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481. In January 2024 the Supreme Court quashed the Gujarat government's remission of 11 convicts in the Bilkis Bano case, holding that the 'appropriate government' was:
- A. Gujarat, where the crime occurred
- B. The Madhya Pradesh Government
- C. Maharashtra, where the trial was conducted
- D. The Union Government
Answer: Maharashtra, where the trial was conducted
Explanation: Justice B.V. Nagarathna's bench held that remission lies with the State where the trial occurred (Maharashtra), as the case had been transferred there in 2004.
482. In Subhash Desai v. Principal Secretary, Governor of Maharashtra (May 2023), the Supreme Court did NOT restore the Uddhav Thackeray government because:
- A. Thackeray resigned without facing the floor test
- B. The case had become infructuous after fresh elections
- C. The Speaker had already disqualified the rebels
- D. The bench was evenly split
Answer: Thackeray resigned without facing the floor test
Explanation: The Court held the Governor's call for a floor test unjustified but could not undo Thackeray's resignation; it also held the Speaker's appointment of the Shinde faction's whip was illegal.
483. In the May 2023 Constitution Bench ruling on the Government of NCT of Delhi v. Union of India, legislative and executive power over 'services' was held to lie with:
- A. The President acting under Article 239AA(4)
- B. The Lieutenant Governor entirely
- C. The Union Home Ministry
- D. The elected Delhi Government, except for police, public order and land
Answer: The elected Delhi Government, except for police, public order and land
Explanation: CJI Chandrachud's bench held the elected government controls services other than police, public order and land (Entries 1, 2 and 18 of List II); Parliament then legislated the 2023 Amendment Act.
484. M.K. Ranjitsinh v. Union of India (March 2024), concerning the Great Indian Bustard, recognised which right?
- A. A right to be free from the adverse effects of climate change under Articles 14 and 21
- B. A fundamental right to clean energy under Article 51A
- C. A right to sustainable development under Article 48A as enforceable
- D. A right to wildlife habitat under Article 300A
Answer: A right to be free from the adverse effects of climate change under Articles 14 and 21
Explanation: The Court recognised the right against adverse effects of climate change as part of Articles 14 and 21 while balancing solar power lines and bustard conservation.
485. In Mohd. Abdul Samad v. State of Telangana (July 2024), the Supreme Court held that Section 125 CrPC maintenance:
- A. Is available only to Hindu women
- B. Is limited to the iddat period for Muslim women
- C. Is available only if personal law allows it
- D. Is available to all married women including Muslim women, irrespective of personal law
Answer: Is available to all married women including Muslim women, irrespective of personal law
Explanation: The bench of Justices B.V. Nagarathna and Augustine George Masih held that Section 125 applies to all married women; the 1986 Act does not override it.
486. In Sita Soren v. Union of India (March 2024), a seven-judge bench held that MPs/MLAs taking bribes to vote or speak in the House:
- A. Are protected if the bribe is not accepted
- B. Are not protected by parliamentary privilege under Articles 105(2) and 194(2)
- C. Are protected as the vote is cast inside the House
- D. Can be prosecuted only after Speaker's sanction
Answer: Are not protected by parliamentary privilege under Articles 105(2) and 194(2)
Explanation: The unanimous judgment overruled P.V. Narasimha Rao v. State (1998), holding bribery is not immune because the offence is complete on acceptance.
487. In the July 2024 judgment in Mineral Area Development Authority v. SAIL, the nine-judge bench held that:
- A. States cannot receive any levy on mining
- B. Royalty is not a tax and States can levy tax on mineral rights
- C. Only Parliament can tax mineral rights
- D. Royalty is a tax under Entry 54 of List I
Answer: Royalty is not a tax and States can levy tax on mineral rights
Explanation: The 8:1 ruling (Justice B.V. Nagarathna dissenting) held royalty is a contractual payment, not tax, and States can tax mineral-bearing land under Entry 50 of List II.
