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321. The 'Ek Ped Maa Ke Naam' campaign was launched by PM Modi on which occasion in 2024?
- A. World Environment Day (5 June)
- B. Earth Day (22 April)
- C. International Yoga Day (21 June)
- D. Van Mahotsav (1 July)
Answer: World Environment Day (5 June)
Explanation: The campaign urges people to plant a tree in their mother's name.
322. The Gujarat Asiatic lion population estimate released in May 2025 was about:
- A. 891
- B. 674
- C. 1,100
- D. 523
Answer: 891
Explanation: The 16th Lion Population Estimation showed 891 lions, up from 674 in 2020.
323. The International Big Cat Alliance (IBCA) launched in April 2023 is headquartered in:
- A. Kenya
- B. Nepal
- C. India
- D. Switzerland
Answer: India
Explanation: It was launched at Mysuru by PM Modi for the conservation of seven big cats, with its secretariat in India.
324. The 2022 All India Tiger Estimation, released in April 2023 at Mysuru, put India's tiger population at about:
- A. 3,167
- B. 4,200
- C. 2,967
- D. 3,682
Answer: 3,682
Explanation: The estimate was announced on the 50th anniversary of Project Tiger; the earlier 2018 figure was 2,967.
325. Bharat Mandapam, the venue of the G20 Summit 2023, is located at which place in Delhi?
- A. Red Fort
- B. Pragati Maidan
- C. Dwarka Sector 25
- D. Yashobhoomi
Answer: Pragati Maidan
Explanation: The International Exhibition-Convention Centre at Pragati Maidan was inaugurated on 26 July 2023.
326. Which airport, inaugurated by PM Modi in October 2025, is billed as the largest greenfield airport project in the Mumbai region?
- A. Dholera International Airport
- B. Noida International Airport
- C. Bhogapuram Airport
- D. Navi Mumbai International Airport
Answer: Navi Mumbai International Airport
Explanation: Navi Mumbai International Airport, developed by Adani Airport Holdings with CIDCO, was inaugurated on 8 October 2025.
327. The first section of the Delhi-Ghaziabad-Meerut RRTS was launched in October 2023 under which brand name?
- A. Vande Metro
- B. Namo Bharat
- C. Amrit Bharat
- D. Rapid Rail Express
Answer: Namo Bharat
Explanation: The priority section ran from Sahibabad to Duhai Depot and the RapidX trains were renamed Namo Bharat.
328. India's first underwater metro transport tunnel, inaugurated in March 2024, runs beneath which river?
- A. Krishna
- B. Ganga at Patna
- C. Yamuna
- D. Hooghly
Answer: Hooghly
Explanation: The Kolkata Metro's East-West corridor passes beneath the Hooghly River.
329. The Sela Tunnel, inaugurated in March 2024, provides all-weather connectivity to which district of Arunachal Pradesh?
- A. Changlang
- B. Tawang
- C. Lohit
- D. Siang
Answer: Tawang
Explanation: At about 13,000 ft it is the world's longest bi-lane tunnel at that altitude.
330. Sudarshan Setu, inaugurated in February 2024, connects Okha with which island?
- A. Majuli
- B. Elephanta
- C. Diu
- D. Beyt Dwarka
Answer: Beyt Dwarka
Explanation: The 2.32 km bridge in Gujarat is India's longest cable-stayed bridge.
331. The Mumbai Trans Harbour Link, inaugurated in January 2024 and renamed Atal Setu, is India's longest:
- A. Sea bridge
- B. Cable-stayed bridge
- C. Underwater tunnel
- D. Rail bridge
Answer: Sea bridge
Explanation: The 21.8 km bridge connects Sewri in Mumbai with Nhava Sheva in Navi Mumbai.
332. In October 2024 the Union Cabinet granted classical language status to which of the following?
- A. Gujarati and Konkani
- B. Hindi, Urdu and Punjabi
- C. Marathi, Pali, Prakrit, Assamese and Bengali
- D. Maithili and Dogri
Answer: Marathi, Pali, Prakrit, Assamese and Bengali
Explanation: This took the number of classical languages from six to eleven.
