. Washing the wound with plain water for ten minutes
- C. Direct firm pressure on the wound
- D. Applying ice only
Answer: Direct firm pressure on the wound
Explanation: Direct pressure with a clean pad, elevation, then a tourniquet if bleeding is life-threatening and uncontrolled.
1536. The recommended chest compression rate for adult CPR is:
- A. 140 to 160 per minute
- B. 100 to 120 per minute
- C. 40 to 50 per minute
- D. 60 to 80 per minute
Answer: 100 to 120 per minute
Explanation: Compress hard and fast at 100-120 per minute, allowing full chest recoil.
1537. The recommended adult CPR compression-to-ventilation ratio for a single rescuer is:
- A. 30:2
- B. 10:1
- C. 15:2
- D. 5:1
Answer: 30:2
Explanation: Current guidelines advise 30 compressions to 2 breaths, at 100-120 per minute and 5-6 cm depth in adults.
1538. In START triage the first step is to direct all casualties who can walk to a designated area; they are classified as:
- A. Yellow (delayed)
- B. Green (minor)
- C. Red (immediate)
- D. Black (expectant)
Answer: Green (minor)
Explanation: Walking wounded are tagged Green and moved first; the rest are assessed for respiration, perfusion and mental status.
1539. In the START triage system, a casualty who is breathing at more than 30 respirations per minute is tagged:
- A. Black (deceased)
- B. Red (immediate)
- C. Green (minor)
- D. Yellow (delayed)
Answer: Red (immediate)
Explanation: START tags Red any casualty with respiration above 30/min, delayed capillary refill (over 2 s) or inability to follow commands.
1540. Level A personal protective equipment in hazmat response provides:
- A. The highest level of respiratory, skin and eye protection (fully encapsulating suit with SCBA)
- B. Standard work uniform
- C. Only a dust mask
- D. Air-purifying respirator with splash suit only
Answer: The highest level of respiratory, skin and eye protection (fully encapsulating suit with SCBA)
Explanation: Level A = highest protection; B = highest respiratory but lesser skin; C = air-purifying respirator; D = work uniform.
1541. In hazmat operations, the 'warm zone' (contamination reduction corridor) is where:
- A. Only the victims are left untreated
- B. Decontamination of personnel and equipment is carried out
- C. Chemical is directly neutralised by all responders
- D. Command post and public are located
Answer: Decontamination of personnel and equipment is carried out
Explanation: Hot zone = contaminated area, warm zone = decontamination corridor, cold zone = support and command.
1542. Carriage of dangerous and explosive goods by Indian Railways is governed by the IRCA publication popularly known as the:
- A. Blue Book
- B. Green Book
- C. Red Tariff
- D. Yellow Book
Answer: Red Tariff
Explanation: The Red Tariff (IRCA Goods Tariff) lists dangerous goods with packing and carriage conditions.
1543. UN hazard Class 7 on a wagon placard signifies:
- A. Toxic substances
- B. Corrosive substances
- C. Oxidising substances
- D. Radioactive material
Answer: Radioactive material
Explanation: Class 7 is radioactive material; class 8 is corrosives.
1544. In the UN hazard classification used on dangerous-goods placards, Class 3 refers to:
- A. Gases
- B. Radioactive material
- C. Flammable liquids
- D. Explosives
Answer: Flammable liquids
Explanation: Class 1 explosives; 2 gases; 3 flammable liquids; 4 flammable solids; 5 oxidisers; 6 toxic/infectious; 7 radioactive; 8 corrosives; 9 miscellaneous.
1545. The Chemical Accidents (Emergency Planning, Preparedness and Response) Rules, 1996 were framed under which parent law?
- A. Explosives Act, 1884
- B. Indian Railways Act, 1989
- C. Environment (Protection) Act, 1986
- D. Factories Act, 1948
Answer: Environment (Protection) Act, 1986
Explanation: The CAEPPR Rules 1996 flow from the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 and set up crisis groups at Centre, State and district levels.
1546. The Public Liability Insurance Act, 1991 was enacted to:
- A. Regulate banks during disasters
- B. Provide immediate relief to victims of accidents involving hazardous substances
- C. Create the SDRF
- D. Insure railway passengers
Answer: Provide immediate relief to victims of accidents involving hazardous substances
Explanation: It mandates insurance by owners handling hazardous substances so that victims receive relief on a no-fault basis.
