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1921. Which of the following best captures the territorial extent of the RP(UP) Act, 1966 as stated in Section 1?
- A. It extends to the whole of India
- B. It extends only to states through which broad-gauge railway lines pass
- C. It extends only to Union Territories
- D. It extends to India and to railway property in transit through neighbouring countries
Answer: It extends to the whole of India
Explanation: Section 1 explicitly states the Act extends to the whole of India, giving it uniform nationwide application over railway property offences regardless of the specific zone or state involved.
1922. A village officer who refuses without justification to assist an RPF officer conducting a lawful inquiry under the RP(UP) Act would be acting contrary to which provision?
- A. Section 5
- B. Section 9
- C. Section 16
- D. Section 12
Answer: Section 12
Explanation: Section 12 specifically casts the duty of assistance on government and village officers; failure to do so runs contrary to this statutory obligation embedded in the Act's cooperative enforcement design.
1923. Section 12 of the RP(UP) Act imposes a duty on which category of persons to assist RPF officers?
- A. Government and village officers
- B. Only railway ticket collectors
- C. Only serving members of Parliament
- D. Only officers of the armed forces
Answer: Government and village officers
Explanation: Section 12 empowers and requires government and village officers to render assistance to RPF officers acting under the Act, embedding local administrative cooperation into the Act's enforcement scheme.
1924. Section 14 of the RP(UP) Act gives it an overriding effect. What does this mean in practical application?
- A. It can be overridden by any subsequent state legislation
- B. It overrides only the Indian Penal Code and no other statute
- C. Its provisions prevail notwithstanding anything inconsistent contained in any other law for the time being in force
- D. It applies only if no other law exists on the subject
Answer: Its provisions prevail notwithstanding anything inconsistent contained in any other law for the time being in force
Explanation: Section 14 is a non-obstante clause giving the Act overriding force over any inconsistent provision in other laws, ensuring its specific scheme for railway property offences cannot be diluted by conflicting general legislation.
1925. The RP(UP) Act, 1966 is best understood in relation to the RPF Act, 1957 as:
- A. A statute that repeals and replaces the RPF Act entirely
- B. A statute with no functional connection to the RPF Act
- C. A complementary penal statute, while the RPF Act constitutes the Force and governs its general powers and discipline
- D. An identical duplicate statute enacted for redundancy
Answer: A complementary penal statute, while the RPF Act constitutes the Force and governs its general powers and discipline
Explanation: The RPF Act, 1957 constitutes and organises the Force, while the RP(UP) Act, 1966 is a separate penal statute that gives the Force (and courts) specific tools to tackle unlawful possession of railway property.
1926. Which statute does Section 2 of the RP(UP) Act rely upon to define 'the Force' as the Railway Protection Force?
- A. Section 3 of the RPF Act, 1957
- B. The Railways Act, 1989
- C. Section 4 of the RPF Act, 1957
- D. The Indian Railway Board Act, 1905
Answer: Section 3 of the RPF Act, 1957
Explanation: Section 2 defines 'Force' as the Railway Protection Force constituted under Section 3 of the RPF Act, 1957 — showing the RP(UP) Act is drafted to interlock definitionally with the RPF Act rather than re-legislate the Force's existence.
1927. Under Section 2 of the RP(UP) Act, who is termed a 'superior officer'?
- A. The Director General of the RPF only
- B. Any government officer assisting under Section 12
- C. An officer appointed under Section 4 of the RPF Act, 1957
- D. Any officer of the Force above the rank of Head Constable
Answer: An officer appointed under Section 4 of the RPF Act, 1957
Explanation: The Act separately terms officers appointed under Section 4 of the RPF Act, 1957 as 'superior officers', distinct from the general 'member of the Force' and 'officer of the Force' categories defined for RP(UP) Act purposes.
1928. A constable of the RPF, below the rank of Assistant Sub-Inspector, would be classified under Section 2 of the RP(UP) Act as a:
- A. Superior officer
- B. Government officer under Section 12
- C. Officer of the Force
- D. Member of the Force
Answer: Member of the Force
Explanation: Section 2 distinguishes 'member of the Force' (RPF personnel) from 'officer of the Force' (ASI rank and above); a constable falls in the broader 'member' category, not the narrower 'officer' category.
1929. Under Section 2 of the RP(UP) Act, an 'officer of the Force' means a member of the RPF holding what minimum rank?
- A. Constable
- B. Assistant Sub-Inspector
- C. Inspector General
- D. Head Constable
Answer: Assistant Sub-Inspector
Explanation: Section 2 defines 'officer of the Force' as a member of the RPF of the rank of Assistant Sub-Inspector or above — this threshold matters because several powers under the Act (like inquiry under Section 8) are reserved for such officers.
1930. Which of the following is NOT covered by the statutory definition of 'railway property' under Section 2 of the RP(UP) Act?
- A. Money belonging to a railway administration
- B. An animal in the possession of a railway administration
- C. A valuable security in the charge of a railway administration
- D. A person's personal reputation while travelling on a train
Answer: A person's personal reputation while travelling on a train
Explanation: Personal reputation is an intangible personal right, not property belonging to or in the charge of a railway administration, so it falls entirely outside the Section 2 definition of 'railway property'.