333. Which two sites were inscribed on the UNESCO World Heritage List from India in September 2023?
- A. Hampi and Pattadakal
- B. Dholavira and Ramappa Temple
- C. Khajuraho and Konark
- D. Santiniketan and the Sacred Ensembles of the Hoysalas
Answer: Santiniketan and the Sacred Ensembles of the Hoysalas
Explanation: Santiniketan (West Bengal) and the Hoysala temples of Belur, Halebidu and Somanathapura (Karnataka) were inscribed at the Riyadh session.
334. India's 2024 general election recorded about how many crore votes polled, termed the world's largest electoral exercise?
- A. 40.1 crore
- B. 64.2 crore
- C. 54.0 crore
- D. 75.5 crore
Answer: 64.2 crore
Explanation: Of about 96.8 crore registered electors, 64.2 crore voted at a turnout of about 66.3%.
335. The Mauni Amavasya crowd crush at the Maha Kumbh on 29 January 2025 occurred at which place?
- A. Nashik Ramkund
- B. Near the Sangam area, Prayagraj
- C. Haridwar Har Ki Pauri
- D. Ujjain Ram Ghat
Answer: Near the Sangam area, Prayagraj
Explanation: The crush occurred near the Sangam during the Amrit Snan, with 30 deaths officially reported.
336. The Ladki Bahin Yojana, launched by Maharashtra in 2024, provides eligible women a monthly assistance of:
- A. Rs 1,000
- B. Rs 500
- C. Rs 1,500
- D. Rs 2,100
Answer: Rs 1,500
Explanation: Rs 1,500 per month is paid to eligible women aged 21-65 with family income up to Rs 2.5 lakh.
337. Cyclone Fengal of late November 2024 made landfall near which place?
- A. Visakhapatnam
- B. Mangaluru
- C. Kolkata
- D. Puducherry
Answer: Puducherry
Explanation: Fengal, named by Saudi Arabia, hit the coast near Puducherry on 30 November 2024.
338. Cyclone Biparjoy, which made landfall near Jakhau in Gujarat's Kutch in June 2023, was named by:
- A. Oman
- B. Sri Lanka
- C. Bangladesh
- D. Pakistan
Answer: Bangladesh
Explanation: Biparjoy means 'disaster' in Bengali; it struck on 15 June 2023.
339. The July 2024 Wayanad landslides, among Kerala's deadliest, struck which two villages?
- A. Mundakkai and Chooralmala
- B. Munnar and Devikulam
- C. Vagamon and Kuttikanam
- D. Idukki and Peermade
Answer: Mundakkai and Chooralmala
Explanation: The landslides of 30 July 2024 killed over 200 people.
340. The Air India Flight AI171 crash at Ahmedabad on 12 June 2025 involved which aircraft type?
- A. Airbus A320neo
- B. Airbus A350
- C. Boeing 787-8 Dreamliner
- D. Boeing 737 MAX
Answer: Boeing 787-8 Dreamliner
Explanation: The London Gatwick-bound aircraft crashed seconds after take-off into a medical college hostel; only one passenger survived.
341. The Maha Kumbh Mela 2025 was held at Prayagraj from 13 January to which date?
- A. 8 February 2025
- B. 26 February 2025
- C. 15 March 2025
- D. 14 February 2025
Answer: 26 February 2025
Explanation: It concluded on Maha Shivratri, 26 February 2025.
342. The stampede at the New Delhi Railway Station on 15 February 2025, linked to Maha Kumbh crowds, which killed 18 people, occurred at which platforms?
- A. Platforms 8 and 9
- B. Platforms 14 and 15
- C. Platforms 10 and 12
- D. Platforms 1 and 2
Answer: Platforms 14 and 15
Explanation: The crush occurred on platforms 14 and 15 amid crowds for trains to Prayagraj.