1547. The gas responsible for the Bhopal tragedy of 2-3 December 1984 was:
- A. Phosgene alone
- B. Methyl isocyanate (MIC)
- C. Ammonia
- D. Chlorine
Answer: Methyl isocyanate (MIC)
Explanation: Methyl isocyanate leaked from the Union Carbide pesticide plant at Bhopal.
1548. The Bhopal Gas Leak Disaster (Processing of Claims) Act, 1985 empowered the Central Government to:
- A. Set up the NDRF
- B. Represent the victims exclusively in claims against Union Carbide
- C. Prosecute only the Madhya Pradesh Government
- D. Close all chemical plants
Answer: Represent the victims exclusively in claims against Union Carbide
Explanation: The 1985 Act made the Union the sole representative of gas-leak victims (parens patriae) in claims.
1549. The Central Water Commission (CWC) is the nodal agency for which function in disaster management?
- A. Cyclone tracking
- B. Earthquake monitoring
- C. Flood forecasting and warning on major rivers
- D. Chemical hazard mapping
Answer: Flood forecasting and warning on major rivers
Explanation: CWC issues flood forecasts at its network of river stations.
1550. Which agency is the nodal agency for landslide hazard assessment and forecasting in India?
- A. Survey of India
- B. Central Water Commission
- C. Geological Survey of India
- D. India Meteorological Department
Answer: Geological Survey of India
Explanation: GSI is the nodal agency for landslide studies and the National Landslide Susceptibility Mapping.
1551. Snow avalanche forecasting for the Himalayan region in India is the responsibility of:
- A. CWC New Delhi
- B. NIDM Delhi
- C. INCOIS Hyderabad
- D. DGRE (Defence Geoinformatics Research Establishment), Chandigarh
Answer: DGRE (Defence Geoinformatics Research Establishment), Chandigarh
Explanation: DGRE, a DRDO lab, issues avalanche forecasts; GSI is the nodal agency for landslides.
1552. IMD's heat wave criterion for plains requires a maximum temperature of at least 40 degrees C and a departure from normal of:
- A. 0.5 degrees C
- B. 4.5 to 6.4 degrees C
- C. 8 to 10 degrees C
- D. 1 to 2 degrees C
Answer: 4.5 to 6.4 degrees C
Explanation: A heat wave: max temp 40 C or above (plains) with a departure of 4.5-6.4 C; a severe heat wave if the departure exceeds 6.4 C.
1553. Which Indian state is called the 'Land of Floods' due to the annual Brahmaputra inundation, and which river is known as 'Sorrow of Bihar'?
- A. Assam; the Kosi
- B. Odisha; the Mahanadi
- C. West Bengal; the Gandak
- D. Uttar Pradesh; the Ghaghara
Answer: Assam; the Kosi
Explanation: Assam faces yearly Brahmaputra floods; the Kosi, which shifts its course, is the 'Sorrow of Bihar'.
1554. The 2021 Chamoli disaster in Uttarakhand on 7 February was triggered by:
- A. A dam breach at Tehri
- B. A rock-ice avalanche and flash flood in the Rishiganga and Dhauliganga
- C. A cyclone on the Garhwal coast
- D. An earthquake of magnitude 7
Answer: A rock-ice avalanche and flash flood in the Rishiganga and Dhauliganga
Explanation: A rock-ice avalanche from Ronti peak caused a flash flood that hit the Rishiganga and Tapovan hydro projects.
1555. The Kedarnath disaster in Uttarakhand occurred in which month and year?
- A. February 2021
- B. August 2008
- C. June 2013
- D. July 2005
Answer: June 2013
Explanation: A cloudburst and glacial flood on 16-17 June 2013 devastated Kedarnath and the Mandakini valley.
1556. Cyclone Phailin of October 2013 is remembered mainly because:
- A. It caused the highest-ever death toll in India
- B. It was the first cyclone named by IMD
- C. It struck the Gujarat coast
- D. Timely warning and mass evacuation kept casualties very low despite its intensity
Answer: Timely warning and mass evacuation kept casualties very low despite its intensity
Explanation: Over 800,000 people were evacuated in Odisha and Andhra Pradesh; deaths were in the tens, compared with about 10,000 in 1999.
1557. The 1999 Odisha Super Cyclone made landfall near which place on 29 October 1999?
- A. Gopalpur
- B. Chandipur
- C. Puri
- D. Paradip
Answer: Paradip
Explanation: The Super Cyclone crossed the coast near Paradip with winds of about 260 km/h and killed roughly 10,000 people.