1931. Under Section 2 of the RP(UP) Act, which of the following is included within the definition of 'railway property'?
- A. Only property physically located inside a railway station building
- B. Only goods being carried as parcels by passengers
- C. Only fixed railway infrastructure such as tracks and signals
- D. Any animal in the charge or possession of a railway administration
Answer: Any animal in the charge or possession of a railway administration
Explanation: Section 2 defines 'railway property' broadly to mean any goods, money or valuable security, or animal, belonging to or in the charge or possession of a railway administration — not limited to fixed infrastructure or station premises.
1932. Under Section 360 of the BNSS, before permitting withdrawal from prosecution of a case, the Court must additionally:
- A. Give the victim an opportunity of being heard
- B. Obtain written consent of the accused
- C. Obtain a report from the Superintendent of Police
- D. Refer the matter to the Sessions Judge for approval
Answer: Give the victim an opportunity of being heard
Explanation: Section 360 BNSS (earlier CrPC s.321) lets the Public Prosecutor withdraw with the Court's consent; the BNSS adds that the Court must hear the victim before allowing withdrawal.
1933. Under Section 358 of the BNSS, if during an inquiry or trial it appears from the evidence that a person not being the accused has committed an offence, the Court may:
- A. Discharge the original accused immediately
- B. Only recommend that the police open a fresh FIR
- C. Transfer the case to the High Court for a fresh inquiry
- D. Proceed against that person for the offence which he appears to have committed
Answer: Proceed against that person for the offence which he appears to have committed
Explanation: Section 358 BNSS (earlier CrPC s.319) lets the Court proceed against any person, not an accused, who appears from the evidence to have committed an offence for which he could be tried together with the accused.
1934. Under the BNSS, community service is prescribed as a form of punishment for which type of offences?
- A. Terrorism
- B. Petty offences, such as defamation, attempt to commit suicide, and theft of low value by first-time offenders as specified in the BNS
- C. Rape
- D. Murder
Answer: Petty offences, such as defamation, attempt to commit suicide, and theft of low value by first-time offenders as specified in the BNS
Explanation: Community service is introduced in BNS as a punishment for certain petty offences (e.g., defamation, theft of low value property by first-time offender, attempt to commit suicide, public servant unlawfully engaging in trade), implemented through the BNSS machinery.
1935. Under the BNSS, a Judicial Magistrate of the second class may impose a fine not exceeding:
- A. Ten thousand rupees
- B. One lakh rupees
- C. Fifty thousand rupees
- D. Five thousand rupees
Answer: Ten thousand rupees
Explanation: Under BNSS, the second-class Judicial Magistrate's fine limit is Rs 10,000 (earlier Rs 5,000), with imprisonment up to one year.
1936. Under the BNSS, the maximum fine a Judicial Magistrate of the first class can impose is:
- A. Ten thousand rupees
- B. Fifty thousand rupees
- C. One lakh rupees
- D. Five lakh rupees
Answer: Fifty thousand rupees
Explanation: Under BNSS, the JMFC may impose a fine not exceeding Rs 50,000 (raised from the earlier Rs 10,000), and imprisonment up to three years.
1937. Under BNSS, a person who has been arrested may be released on bail by a police officer in a bailable offence. Which provision applies to the police officer's power to take bail?
- A. Section 530 BNSS
- B. Section 160 BNSS
- C. Section 58 BNSS
- D. Section 478 BNSS - an officer in charge of a police station shall release on bail a person arrested without warrant for a bailable offence who is prepared to give bail
Answer: Section 478 BNSS - an officer in charge of a police station shall release on bail a person arrested without warrant for a bailable offence who is prepared to give bail
Explanation: Section 478 BNSS (CrPC 436) makes release on bail a matter of right in bailable offences, and the officer in charge of the police station is competent to accept bail.
1938. Under the BNSS provisions on reports of Government scientific experts (like chemical examiner or serologist), such a report:
- A. Is valid only if the expert is present
- B. Requires approval of the police
- C. May be used as evidence in any inquiry, trial or other proceeding, although the court may summon and examine the expert if it thinks fit
- D. Cannot be used as evidence at all
Answer: May be used as evidence in any inquiry, trial or other proceeding, although the court may summon and examine the expert if it thinks fit
Explanation: The report of a Government scientific expert on a matter sent for examination may be used as evidence without calling the expert, though the court has power to summon him.
1939. Under the proviso to Section 176(1) BNSS, an officer in charge of a police station need not proceed in person or depute a subordinate to investigate if:
- A. The offence is cognizable
- B. The information is against a named person and the offence is not of a serious nature
- C. The complainant is a woman
- D. The accused is a public servant
Answer: The information is against a named person and the offence is not of a serious nature
Explanation: The proviso exempts him if the information is against a named person and the offence is not of a serious nature; and if it appears there is no sufficient ground, he may decline to investigate while recording reasons and informing the informant.