343. The rescue of 41 workers trapped in the Silkyara-Barkot tunnel in Uttarakhand ended in November 2023 after about how many days?
- A. 17 days
- B. 7 days
- C. 25 days
- D. 12 days
Answer: 17 days
Explanation: The tunnel collapsed on 12 November 2023; manual 'rat-hole' miners cleared the final stretch and all 41 were rescued on 28 November.
344. Which symbol, installed in the Lok Sabha chamber beside the Speaker's seat in May 2023, was received from the Adheenams of Tamil Nadu?
- A. Nandi statue
- B. Rajdand
- C. Ashoka Chakra
- D. Sengol
Answer: Sengol
Explanation: The Sengol, a Chola-era sceptre symbolising just governance, was installed at the inauguration.
345. The new Parliament building inaugurated on 28 May 2023 houses how many seats in the Lok Sabha chamber?
- A. 1,272
- B. 790
- C. 543
- D. 888
Answer: 888
Explanation: The Lok Sabha hall seats 888 and the Rajya Sabha hall 384; the old building was renamed Samvidhan Sadan.
346. The Citizenship (Amendment) Rules, 2024 were notified on 11 March 2024. The cut-off date for entry into India under the CAA is:
- A. 25 March 1971
- B. 31 December 2019
- C. 1 July 1987
- D. 31 December 2014
Answer: 31 December 2014
Explanation: CAA 2019 covers Hindus, Sikhs, Buddhists, Jains, Parsis and Christians from Afghanistan, Bangladesh and Pakistan who entered by 31 December 2014.
347. The Uttarakhand Uniform Civil Code Act came into force on 27 January 2025, making Uttarakhand the first State after Independence to:
- A. Enact a state citizenship law
- B. Ban polygamy by constitutional amendment
- C. Implement a UCC
- D. Abolish personal laws
Answer: Implement a UCC
Explanation: The Act mandates registration of marriages and live-in relationships; Goa follows a colonial-era Portuguese Civil Code.
348. In its November 2025 Presidential Reference opinion, the Constitution Bench headed by CJI B. R. Gavai held that courts cannot:
- A. Review any Bill passed by a State Assembly
- B. Impose fixed deadlines on Governors and the President for assent to Bills
- C. Interpret Article 200
- D. Hear disputes involving Governors
Answer: Impose fixed deadlines on Governors and the President for assent to Bills
Explanation: The Court rejected the concept of 'deemed assent', though it said prolonged inaction is open to limited judicial review.
349. In Mohd. Abdul Samad v. State of Telangana (July 2024), the Supreme Court held that Section 125 CrPC maintenance applies to:
- A. All married women irrespective of religion
- B. Only Hindu women
- C. Only women employed in government
- D. Only women with minor children
Answer: All married women irrespective of religion
Explanation: The Court held divorced Muslim women can claim maintenance under the secular Section 125 CrPC (now BNSS Section 144).
350. In November 2024 the Supreme Court, in the UP Madarsa Education Board case, held that:
- A. The 2004 Act is constitutional, though it cannot confer Fazil and Kamil degrees
- B. The State has no power to regulate madrasa education
- C. The Act violates secularism and is void
- D. Madrasas must be shut down
Answer: The 2004 Act is constitutional, though it cannot confer Fazil and Kamil degrees
Explanation: The Court set aside the Allahabad High Court's ruling, upholding the Act but holding higher degrees conflict with the UGC Act.
351. On 17 October 2024 the Constitution Bench upheld the validity of Section 6A of the Citizenship Act, 1955, which concerns:
- A. Citizenship by registration for spouses of citizens
- B. Assam Accord migrants who entered before 25 March 1971
- C. Overseas Citizens of India
- D. Persecuted minorities from Pakistan after 2014
Answer: Assam Accord migrants who entered before 25 March 1971
Explanation: The 4:1 verdict (Justice Pardiwala dissenting) upheld the special provision for Assam.