1558. The Latur (Killari) earthquake in Maharashtra occurred on:
- A. 30 September 1993
- B. 8 October 2005
- C. 26 January 2001
- D. 20 October 1991
Answer: 30 September 1993
Explanation: The Latur-Killari earthquake of 30 September 1993 (about 6.2) killed nearly 10,000 people in a stable continental region.
1559. The 26 January 2001 Bhuj earthquake had a moment magnitude of approximately:
- A. 6.2
- B. 8.6
- C. 7.7
- D. 5.9
Answer: 7.7
Explanation: The Bhuj (Gujarat) earthquake was Mw 7.7 and caused about 20,000 deaths; Latur 1993 was about 6.2.
1560. The Modified Mercalli scale used for earthquakes measures:
- A. Intensity (observed effects) from I to XII
- B. Magnitude from 1 to 10
- C. Duration of tremor in seconds
- D. Depth of focus
Answer: Intensity (observed effects) from I to XII
Explanation: The Mercalli scale grades intensity (effects on people and structures) from I to XII; Richter/moment magnitude measures energy.
1561. Each whole-number increase on the Richter (magnitude) scale corresponds to approximately how much increase in energy released?
- A. 10 times
- B. 100 times
- C. 2 times
- D. About 32 times
Answer: About 32 times
Explanation: Amplitude increases tenfold per unit, while energy increases by about 31.6 (roughly 32) times.
1562. The Zone factor assigned to Seismic Zone IV under IS 1893 (2002) is:
- A. 0.10
- B. 0.24
- C. 0.16
- D. 0.36
Answer: 0.24
Explanation: Zone factors: II 0.10, III 0.16, IV 0.24, V 0.36.
1563. As per the BIS earthquake code (IS 1893, 2002), India's seismic zoning map has how many zones, and which is the most severe?
- A. Three zones; Zone III
- B. Four zones (II to V); Zone V
- C. Six zones; Zone VI
- D. Five zones (I to V); Zone I
Answer: Four zones (II to V); Zone V
Explanation: The 2002 revision merged Zone I into Zone II, giving Zones II-V; Zone V is the most severe (zone factor 0.36).
1564. IMD declares meteorological drought over an area when the seasonal rainfall deficiency exceeds:
- A. 5 per cent
- B. 10 per cent
- C. 25 per cent of the long-period normal
- D. 50 per cent only
Answer: 25 per cent of the long-period normal
Explanation: A deficiency of over 25% is meteorological drought; it is 'severe' when the deficiency exceeds 50%.
1565. In IMD's rainfall classification, 'extremely heavy rainfall' is rainfall in 24 hours of:
- A. 204.5 mm or more
- B. 7.5 to 35.5 mm
- C. 115.6 to 204.4 mm
- D. 64.5 to 115.5 mm
Answer: 204.5 mm or more
Explanation: Heavy: 64.5-115.5 mm; very heavy: 115.6-204.4 mm; extremely heavy: 204.5 mm or more.
1566. According to IMD's definition, a 'cloudburst' is rainfall of roughly:
- A. 25 mm per hour over 500 sq km
- B. 10 mm per day over a district
- C. 50 mm per day over a state
- D. 100 mm per hour over a small area of about 20-30 sq km
Answer: 100 mm per hour over a small area of about 20-30 sq km
Explanation: A cloudburst is an extreme localised rainfall of about 100 mm/hour over roughly 20-30 sq km.
1567. Which agency issues tsunami early warnings for the Indian Ocean region from its centre at Hyderabad?
- A. INCOIS (Indian National Centre for Ocean Information Services)
- B. IMD Pune
- C. Geological Survey of India
- D. NDMA
Answer: INCOIS (Indian National Centre for Ocean Information Services)
Explanation: INCOIS under MoES runs the Indian Tsunami Early Warning Centre, established in October 2007 after the 2004 tsunami.
1568. IMD New Delhi functions as the Regional Specialised Meteorological Centre (RSMC) for tropical cyclones over which region?
- A. Southwest Indian Ocean
- B. North Indian Ocean (Bay of Bengal and Arabian Sea)
- C. Western North Pacific only
- D. South Pacific
Answer: North Indian Ocean (Bay of Bengal and Arabian Sea)
Explanation: IMD is a WMO-designated RSMC for the North Indian Ocean, naming cyclones from an agreed list.