1940. Under Section 176(1) BNSS (CrPC 157), when an officer in charge of a police station has reason to suspect the commission of a cognizable offence, he shall forthwith:
- A. Close the information
- B. Send a report to the Magistrate empowered to take cognizance and proceed to investigate or depute a subordinate officer
- C. Send the file to the High Court
- D. Wait for the Magistrate's order
Answer: Send a report to the Magistrate empowered to take cognizance and proceed to investigate or depute a subordinate officer
Explanation: Section 176(1) obliges the officer to forthwith send the report to the Magistrate, ensuring judicial oversight of the FIR.
1941. Under Section 482(2) BNSS (CrPC 438(2)), among the conditions the court may impose while granting anticipatory bail is that the person shall:
- A. Report daily to the Magistrate
- B. Make himself available for interrogation by a police officer as and when required
- C. Deposit his passport permanently
- D. Reside at the police station
Answer: Make himself available for interrogation by a police officer as and when required
Explanation: Conditions include making oneself available for interrogation, not inducing or threatening witnesses, and not leaving India without prior permission of the court.
1942. Under Section 480(7) BNSS (CrPC 437(7)), if at any time after the conclusion of the trial and before judgment the Court finds reasonable grounds for believing that the accused is not guilty, it shall:
- A. Send him to the High Court
- B. Convict him
- C. Release the accused on bail (or on bond without sureties) to hear judgment delivered
- D. Order retrial
Answer: Release the accused on bail (or on bond without sureties) to hear judgment delivered
Explanation: The court must release him on bail, or on his bond without sureties, to appear to hear the judgment delivered.
1943. Under Section 480(6) BNSS (CrPC 437(6)), if in a non-bailable case triable by a Magistrate the trial is not concluded within sixty days from the first date fixed for taking evidence, the accused in custody:
- A. Must be released unconditionally
- B. Shall be acquitted
- C. Shall be released on bail to the satisfaction of the Magistrate, unless for reasons to be recorded in writing the Magistrate directs otherwise
- D. Shall be transferred to Sessions
Answer: Shall be released on bail to the satisfaction of the Magistrate, unless for reasons to be recorded in writing the Magistrate directs otherwise
Explanation: The 60-day rule gives a right to bail in such cases unless the Magistrate records reasons in writing for otherwise directing.
1944. If an approver who has been granted a conditional pardon wilfully conceals anything essential or gives false evidence, he:
- A. Cannot be prosecuted
- B. Is entitled to a second pardon
- C. May be tried for the offence in respect of which pardon was tendered and for giving false evidence
- D. Is automatically released
Answer: May be tried for the offence in respect of which pardon was tendered and for giving false evidence
Explanation: A pardon is conditional on full and true disclosure; if the Public Prosecutor certifies the condition has been breached, the approver may be tried and his earlier statement may be used against him.
1945. When a court alters or adds to a charge during trial and the alteration prejudices the accused, the court may:
- A. Close the trial
- B. Transfer the case to the police
- C. Direct a new trial or adjourn the trial for such period as is necessary
- D. Immediately convict
Answer: Direct a new trial or adjourn the trial for such period as is necessary
Explanation: If the altered charge is likely to prejudice the accused, the court may direct a fresh trial or adjourn the trial; the accused may also recall witnesses already examined.
1946. Under the BNSS provisions on joinder of charges, a person accused of more than one offence of the same kind committed within the space of twelve months may be charged and tried at one trial for:
- A. Not more than two offences
- B. Any number of offences not exceeding three
- C. Any number of offences
- D. Not more than five offences
Answer: Any number of offences not exceeding three
Explanation: Charges for up to three offences of the same kind committed within twelve months may be joined in one trial.
1947. Under the BNSS plea bargaining scheme, the statements or facts stated by an accused in an application for plea bargaining:
- A. Can be used by the police in other cases
- B. Cannot be used for any purpose other than plea bargaining
- C. Can be used as evidence against him in trial
- D. Are public documents
Answer: Cannot be used for any purpose other than plea bargaining
Explanation: The statements are protected to encourage voluntary applications; they cannot be used for any other purpose except for plea bargaining.
1948. Under the BNSS plea bargaining scheme, where the offence has a minimum punishment prescribed, the court may sentence the accused to:
- A. One-fourth of the minimum
- B. Double of the minimum
- C. The full minimum
- D. One-half of such minimum punishment
Answer: One-half of such minimum punishment
Explanation: Where a minimum punishment is prescribed, the court may award half of it; where none, one-fourth of the punishment provided or extending to such offence.
1949. Under the BNSS plea bargaining chapter, plea bargaining is NOT available for an offence punishable with:
- A. Imprisonment up to three years
- B. Death, imprisonment for life or imprisonment exceeding seven years
- C. Imprisonment up to five years
- D. Fine only
Answer: Death, imprisonment for life or imprisonment exceeding seven years
Explanation: Plea bargaining applies only to offences not punishable with death, life or imprisonment exceeding seven years, and excludes offences affecting the socio-economic condition of the country and offences against women or children below fourteen.