352. In State of Punjab v. Davinder Singh (1 August 2024), a seven-judge Bench held that States may:
- A. Reserve seats above 50 per cent without limit
- B. Remove Scheduled Castes from the list
- C. Abolish reservation in promotions
- D. Sub-classify Scheduled Castes for reservation
Answer: Sub-classify Scheduled Castes for reservation
Explanation: By 6:1 the Court overruled E. V. Chinnaiah (2004); Justice Bela Trivedi dissented.
353. In the demonetisation case decided on 2 January 2023, which judge gave the dissenting opinion in the 4:1 verdict?
- A. Justice V. Ramasubramanian
- B. Justice B. V. Nagarathna
- C. Justice B. R. Gavai
- D. Justice S. A. Nazeer
Answer: Justice B. V. Nagarathna
Explanation: The majority upheld the 2016 decision; Justice Nagarathna held it unlawful as done by notification rather than legislation.
354. In the 2023 Delhi services case (GNCTD v. Union of India), the Constitution Bench held that the elected Delhi government has control over services except:
- A. Transport and electricity
- B. Finance and revenue
- C. Police, public order and land
- D. Education and health
Answer: Police, public order and land
Explanation: The May 2023 ruling was countered by the GNCTD (Amendment) Act, 2023 creating the National Capital Civil Service Authority.
355. In the Article 370 verdict of 11 December 2023, the Supreme Court:
- A. Struck down the abrogation of Article 370
- B. Directed an immediate plebiscite in J&K
- C. Referred the matter to a seven-judge Bench
- D. Upheld the abrogation and directed statehood be restored and Assembly elections be held by 30 September 2024
Answer: Upheld the abrogation and directed statehood be restored and Assembly elections be held by 30 September 2024
Explanation: The Constitution Bench held Article 370 was a temporary provision and the President's 2019 orders were valid.
356. In its 15 February 2024 verdict, the Supreme Court struck down the Electoral Bond Scheme chiefly because it violated:
- A. The federal structure under Article 1
- B. The right to equality under Article 14 alone
- C. The voters' right to information under Article 19(1)(a)
- D. The right to property under Article 300A
Answer: The voters' right to information under Article 19(1)(a)
Explanation: The five-judge Bench held anonymous political funding infringed the citizens' right to information and ordered SBI to disclose donor details to the ECI.
357. The Amrit Bharat Station Scheme, launched in February 2023, covers about how many stations for modernisation?
- A. 1,300 plus
- B. 2,500
- C. 500
- D. 300
Answer: 1,300 plus
Explanation: The scheme covers 1,300+ stations (initially 1,309) with long-term master plans for upgrades.
358. The Kanchanjunga Express accident of 17 June 2024 occurred near Rangapani in which State?
- A. Sikkim
- B. Bihar
- C. Assam
- D. West Bengal
Answer: West Bengal
Explanation: A goods train rammed the stationary Kanchanjunga Express near New Jalpaiguri in Darjeeling district, killing about 10.
359. Which indigenous automatic train protection system received its Version 4.0 specification approval from RDSO in July 2024?
- A. Rakshak
- B. Sarthi
- C. TCAS-X
- D. Kavach
Answer: Kavach
Explanation: Kavach 4.0 was approved by RDSO in July 2024 for deployment on high-density routes.
360. The Chenab Rail Bridge, dedicated to the nation in June 2025, stands about how high above the riverbed, making it the world's highest railway arch bridge?
- A. 215 metres
- B. 275 metres
- C. 420 metres
- D. 359 metres
Answer: 359 metres
Explanation: At 359 m it is higher than the Eiffel Tower and forms part of the Udhampur-Srinagar-Baramulla Rail Link.