1569. IMD's colour-coded warning 'Orange' means:
- A. Take action (warning)
- B. Be prepared (alert) for severe weather
- C. Be aware (watch)
- D. No action is needed
Answer: Be prepared (alert) for severe weather
Explanation: Green: no action; Yellow: be aware; Orange: be prepared; Red: take action.
1570. A tropical system is called a 'Super Cyclonic Storm' by IMD when sustained wind speed is:
- A. 89 km/h or more
- B. 167 km/h or more
- C. 118 km/h or more
- D. 222 km/h or more
Answer: 222 km/h or more
Explanation: The Super Cyclonic Storm category begins at 222 km/h (120 knots).
1571. On the IMD scale for tropical cyclones over the North Indian Ocean, a system with maximum sustained winds of 118-166 km/h is classified as:
- A. Extremely Severe Cyclonic Storm
- B. Super Cyclonic Storm
- C. Severe Cyclonic Storm
- D. Very Severe Cyclonic Storm
Answer: Very Severe Cyclonic Storm
Explanation: IMD: Cyclonic Storm 62-88, Severe 89-117, Very Severe 118-166, Extremely Severe 167-221, Super Cyclonic 222 km/h or more.
1572. The 1st and 2nd NDRF Battalions, raised from the BSF, are based at:
- A. Mundali and Arakkonam respectively
- B. Guwahati and Kolkata respectively
- C. Pune and Gandhinagar respectively
- D. Bhatinda and Ghaziabad respectively
Answer: Guwahati and Kolkata respectively
Explanation: 1st Bn is at Guwahati and 2nd Bn at Kolkata (Haringhata).
1573. The 8th NDRF Battalion (from ITBP) is located at:
- A. Ghaziabad, Uttar Pradesh
- B. Kolkata, West Bengal
- C. Guwahati, Assam
- D. Arakkonam, Tamil Nadu
Answer: Ghaziabad, Uttar Pradesh
Explanation: 8th Bn NDRF is at Ghaziabad and 7th at Bhatinda, both from ITBP.
1574. Which NDRF battalion is headquartered at Gandhinagar (Gujarat)?
- A. 6th Battalion
- B. 5th Battalion
- C. 2nd Battalion
- D. 7th Battalion
Answer: 6th Battalion
Explanation: 6th Bn NDRF (CRPF) is at Gandhinagar; 5th is at Pune, 7th at Bhatinda.
1575. The 3rd NDRF Battalion is located at Mundali near:
- A. Bhatinda, Punjab
- B. Arakkonam, Tamil Nadu
- C. Guwahati, Assam
- D. Cuttack, Odisha
Answer: Cuttack, Odisha
Explanation: 3rd Bn NDRF (CISF) is at Mundali, Cuttack; 4th Bn is at Arakkonam.
1576. The NDRF was initially raised in 2006 with eight battalions drawn from which Central Armed Police Forces?
- A. Army, Navy, Air Force and BSF
- B. Assam Rifles, SSB, NSG and RPF
- C. CRPF, RPF, SSB and CISF
- D. BSF, CRPF, CISF and ITBP (two each)
Answer: BSF, CRPF, CISF and ITBP (two each)
Explanation: The original eight battalions came two each from BSF, CRPF, CISF and ITBP; SSB battalions were added later.
1577. Each NDRF battalion is organised into how many self-contained specialist response teams of about 45 personnel each?
- A. 24
- B. 18
- C. 8
- D. 12
Answer: 18
Explanation: Each NDRF battalion has 18 self-contained specialist teams of 45 personnel, including engineers, technicians, medics and dog squads.
1578. The motto of the National Disaster Response Force is:
- A. Sada Sarvatra Tatpar
- B. Aapda Seva Sadaiv
- C. Seva Suraksha Santulan
- D. Sarvatra Sarvottam Suraksha
Answer: Aapda Seva Sadaiv
Explanation: NDRF's motto is 'Aapda Seva Sadaiv' (disaster service always).
1579. NDRF Raising Day, marking the raising of the force in 2006, is observed on:
- A. 19 January
- B. 26 January
- C. 1 June
- D. 13 October
Answer: 19 January
Explanation: NDRF Raising Day is 19 January.