1950. A Magistrate records a confession under Section 183 BNSS. Before recording, the Magistrate must explain to the maker that:
- A. That the confession will remain secret forever
- B. That he will get a lighter sentence
- C. That he will be released if he confesses
- D. He is not bound to make a confession and that, if he does, it may be used as evidence against him
Answer: He is not bound to make a confession and that, if he does, it may be used as evidence against him
Explanation: The Magistrate must explain that the person is not bound to confess and the statement may be used against him, and must be satisfied that the confession is voluntary.
1951. Under Section 183(6)(a) BNSS, the statement of a victim of rape (BNS ss. 64-71) must be recorded by:
- A. A police Inspector
- B. A woman Judicial Magistrate, and in her absence a male Magistrate in the presence of a woman
- C. The investigating officer
- D. A male Executive Magistrate alone
Answer: A woman Judicial Magistrate, and in her absence a male Magistrate in the presence of a woman
Explanation: BNSS 183(6)(a) requires such statements to be recorded by a woman Magistrate, or in her absence a male Magistrate in the presence of a woman, as soon as the commission of the offence is brought to the notice of the police.
1952. Under the BNSS provisions on summoning and examination of witnesses by police (Section 180), the police officer examining a witness may reduce the statement into writing or:
- A. By telephone only
- B. By a news reporter
- C. Through a witness's relative
- D. By audio-video electronic means
Answer: By audio-video electronic means
Explanation: Section 180(3) BNSS allows the police officer to record the statement of a witness by audio-video electronic means.
1953. A woman is to be arrested after sunset and before sunrise. Under Section 43(5) BNSS, an exceptional circumstance permits arrest only after:
- A. Notification to the village sarpanch
- B. A woman police officer makes a written report and obtains the prior permission of the Judicial Magistrate of the first class within whose jurisdiction the offence is committed or the arrest is to be made
- C. Verbal permission from a Superintendent of Police
- D. Consent of her husband
Answer: A woman police officer makes a written report and obtains the prior permission of the Judicial Magistrate of the first class within whose jurisdiction the offence is committed or the arrest is to be made
Explanation: BNSS preserves the rule of no arrest of a woman between sunset and sunrise except in exceptional circumstances, upon a woman officer's written report and prior permission of the JMFC.
1954. Under Section 35(7) BNSS, in an offence punishable with imprisonment of less than three years, for arrest of an infirm person or one above sixty years of age, the police officer must obtain:
- A. Permission of the State Government
- B. Permission of the DGP
- C. Permission of the Magistrate
- D. Prior permission of an officer not below the rank of Deputy Superintendent of Police
Answer: Prior permission of an officer not below the rank of Deputy Superintendent of Police
Explanation: BNSS 35(7) protects infirm and elderly persons: no arrest for offences below three years without prior permission of an officer of DSP rank or above.
1955. Under Section 35(3) BNSS, the notice of appearance issued to a person against whom a reasonable complaint exists, for an offence punishable with imprisonment less than seven years, directs him to:
- A. Report to the Superintendent of Police
- B. Deposit a fine
- C. Appear before the police officer at a specified place and time
- D. Surrender to the Magistrate
Answer: Appear before the police officer at a specified place and time
Explanation: Section 35(3) BNSS directs the notice of appearance; if the person complies, he shall not be arrested unless the officer records reasons that arrest is necessary.
1956. Section 176(3) BNSS requires, for offences punishable with seven years or more, that:
- A. The case is transferred to the CBI
- B. The Magistrate visits the crime scene
- C. A forensic expert visits the crime scene to collect forensic evidence, and the process is videographed on a mobile phone or electronic device
- D. The accused is produced within 12 hours
Answer: A forensic expert visits the crime scene to collect forensic evidence, and the process is videographed on a mobile phone or electronic device
Explanation: For offences carrying seven years or more, forensic expert visit and collection is mandatory and the process is to be recorded.
1957. Under Section 173(3) BNSS, for a cognizable offence punishable with imprisonment of three years or more but less than seven years, the officer in charge may, with prior permission of an officer not below the rank of Deputy Superintendent of Police, conduct a preliminary enquiry within:
- A. Thirty days
- B. Twenty-one days
- C. Fourteen days
- D. Seven days
Answer: Fourteen days
Explanation: Section 173(3) BNSS allows a preliminary enquiry, to ascertain whether a prima facie case exists, within 14 days with the prior permission of an officer not below DSP rank.
1958. Which of the following is true about 'zero FIR' under BNSS?
- A. It is not an FIR at all
- B. It is registered only for offences against women
- C. It can be registered at any police station irrespective of jurisdiction and is then transferred to the competent station
- D. It can be registered only by a Magistrate
Answer: It can be registered at any police station irrespective of jurisdiction and is then transferred to the competent station
Explanation: BNSS gives statutory backing to zero FIR registration at any station regardless of jurisdiction; the receiving station must not refuse and must transfer it to the competent station.