361. The new Pamban Bridge inaugurated in April 2025 is India's first:
- A. Underwater rail tunnel
- B. Double-decker rail-road bridge
- C. Cable-stayed railway bridge
- D. Vertical lift railway sea bridge
Answer: Vertical lift railway sea bridge
Explanation: The 2.08 km bridge linking Rameswaram to the mainland has a 72.5 m vertical lift span and was opened by PM Modi on Ram Navami (6 April 2025).
362. India's defence exports in 2023-24 reached a record of about:
- A. Rs 21,083 crore
- B. Rs 50,000 crore
- C. Rs 12,815 crore
- D. Rs 5,000 crore
Answer: Rs 21,083 crore
Explanation: This was a 32.5% rise over the previous year and was followed by about Rs 23,600 crore in 2024-25.
363. DRDO's September 2025 test of Agni-Prime was notable for being launched from:
- A. A rail-based mobile launcher
- B. A fighter aircraft
- C. A ship deck
- D. A submarine
Answer: A rail-based mobile launcher
Explanation: It was India's first launch of a ballistic missile from a rail-based mobile launcher, giving cross-country mobility.
364. In September 2025 the Defence Ministry signed a deal of about Rs 62,370 crore with HAL for how many Tejas Mk-1A aircraft?
- A. 66
- B. 83
- C. 97
- D. 114
Answer: 97
Explanation: The 97 LCA Mk-1A order (68 fighters and 29 twin-seaters) followed the earlier 83-aircraft order of 2021.
365. The MiG-21, retired by the IAF in September 2025 after 62 years, was last operated from which air base?
- A. Chandigarh
- B. Jodhpur
- C. Hindon
- D. Nal, Bikaner
Answer: Chandigarh
Explanation: The farewell ceremony was held at Chandigarh on 26 September 2025, where the MiG-21 was first inducted in 1963.
366. INS Arighaat, commissioned in August 2024, is India's second:
- A. Aircraft carrier
- B. Scorpene-class submarine
- C. Diesel-electric attack submarine
- D. Nuclear-powered ballistic missile submarine (SSBN)
Answer: Nuclear-powered ballistic missile submarine (SSBN)
Explanation: INS Arighaat followed INS Arihant (2016) and was commissioned at Visakhapatnam.
367. Agnikul Cosmos's Agnibaan SOrTeD, launched in May 2024, was notable as India's first launch using:
- A. A reusable first stage
- B. A fully cryogenic upper stage
- C. An air-launched rocket
- D. A single-piece 3D-printed semi-cryogenic engine
Answer: A single-piece 3D-printed semi-cryogenic engine
Explanation: It was launched from Agnikul's private launchpad at Sriharikota.
368. ISRO's reusable launch vehicle technology demonstrator that completed its third autonomous landing experiment in June 2024 is named:
- A. Brahma
- B. Vikram
- C. Pushpak
- D. Agnibaan
Answer: Pushpak
Explanation: RLV-LEX-03 'Pushpak' landed autonomously at the Aeronautical Test Range, Chitradurga, Karnataka on 23 June 2024.
369. In September 2024 the Union Cabinet approved a Venus Orbiter Mission and which other ISRO mission for lunar sample return?
- A. Chandrayaan-4
- B. Mangalyaan-2 only
- C. Aditya-L2
- D. Chandrayaan-5
Answer: Chandrayaan-4
Explanation: Chandrayaan-4 aims to bring lunar samples back to Earth; the Cabinet also approved the first module of the Bharatiya Antariksh Station.
370. The Gaganyaan Test Vehicle TV-D1 abort demonstration flight took place on:
- A. 18 January 2024
- B. 2 September 2023
- C. 14 July 2023
- D. 21 October 2023
Answer: 21 October 2023
Explanation: The Crew Escape System was tested at about 17 km altitude and the crew module splashed down in the Bay of Bengal.