1580. India hosted the Asian Ministerial Conference on Disaster Risk Reduction (AMCDRR) in New Delhi in November 2016, at which the Prime Minister announced:
- A. Dissolution of the NDMA
- B. A Ten-Point Agenda for Disaster Risk Reduction
- C. A new Ministry of Disaster Management
- D. A ban on construction in seismic zone V
Answer: A Ten-Point Agenda for Disaster Risk Reduction
Explanation: The Prime Minister's Ten-Point Agenda on DRR was announced at AMCDRR, 3-5 November 2016.
1581. The Coalition for Disaster Resilient Infrastructure (CDRI) was launched by India at which event?
- A. Sendai conference, March 2015
- B. G20 Summit, Osaka, June 2019
- C. AMCDRR Delhi, November 2016
- D. UN Climate Action Summit, New York, September 2019
Answer: UN Climate Action Summit, New York, September 2019
Explanation: PM Modi launched CDRI on 23 September 2019 at the UN Climate Action Summit; its secretariat is in New Delhi.
1582. The International Decade for Natural Disaster Reduction (IDNDR) declared by the UN General Assembly spanned:
- A. 1980-1989
- B. 2000-2009
- C. 1995-2005
- D. 1990-1999
Answer: 1990-1999
Explanation: IDNDR was 1990-1999, leading to the 1994 Yokohama Strategy.
1583. The Hyogo Framework for Action, adopted at the World Conference on Disaster Reduction in 2005, covered which period?
- A. 2015-2030
- B. 2005-2015
- C. 1994-2004
- D. 1990-1999
Answer: 2005-2015
Explanation: The Hyogo Framework (Kobe, Japan) ran 2005-2015, and had five priorities for action; Sendai succeeded it.
1584. Sendai Target (G) aims to substantially increase by 2030 the availability of and access to:
- A. Insurance for every household
- B. Disaster-proof housing for all citizens
- C. Multi-hazard early warning systems and disaster risk information
- D. Standing armies for relief
Answer: Multi-hazard early warning systems and disaster risk information
Explanation: Target G concerns multi-hazard early warning systems and risk information and assessments.
1585. How many global targets does the Sendai Framework contain, and what does Target (E) require?
- A. Four; reduce global mortality by half
- B. Seven; eliminate disasters by 2030
- C. Five; double early warning budgets
- D. Seven; increase the number of countries with national and local DRR strategies by 2020
Answer: Seven; increase the number of countries with national and local DRR strategies by 2020
Explanation: Seven targets (A-G); Target E is more countries with national and local DRR strategies by 2020.
1586. Under the Sendai Framework, 'Build Back Better' is associated with which priority for action?
- A. Priority 2: risk governance
- B. Priority 4: preparedness for effective response and better recovery, rehabilitation and reconstruction
- C. Priority 3: investing in resilience only
- D. Priority 1: understanding disaster risk
Answer: Priority 4: preparedness for effective response and better recovery, rehabilitation and reconstruction
Explanation: Build Back Better in recovery, rehabilitation and reconstruction is part of Priority 4.
1587. The first of the four priorities for action under the Sendai Framework is:
- A. Strengthening disaster risk governance
- B. Investing in DRR for resilience
- C. Understanding disaster risk
- D. Enhancing preparedness and Build Back Better
Answer: Understanding disaster risk
Explanation: Priority 1 is understanding disaster risk; 2 governance; 3 investing in resilience; 4 preparedness and Build Back Better.
1588. The Sendai Framework for Disaster Risk Reduction 2015-2030 was adopted at the Third UN World Conference on DRR held at:
- A. Geneva, Switzerland, June 2015
- B. Yokohama, Japan, May 1994
- C. Kobe, Japan, January 2005
- D. Sendai, Japan, 14-18 March 2015
Answer: Sendai, Japan, 14-18 March 2015
Explanation: The Sendai Framework came out of the third UN World Conference held in Sendai, Miyagi on 14-18 March 2015.
1589. Article 355 of the Constitution casts which duty on the Union relevant to disaster and disturbance situations in States?
- A. To dissolve State legislatures in calamities
- B. To protect every State against external aggression and internal disturbance
- C. To fund all State relief from the Consolidated Fund
- D. To appoint Disaster Relief Commissioners
Answer: To protect every State against external aggression and internal disturbance
Explanation: Article 355 requires the Union to protect States against external aggression and internal disturbance; it is cited as the basis for central assistance in grave situations.