1959. A person arrested for an offence is not produced before a Magistrate and is kept in police lock-up for 36 hours. This is a violation of:
- A. Article 21A of the Constitution
- B. Article 22(2) of the Constitution and Section 58 BNSS
- C. Article 32
- D. Section 105 BNSS
Answer: Article 22(2) of the Constitution and Section 58 BNSS
Explanation: Article 22(2) and Section 58 BNSS require production before a Magistrate within 24 hours of arrest (excluding journey time); detention beyond that is illegal and may attract habeas corpus.
1960. Under BNSS, the maximum duration of police custody within the first forty or sixty days (as per Section 187) can be sought:
- A. Never in more than one instalment
- B. Only on the first day
- C. Only after the chargesheet
- D. In parts, in the whole or in parts, during the first 40 or 60 days of the 60/90-day detention period, subject to the 15-day overall limit
Answer: In parts, in the whole or in parts, during the first 40 or 60 days of the 60/90-day detention period, subject to the 15-day overall limit
Explanation: BNSS permits police custody for up to a total of 15 days, which may be availed in parts during the first 40 days (for 60-day cases) or first 60 days (for 90-day cases).
1961. Under Section 187(3) BNSS, a Magistrate may authorise detention of the accused in custody other than police custody beyond 15 days for an offence punishable with death, life or imprisonment of ten years or more, up to a total of:
- A. Ninety days
- B. One hundred and twenty days
- C. Forty-five days
- D. Sixty days
Answer: Ninety days
Explanation: For offences punishable with death, life or imprisonment of ten years or more, the total detention under Section 187(3) can go up to 90 days; for other offences, up to 60 days.
1962. An RPF Sub-Inspector arrests a man for theft of railway property on a platform. Under Section 58 BNSS, to which authority and within what time must the man be produced?
- A. The Divisional Railway Manager within 48 hours
- B. The Zonal Chief within 72 hours
- C. The Sessions Judge within 7 days
- D. The nearest Magistrate within 24 hours of arrest, excluding journey time
Answer: The nearest Magistrate within 24 hours of arrest, excluding journey time
Explanation: The 24-hour rule of Section 58 BNSS applies to every arrest without warrant, including arrests by RPF officers, who must produce the arrestee before the nearest Magistrate (excluding journey time).
1963. Under the BNSS Chapter on appeals, the State Government's appeal against inadequacy of sentence is made to:
- A. The Governor
- B. The District Magistrate
- C. The High Court (for a Sessions Court's sentence) or the Court of Session (for a Magistrate's sentence)
- D. The Supreme Court only
Answer: The High Court (for a Sessions Court's sentence) or the Court of Session (for a Magistrate's sentence)
Explanation: The State may appeal against inadequate sentence to the High Court where the sentence is by any other court and to the Sessions Court where the sentence is passed by a Magistrate.
1964. Under the BNSS, a Judicial Magistrate can direct an accused to give specimen signature, handwriting, finger impression or voice sample. This power extends to a person who:
- A. Only a person who has been convicted
- B. Has not been arrested
- C. Only a police officer
- D. Only a witness
Answer: Has not been arrested
Explanation: Section 349 BNSS lets a Magistrate order such samples even from a person not arrested; but he cannot be compelled to give a sample if there is no order, and refusal can attract adverse consequences.
1965. The BNSS provision on 'identification of arrested person' for a Test Identification Parade (TIP) is conducted by:
- A. The Station House Officer
- B. The Investigating Officer
- C. A Magistrate
- D. The informant
Answer: A Magistrate
Explanation: A Test Identification Parade is ordinarily conducted by an Executive/Judicial Magistrate, not by the police, to ensure credibility; the identification evidence is corroborative.
1966. Under the BNSS provisions on summons, if the person to be served cannot be found after due diligence, service may be effected by:
- A. Publication only in the Gazette
- B. Pasting on any public notice board far away
- C. Leaving a duplicate with an adult male (or female) member of his family residing with him
- D. Verbal message by the police
Answer: Leaving a duplicate with an adult male (or female) member of his family residing with him
Explanation: BNSS allows substituted service on an adult member of the family residing with the person (and the receipt must be signed), a move that also covers an adult female member.
1967. Under the BNSS, summons-cases and warrant-cases, an accused who is a juristic person (corporation) is served summons by serving it on:
- A. The nearest police station
- B. The secretary, local manager or other principal officer, or by registered post addressed to the principal officer
- C. The District Collector
- D. Any customer of the corporation
Answer: The secretary, local manager or other principal officer, or by registered post addressed to the principal officer
Explanation: Service of summons on a corporation is effected on the secretary, local manager or other principal officer, or by registered post to the principal officer at the head office.
1968. Under Section 222 BNSS (CrPC 199), a Court shall take cognizance of the offence of defamation only upon:
- A. A report of a village headman
- B. A complaint made by some person aggrieved by the offence
- C. A police report only
- D. An anonymous petition
Answer: A complaint made by some person aggrieved by the offence
Explanation: Defamation is a complaint case: cognizance is taken on a complaint by a person aggrieved (with specified provisions for minors, incapacitated persons and women observing seclusion).
1969. Under Section 218 BNSS (CrPC 197), the competent Government must decide whether to grant sanction for prosecution of a public servant within what period of receiving the request, failing which sanction is deemed?