371. Which four astronaut-designates for Gaganyaan were announced by PM Modi at VSSC in February 2024?
- A. Rakesh Sharma, Ravish Malhotra, Nagapathi Bhat, Abhishek Chauhan
- B. Prasanth Nair, Ajit Krishnan, Angad Prathap, Shubhanshu Shukla
- C. Ajay Rao, Vinod Dubey, Karan Joshi, Dev Singh
- D. Sunita Williams, Rajya Chari, Kalpana Pillai, Anil Menon
Answer: Prasanth Nair, Ajit Krishnan, Angad Prathap, Shubhanshu Shukla
Explanation: All four are Indian Air Force test pilots (Group Captains and a Wing Commander).
372. NISAR, launched by GSLV-F16 on 30 July 2025, is a joint Earth-observation mission of ISRO and:
- A. Roscosmos
- B. NASA
- C. ESA
- D. JAXA
Answer: NASA
Explanation: NASA-ISRO Synthetic Aperture Radar carries L-band and S-band radars to map Earth's surface changes.
373. Group Captain Shubhanshu Shukla flew on Axiom-4 as its:
- A. Commander
- B. Pilot
- C. Mission specialist for Poland
- D. Flight surgeon
Answer: Pilot
Explanation: Shukla, the second Indian in space after Rakesh Sharma (1984) and the first on the ISS, was the Ax-4 pilot; the mission docked on 26 June 2025.
374. ISRO's 100th launch from Sriharikota, on 29 January 2025, was the GSLV-F15 mission carrying which satellite?
- A. INSAT-3DS
- B. NVS-02
- C. EOS-09
- D. GSAT-N2
Answer: NVS-02
Explanation: NVS-02 is a second-generation NavIC navigation satellite.
375. SpaDeX, launched on 30 December 2024, made India the fourth country to demonstrate:
- A. Lunar sample return
- B. Reusable launch vehicle landing
- C. Space docking
- D. In-orbit refuelling
Answer: Space docking
Explanation: Two satellites (SDX01 and SDX02) docked on 16 January 2025, after the US, Russia and China.
376. XPoSat, launched by PSLV-C58 on 1 January 2024, is India's first dedicated mission to study:
- A. Lunar water ice
- B. Ocean colour
- C. X-ray polarisation of cosmic sources
- D. Solar corona
Answer: X-ray polarisation of cosmic sources
Explanation: Its payloads POLIX and XSPECT study X-ray polarisation from sources like black holes and neutron stars.
377. Aditya-L1 reached its final halo orbit around the Sun-Earth L1 point on:
- A. 15 February 2024
- B. 6 January 2024
- C. 2 September 2023
- D. 23 August 2023
Answer: 6 January 2024
Explanation: A final orbit-insertion burn on 6 January 2024 placed it in the halo orbit, about 1.5 million km from Earth.
378. After Chandrayaan-3's landing on 23 August 2023, the touchdown site of the Vikram lander was named:
- A. Vikram Point
- B. Jawahar Sthal
- C. Tiranga Point
- D. Shiv Shakti Point
Answer: Shiv Shakti Point
Explanation: PM Modi named the site Shiv Shakti on 26 August 2023, and 23 August is observed as National Space Day; Chandrayaan-2's impact site is Tiranga Point.
379. The One Nation One Election committee set up in September 2023 was headed by:
- A. Ranjan Gogoi
- B. Pranab Mukherjee
- C. N. K. Singh
- D. Ram Nath Kovind
Answer: Ram Nath Kovind
Explanation: The panel, led by former President Kovind, recommended simultaneous Lok Sabha and Assembly elections; the 129th Amendment Bill was introduced in December 2024 and sent to a JPC.
380. The Immigration and Foreigners Act, 2025 repeals the Passport (Entry into India) Act, 1920 and which other law among its predecessors?
- A. Foreigners Act, 1946
- B. Extradition Act, 1962
- C. Citizenship Act, 1955
- D. Prevention of Terrorism Act
Answer: Foreigners Act, 1946
Explanation: It consolidated the Passport (Entry into India) Act 1920, Registration of Foreigners Act 1939, Foreigners Act 1946 and Immigration (Carriers' Liability) Act 2000.