1590. Fire services appear in the Constitution of India as an item of which Schedule?
- A. Eleventh Schedule (Panchayats)
- B. Twelfth Schedule (functions of Municipalities)
- C. Union List of the Seventh Schedule
- D. Fifth Schedule
Answer: Twelfth Schedule (functions of Municipalities)
Explanation: Fire services is entry 7 of the Twelfth Schedule, listing municipal functions under Article 243W.
1591. Under Section 67 of the DM Act, 2005, the Central or State Government or the concerned Authority may issue directions to the media for:
- A. Communication of warnings and instructions to the public in a threatening disaster situation
- B. Censoring all news about relief expenditure
- C. Suspending newspapers in the affected district
- D. Collecting relief donations on its behalf
Answer: Communication of warnings and instructions to the public in a threatening disaster situation
Explanation: Section 67 allows directions to the media to carry authenticated warnings, advice and instructions; it is not a power of censorship.
1592. Who is the ex-officio Co-Chairperson of a District Disaster Management Authority in a non-tribal district under Section 25 of the DM Act, 2005?
- A. The Chief Medical Officer
- B. The Divisional Commissioner
- C. The Superintendent of Police
- D. The elected Chairperson of the Zilla Parishad
Answer: The elected Chairperson of the Zilla Parishad
Explanation: The Collector/District Magistrate chairs the DDMA, while the elected Chairperson of the Zilla Parishad is the Co-Chairperson.
1593. Who is the ex-officio Chairperson of the State Executive Committee (SEC) under the DM Act, 2005?
- A. The Governor
- B. The Chief Secretary of the State
- C. The Chief Minister
- D. The State Relief Commissioner
Answer: The Chief Secretary of the State
Explanation: Section 20 makes the Chief Secretary the ex officio Chairperson of the State Executive Committee.
1594. Who chairs the National Executive Committee (NEC) under the DM Act, 2005?
- A. The Cabinet Secretary
- B. The Vice-Chairperson of the NDMA
- C. The Union Home Secretary, as Secretary in charge of the Ministry dealing with disaster management
- D. The Union Home Minister
Answer: The Union Home Secretary, as Secretary in charge of the Ministry dealing with disaster management
Explanation: The NEC is chaired ex officio by the Secretary to the Government of India in charge of the Ministry/Department handling disaster management, i.e. the Home Secretary.
1595. Under Section 3 of the DM Act, 2005, the NDMA consists of the Chairperson and members not exceeding:
- A. Nine
- B. Seven
- C. Eleven
- D. Fifteen
Answer: Nine
Explanation: Section 3 provides for the Prime Minister as Chairperson and up to nine other members, one of whom may be designated Vice-Chairperson.
1596. Which section of the DM Act, 2005 covers the State Plan, which every State Authority must prepare in accordance with the National Plan guidelines?
- A. Section 37
- B. Section 31
- C. Section 11
- D. Section 23
Answer: Section 23
Explanation: Section 23 deals with the State Plan; s.11 is the National Plan and s.31 the District Plan.
1597. Which section of the DM Act, 2005 empowers the Central Government to take all measures necessary for disaster management, including coordination with State Governments and international bodies?
- A. Section 22
- B. Section 38
- C. Section 41
- D. Section 35
Answer: Section 35
Explanation: Section 35 enumerates measures by the Central Government; section 38 covers State Governments.
1598. Which section of the DM Act, 2005 requires every local authority to ensure that its officers and employees are trained and to carry out relief, rehabilitation and reconstruction in the affected area?
- A. Section 38
- B. Section 14
- C. Section 30
- D. Section 41
Answer: Section 41
Explanation: Section 41 lays down the functions of local authorities including Panchayati Raj Institutions, municipalities and town planning authorities.
1599. Which sections of the DM Act, 2005 provide for the National Disaster Response Fund and the National Disaster Mitigation Fund respectively?
- A. Sections 48 and 49
- B. Sections 50 and 51
- C. Sections 46 and 47
- D. Sections 44 and 45
Answer: Sections 46 and 47
Explanation: Section 46 creates the National Disaster Response Fund and section 47 the National Disaster Mitigation Fund; section 48 covers State and District funds.
1600. The National Disaster Response Force is constituted under which section of the DM Act, 2005?
- A. Section 35
- B. Section 44
- C. Section 60
- D. Section 46
Answer: Section 44
Explanation: Section 44 provides for the NDRF for specialist response, under general superintendence of the NDMA with the DG appointed by the Centre.
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