- A. Ninety days
- B. Thirty days
- C. One hundred and twenty days
- D. Sixty days
Answer: One hundred and twenty days
Explanation: BNSS 218 proviso: the Government shall decide within 120 days of receipt of the request; failing which the sanction is deemed to have been accorded.
1970. Under the BNSS, a Magistrate may take cognizance of an offence on the basis of a police report 'in any mode'. How does BNSS describe the police report in this context?
- A. Only a registered post report
- B. Police report of such facts, including by electronic mode
- C. Only a report through Magistrate
- D. Only a handwritten report
Answer: Police report of such facts, including by electronic mode
Explanation: Section 210(1)(b) BNSS allows cognizance upon a police report of facts, including by any mode, electronic as well.
1971. Under Section 359 BNSS (CrPC 320), the composition of an offence has the effect of:
- A. Transfer of the case to Sessions
- B. Conviction with reduced sentence
- C. Only a discharge without bar to retrial
- D. Acquittal of the accused with whom the offence has been compounded
Answer: Acquittal of the accused with whom the offence has been compounded
Explanation: Under Section 359 BNSS, the composition of an offence has the effect of an acquittal of the accused.
1972. Under the First Schedule of the BNSS, voluntarily causing hurt (BNS section 115(2)) is:
- A. Non-cognizable, bailable and triable by any Magistrate
- B. Non-cognizable and triable only by Court of Session
- C. Cognizable and triable by Court of Session
- D. Cognizable and non-bailable
Answer: Non-cognizable, bailable and triable by any Magistrate
Explanation: Simple hurt is non-cognizable, bailable and triable by any Magistrate; it is also compoundable by the victim.
1973. Under the First Schedule of the BNSS, the offence of murder under the BNS is classified as:
- A. Non-cognizable, bailable and triable by any Magistrate
- B. Cognizable, bailable and triable by a Magistrate of the first class
- C. Non-cognizable, non-bailable and triable by Executive Magistrate
- D. Cognizable, non-bailable and triable by the Court of Session
Answer: Cognizable, non-bailable and triable by the Court of Session
Explanation: Murder is cognizable, non-bailable and triable by the Court of Session; police may arrest without warrant and bail is not a matter of right.
1974. BNSS introduces a new Directorate of Prosecution at the State level. It is headed by:
- A. A Director of Prosecution
- B. The Director General of Police
- C. The Chief Secretary
- D. The Advocate General
Answer: A Director of Prosecution
Explanation: BNSS provides for a Directorate of Prosecution in each State headed by a Director of Prosecution, assisted by Deputy Directors and Assistant Directors, to monitor cases punishable with seven years or more and to direct appeals.
1975. What is the minimum period of experience as an advocate required for appointment as a Public Prosecutor under the BNSS (as in CrPC 24(7))?
- A. Seven years
- B. Five years
- C. Three years
- D. Ten years
Answer: Seven years
Explanation: A person is eligible for appointment as Public Prosecutor or Additional Public Prosecutor only if he has been in practice as an advocate for not less than seven years.
1976. An Assistant Sessions Judge can pass a sentence of imprisonment up to:
- A. Seven years
- B. Life imprisonment
- C. Ten years
- D. Three years
Answer: Ten years
Explanation: An Assistant Sessions Judge may pass any sentence authorised by law except a sentence of death or of imprisonment for life or of imprisonment for a term exceeding ten years.
1977. Which court is the highest criminal court in a Sessions Division for trying offences under the BNSS, other than the High Court?
- A. The Court of Session
- B. The Court of Judicial Magistrate of Second Class
- C. The Court of Chief Judicial Magistrate
- D. The Court of Executive Magistrate
Answer: The Court of Session
Explanation: Apart from the High Court, the Court of Session is the principal criminal court of a sessions division and can pass any sentence authorised by law, subject to confirmation of death sentences by the High Court.
1978. Which expression does BNSS define as including the use of communication devices for video-conferencing, recording of statements and search and seizure?
- A. Digital signature
- B. Electronic witness
- C. Public document
- D. Audio-video electronic means
Answer: Audio-video electronic means
Explanation: BNSS defines 'audio-video electronic means' to include any communication device used for video-conferencing, recording of process of identification, search and seizure or evidence, and transmission of electronic communication.
1979. Under the BNSS definition of 'investigation', who other than a police officer can conduct investigation?
- A. Any village panchayat
- B. Any journalist
- C. Any person (other than a Magistrate) who is authorised by a Magistrate in this behalf
- D. Any private detective
Answer: Any person (other than a Magistrate) who is authorised by a Magistrate in this behalf
Explanation: Investigation includes all proceedings under the Sanhita for the collection of evidence conducted by a police officer or by any person (other than a Magistrate) authorised by a Magistrate.
1980. Under the BNSS definitions, the term 'victim' includes:
- A. The guardian or legal heir of the person who has suffered loss or injury by reason of the act or omission of the accused
- B. Only the witness who saw the crime
- C. Only the informant
- D. Only the person physically injured
Answer: The guardian or legal heir of the person who has suffered loss or injury by reason of the act or omission of the accused
Explanation: BNSS defines 'victim' as a person who suffered loss or injury by reason of the act or omission of the accused, and includes the guardian or legal heir of such victim.