381. The Nari Shakti Vandan Adhiniyam, 2023 (106th Constitutional Amendment) reserves what fraction of Lok Sabha and State Assembly seats for women?
- A. One-third
- B. One-half
- C. Twenty per cent
- D. One-fourth
Answer: One-third
Explanation: Reservation takes effect only after the next census and delimitation, and lasts for 15 years initially.
382. The Telecommunications Act, 2023 repealed which colonial-era law?
- A. Wireless Telegraphy Act, 1933
- B. Information Technology Act, 2000
- C. Indian Post Office Act, 1898
- D. Indian Telegraph Act, 1885
Answer: Indian Telegraph Act, 1885
Explanation: It replaced the Indian Telegraph Act, 1885 and the Indian Wireless Telegraphy Act, 1933.
383. The Digital Personal Data Protection Act, 2023 designates the entity processing data as 'Data Fiduciary' and the individual as:
- A. Data Controller
- B. Data Subject
- C. Data Owner
- D. Data Principal
Answer: Data Principal
Explanation: The Act uses 'Data Principal' for the individual to whom the data relates and establishes the Data Protection Board of India.
384. The Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 replaced the Indian Penal Code and came into force on:
- A. 1 July 2024
- B. 26 January 2024
- C. 15 August 2024
- D. 1 January 2024
Answer: 1 July 2024
Explanation: The BNS, BNSS and Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam came into force on 1 July 2024.
385. Which company's IPO in October 2024 became the largest ever in India at about Rs 27,870 crore?
- A. Hyundai Motor India
- B. Bajaj Housing Finance
- C. Swiggy
- D. Tata Technologies
Answer: Hyundai Motor India
Explanation: It surpassed LIC's 2022 IPO of Rs 21,000 crore.
386. In May 2023 the RBI announced the withdrawal from circulation of which banknote denomination?
- A. Rs 500
- B. Rs 1,000
- C. Rs 2,000
- D. Rs 200
Answer: Rs 2,000
Explanation: The announcement was made on 19 May 2023; the notes remained legal tender while exchange was allowed.
387. The RBI's first repo rate cut in nearly five years, in February 2025, reduced the rate by 25 basis points to:
- A. 6.25 per cent
- B. 5.75 per cent
- C. 6.50 per cent
- D. 6.00 per cent
Answer: 6.25 per cent
Explanation: Governor Sanjay Malhotra's first MPC cut took the repo rate from 6.50% to 6.25%.
388. India's real GDP grew by how much in April-June 2025 (Q1 of FY 2025-26), the fastest in five quarters?
- A. 6.5 per cent
- B. 7.8 per cent
- C. 8.8 per cent
- D. 5.4 per cent
Answer: 7.8 per cent
Explanation: Provisional estimates showed 7.8% growth in Q1 FY26.
389. The PM-JANMAN mission launched in November 2023 is aimed at the development of:
- A. Scheduled Caste landless labourers
- B. Nomadic and denotified tribes
- C. Fishing communities
- D. Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups
Answer: Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups
Explanation: PM-JANMAN (Pradhan Mantri Janjati Adivasi Nyaya Maha Abhiyan) with about Rs 24,000 crore targets PVTGs.
390. From October 2024, Ayushman Bharat PM-JAY was extended to cover all senior citizens aged:
- A. 65 years and above
- B. 75 years and above
- C. 60 years and above
- D. 70 years and above
Answer: 70 years and above
Explanation: Eligible seniors aged 70+ get a Vay Vandana card with Rs 5 lakh cover irrespective of income.
391. The PM Vishwakarma scheme launched on 17 September 2023 supports which group?
- A. Women self-help groups
- B. Street vendors
- C. Traditional artisans and craftspeople
- D. Small farmers
Answer: Traditional artisans and craftspeople
Explanation: It offers recognition, skill training, toolkit incentive and collateral-free credit to artisans across 18 trades.
392. PM Surya Ghar: Muft Bijli Yojana, launched in February 2024, targets rooftop solar for how many households and up to how many free units a month?