1981. Under the BNSS definitions, a 'warrant-case' means a case relating to an offence punishable with:
- A. Fine only
- B. Imprisonment up to six months only
- C. Imprisonment up to two years only
- D. Death, imprisonment for life or imprisonment for a term exceeding two years
Answer: Death, imprisonment for life or imprisonment for a term exceeding two years
Explanation: A warrant-case relates to an offence punishable with death, life imprisonment or imprisonment exceeding two years; every other case is a summons-case.
1982. Under the Limitation chapter of the BNSS, the period of limitation for taking cognizance of an offence punishable with fine only is:
- A. Six months
- B. One year
- C. Three years
- D. No limitation
Answer: Six months
Explanation: Limitation: six months for fine-only offences; one year for offences punishable with imprisonment up to one year; three years for imprisonment exceeding one year but not exceeding three; no limit for offences punishable with more than three years.
1983. Under Section 401 BNSS (CrPC 360), a court may release an offender on probation of good conduct on his entering into a bond with or without sureties to appear and receive sentence when called upon during a period not exceeding:
- A. Three years
- B. Five years
- C. One year
- D. Six months
Answer: Three years
Explanation: Section 401 BNSS allows release on probation (instead of sentence) upon a bond to appear within a period not exceeding three years.
1984. Section 398 BNSS requires every State Government to prepare and notify a:
- A. Witness Protection Scheme
- B. Bail Guidelines for undertrials
- C. Jail Manual
- D. Police Reforms Commission
Answer: Witness Protection Scheme
Explanation: Section 398 BNSS mandates a Witness Protection Scheme in each State/UT to safeguard witnesses from threats and inducement.
1985. Section 397 BNSS (CrPC 357C) requires all hospitals, public or private, to provide first-aid or medical treatment free of cost to victims of which type of offences?
- A. Defamation offences
- B. Theft offences
- C. Cheating offences
- D. Rape and acid attack offences specified in the BNS
Answer: Rape and acid attack offences specified in the BNS
Explanation: Section 397 BNSS obliges hospitals to give free first-aid/medical treatment to victims of specified sexual offences and acid attack and to immediately inform the police.
1986. Section 396 BNSS (CrPC 357A) requires every State Government, in co-ordination with the Central Government, to prepare a scheme for:
- A. Recruitment of public prosecutors
- B. Funds for compensation to the victim or his dependants who have suffered loss or injury and require rehabilitation
- C. Police housing
- D. Prison reforms
Answer: Funds for compensation to the victim or his dependants who have suffered loss or injury and require rehabilitation
Explanation: Section 396 BNSS mandates a victim compensation scheme; the court recommends compensation, and the District/State Legal Services Authority decides the quantum.
1987. Under Section 164 BNSS (CrPC 145), when an Executive Magistrate is satisfied that a dispute concerning land or water is likely to cause a breach of the peace, he first:
- A. Orders the police to forcibly evict both parties
- B. Makes a written order stating the grounds of his satisfaction and requires the parties to put in written statements of their claims as to actual possession
- C. Decides title to the property
- D. Refers the dispute to a civil court for title decision before anything else
Answer: Makes a written order stating the grounds of his satisfaction and requires the parties to put in written statements of their claims as to actual possession
Explanation: Section 164 proceedings decide only actual possession (not title); the Magistrate begins with a written order stating grounds and calling for written statements.
1988. Section 152 BNSS (CrPC 133) empowers a District Magistrate, Sub-Divisional Magistrate or other Executive Magistrate to issue a conditional order for removal of:
- A. Bail bonds
- B. Pending criminal cases
- C. Public nuisances
- D. Cognizable offences
Answer: Public nuisances
Explanation: Section 152 BNSS (conditional order for removal of nuisance) is a summary remedy against public nuisances like unlawful obstructions on public ways.
1989. Section 163 BNSS (CrPC 144) empowers a District Magistrate or Sub-Divisional Magistrate to issue an order in urgent cases of nuisance or apprehended danger. An order made ex parte without notice can remain in force for no longer than:
- A. Two months from the making of the order (extendable by the State Government up to six months)
- B. One year
- C. Indefinitely
- D. Two weeks
Answer: Two months from the making of the order (extendable by the State Government up to six months)
Explanation: Section 163 BNSS: no order shall remain in force beyond two months from the making thereof, but the State Government may extend it by a notification, up to a maximum of six months.
1990. Under Section 144(3) BNSS, a warrant for levying the amount due as maintenance may be issued only if the application is made within what period from the date the amount became due?
- A. Three months
- B. Six months
- C. Two years
- D. One year
Answer: One year
Explanation: No warrant for recovery of maintenance arrears can be issued unless the application is made within one year of the date the amount became due; imprisonment up to one month per unpaid month may also follow.