- A. 50 lakh households; up to 100 units
- B. 75 lakh households; up to 500 units
- C. 2 crore households; up to 200 units
- D. 1 crore households; up to 300 units
Answer: 1 crore households; up to 300 units
Explanation: The scheme with an outlay of Rs 75,021 crore provides subsidy for rooftop solar and up to 300 free units monthly.
393. Under the Unified Pension Scheme (UPS) approved in August 2024, the assured pension is what share of the average basic pay of the last 12 months for 25 years of qualifying service?
- A. 75 per cent
- B. 40 per cent
- C. 60 per cent
- D. 50 per cent
Answer: 50 per cent
Explanation: UPS assures 50% of average basic pay of the last 12 months, effective 1 April 2025, with a minimum Rs 10,000 pension after 10 years' service.
394. After the GST Council's 56th meeting in September 2025, the GST rate structure was simplified into which main slabs, effective 22 September 2025?
- A. 5% and 18%, with a 40% rate for sin and luxury goods
- B. 5%, 12% and 18% only
- C. 12% and 28%
- D. 3% and 15%
Answer: 5% and 18%, with a 40% rate for sin and luxury goods
Explanation: The 12% and 28% slabs were largely merged into 5% and 18%, with a special 40% slab for sin and ultra-luxury items.
395. The Income-tax Act, 2025, passed by Parliament in August 2025, replaces the Income-tax Act of which year and takes effect from 1 April 2026?
- A. 1922
- B. 1991
- C. 1948
- D. 1961
Answer: 1961
Explanation: The new Act replaces the six-decade-old Income-tax Act, 1961, introducing the single 'tax year' concept.
396. Under Budget 2025-26 (1 February 2025), income up to what amount became tax-free under the new regime through the enhanced rebate?
- A. Rs 8 lakh
- B. Rs 12 lakh
- C. Rs 10 lakh
- D. Rs 15 lakh
Answer: Rs 12 lakh
Explanation: The section 87A rebate was raised so that income up to Rs 12 lakh pays no tax (Rs 12.75 lakh for salaried with the standard deduction).
397. Which tax was abolished for all classes of investors in the Union Budget 2024-25?
- A. Wealth tax
- B. Angel tax
- C. Securities transaction tax
- D. Equalisation levy
Answer: Angel tax
Explanation: Angel tax on investment in start-ups was abolished to improve the start-up ecosystem.
398. In the Union Budget 2024-25 (July 2024), the long-term capital gains tax rate on listed equities was changed to:
- A. 15 per cent
- B. 10 per cent
- C. 20 per cent
- D. 12.5 per cent
Answer: 12.5 per cent
Explanation: LTCG was raised from 10% to 12.5% (exemption limit Rs 1.25 lakh) and short-term gains to 20%, while indexation for property was removed.
399. Operation Mahadev, in July 2025, was a security forces operation near Dachigam that neutralised:
- A. Insurgents in Manipur
- B. Maoist central committee members
- C. Drug cartel leaders in Punjab
- D. The terrorists involved in the Pahalgam attack
Answer: The terrorists involved in the Pahalgam attack
Explanation: Three terrorists linked to the Pahalgam attack, including the alleged mastermind Suleiman Shah, were killed.
400. Who briefed the media on Operation Sindoor along with Foreign Secretary Vikram Misri as the two serving women officers of the armed forces?
- A. Lt Gen Madhuri Kanitkar and Wing Commander Deepika Misra
- B. Colonel Sofiya Qureshi and Wing Commander Vyomika Singh
- C. Commander Prerna Deosthalee and Colonel Gita Rana
- D. Group Captain Shaliza Dhami and Colonel Anjali Singh
Answer: Colonel Sofiya Qureshi and Wing Commander Vyomika Singh
Explanation: Colonel Sofiya Qureshi of the Army and Wing Commander Vyomika Singh of the IAF led the briefings.
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