1991. Under Section 144(4) BNSS (CrPC 125(4)), a wife shall NOT be entitled to maintenance if she:
- A. Is employed in a private job
- B. Has children from the marriage
- C. Is living in adultery, or refuses without sufficient reason to live with her husband, or they are living separately by mutual consent
- D. Has lived in a different city
Answer: Is living in adultery, or refuses without sufficient reason to live with her husband, or they are living separately by mutual consent
Explanation: Section 144(4) disentitles a wife living in adultery, refusing without sufficient reason to live with her husband, or living separately by mutual consent.
1992. Under Section 128 BNSS (CrPC 109), security for good behaviour may be demanded from a person who:
- A. Is a witness in a pending case
- B. Holds a gun licence
- C. Has been convicted of a bailable offence
- D. Is taking precautions to conceal his presence within the local limits with a view to committing a cognizable offence
Answer: Is taking precautions to conceal his presence within the local limits with a view to committing a cognizable offence
Explanation: Section 128 BNSS covers persons concealing their presence to commit a cognizable offence; the Executive Magistrate may require a bond with or without sureties for good behaviour.
1993. Under Section 129 BNSS (CrPC 110), security for good behaviour from habitual offenders may be demanded by the Executive Magistrate for a period not exceeding:
- A. Three years
- B. One year
- C. Six months
- D. Five years
Answer: Three years
Explanation: For habitual offenders (e.g., habitual robbers, house-breakers, thieves, receivers of stolen property), security for good behaviour may be ordered for up to three years.
1994. Section 528 BNSS (CrPC 482) preserves which of the following?
- A. The power of the police to arrest anyone
- B. The Governor's power of pardon
- C. The powers of the Election Commission
- D. The inherent powers of the High Court to make orders necessary to give effect to any order under the Sanhita, prevent abuse of the process of any court, or secure the ends of justice
Answer: The inherent powers of the High Court to make orders necessary to give effect to any order under the Sanhita, prevent abuse of the process of any court, or secure the ends of justice
Explanation: Section 528 BNSS retains the High Court's inherent powers; it does not confer new powers but saves existing ones, commonly invoked to quash FIRs or proceedings that amount to abuse of process.
1995. Under Section 430 BNSS (CrPC 389), when an appellate court considers suspending the sentence and releasing on bail a convict sentenced to death, life imprisonment or imprisonment of ten years or more, the court shall first:
- A. Seek the Governor's consent
- B. Give the Public Prosecutor an opportunity to show cause in writing against such release
- C. Obtain the convict's medical report
- D. Refer the matter to the Supreme Court
Answer: Give the Public Prosecutor an opportunity to show cause in writing against such release
Explanation: Under the proviso to Section 430 BNSS, for serious sentences the appellate court must allow the Public Prosecutor to oppose in writing before suspending the sentence.
1996. Under Section 416 BNSS (CrPC 375), where an accused person has pleaded guilty and has been convicted on such plea by a Magistrate, no appeal lies except as to:
- A. The place of trial
- B. The Magistrate's jurisdiction alone
- C. The extent or legality of the sentence
- D. The conviction itself
Answer: The extent or legality of the sentence
Explanation: Section 416 BNSS bars appeals against conviction on the accused's own plea of guilty but permits an appeal on the extent or legality of the sentence.
1997. Section 475 BNSS (CrPC 433A) provides that a person sentenced to imprisonment for life for an offence for which death is one of the punishments (or whose death sentence was commuted) shall not be released unless he has served at least:
- A. Fourteen years of imprisonment
- B. Ten years of imprisonment
- C. Twenty years of imprisonment
- D. Seven years of imprisonment
Answer: Fourteen years of imprisonment
Explanation: Section 475 BNSS restricts remission/commutation: for such life-term convicts, release is permissible only after serving at least fourteen years' actual imprisonment.
1998. Under Section 484 BNSS (CrPC 440), the amount of every bond executed for bail shall be fixed:
- A. At a fixed Rs 10,000 in all cases
- B. At double the value of the property involved
- C. With due regard to the circumstances of the case, and shall not be excessive
- D. At the discretion of the investigating officer alone
Answer: With due regard to the circumstances of the case, and shall not be excessive
Explanation: The amount of a bond under Section 484 BNSS must be fixed with due regard to the circumstances of the case and must not be excessive.
1999. Section 481 BNSS (CrPC 437A) requires an accused, before the conclusion of trial and before disposal of appeal, to execute a bond for appearance before the higher Court. Such bond remains in force for:
- A. One year
- B. Six months
- C. Two years
- D. Three months
Answer: Six months
Explanation: Section 481 BNSS provides that the bail bond with sureties is to be in force for six months to appear before the appellate court if notice of an appeal or petition is issued.
2000. Under Section 478 BNSS (CrPC 436), a person accused of a bailable offence who is unable to furnish bail within one week of arrest:
- A. Must pay double the bail amount
- B. Is automatically convicted
- C. Is presumed to be an indigent person and may be released on his personal bond without sureties
- D. Must be detained until trial
Answer: Is presumed to be an indigent person and may be released on his personal bond without sureties
Explanation: Inability to furnish surety within a week is a sufficient ground for presuming indigency under the explanation to Section 478 BNSS, so the accused can be released on personal bond.