488. In November 2024, a nine-judge bench (8:1) ruled on Article 39(b) that:
- A. Directive Principles override Article 19 in all cases
- B. Not every privately owned resource is automatically a 'material resource of the community' the State can redistribute
- C. Right to property is restored as a fundamental right
- D. All private property can be acquired by the State for redistribution
Answer: Not every privately owned resource is automatically a 'material resource of the community' the State can redistribute
Explanation: CJI Chandrachud's majority held that private resources may qualify only after a case-specific inquiry; Justice Sudhanshu Dhulia dissented.
489. In November 2024 a seven-judge Constitution Bench (4:3) overruled which precedent while examining the minority character of Aligarh Muslim University?
- A. St. Stephen's College v. University of Delhi (1992)
- B. P.A. Inamdar (2005)
- C. T.M.A. Pai Foundation (2002)
- D. S. Azeez Basha v. Union of India (1967)
Answer: S. Azeez Basha v. Union of India (1967)
Explanation: The bench overruled Azeez Basha (1967), which had denied minority status because AMU was created by a statute, and left the actual determination to a regular bench.
490. The Supreme Court upheld the constitutional validity of Section 6A of the Citizenship Act, 1955 (Assam Accord) in October 2024. The cut-off date for Assam under that section is:
- A. 1 July 1987
- B. 19 July 1948
- C. 25 March 1971
- D. 1 January 1966
Answer: 25 March 1971
Explanation: The 4:1 majority upheld Section 6A, which gives citizenship to migrants who entered Assam before 25 March 1971; Justice J.B. Pardiwala dissented.
491. In its November 2024 'bulldozer justice' guidelines, the Supreme Court, exercising Article 142, required a minimum notice period before demolition of at least:
- A. 48 hours
- B. 15 days
- C. 30 days
- D. 7 days
Answer: 15 days
Explanation: The bench of Justices B.R. Gavai and K.V. Viswanathan required 15 days' prior notice served by registered post, a personal hearing, a reasoned final order and videography of demolition (excluding public roads and court-ordered cases).
492. In State of Punjab v. Davinder Singh (1 August 2024), a seven-judge bench by 6:1 held that States can sub-classify Scheduled Castes, thereby overruling:
- A. Indra Sawhney v. Union of India (1992)
- B. M. Nagaraj v. Union of India (2006)
- C. E.V. Chinnaiah v. State of Andhra Pradesh (2004)
- D. Kesavananda Bharati (1973)
Answer: E.V. Chinnaiah v. State of Andhra Pradesh (2004)
Explanation: The verdict overruled E.V. Chinnaiah, which treated SCs as a homogenous class; Justice Bela M. Trivedi dissented.
493. In Supriyo @ Supriya Chakraborty v. Union of India (October 2023), the Supreme Court:
- A. Struck down the Special Marriage Act, 1954
- B. Legalised same-sex marriage with immediate effect
- C. Declined to recognise a fundamental right to same-sex marriage and left the matter to Parliament
- D. Directed States to register same-sex marriages
Answer: Declined to recognise a fundamental right to same-sex marriage and left the matter to Parliament
Explanation: The five-judge bench (by 3:2 on civil unions, unanimous on marriage) held there is no fundamental right to marry and the Special Marriage Act was not read down; the Centre's committee on rights of queer couples was recorded.
494. In the electoral bonds judgment (15 February 2024), the Supreme Court held the scheme violative primarily of which right?
- A. Voters' right to information under Article 19(1)(a)
- B. Right to property under Article 300A
- C. Right to equality before law under Article 14 only
- D. Freedom of trade under Article 19(1)(g)
Answer: Voters' right to information under Article 19(1)(a)
Explanation: The Constitution Bench unanimously struck down the scheme as unconstitutional for infringing voters' right to information; it also struck the removal of the cap on corporate donations in the Companies Act and directed SBI to disclose details to the ECI.
495. In its December 2023 verdict on the abrogation of Article 370, the Supreme Court Constitution Bench directed that elections to the J&K Legislative Assembly be held by:
- A. 31 December 2024
- B. 30 September 2024
- C. 31 March 2024
- D. 30 June 2025
Answer: 30 September 2024
Explanation: The five-judge bench led by CJI Chandrachud unanimously upheld the 2019 Presidential Orders, held Article 370 a temporary provision, and asked for early restoration of statehood.
496. The Mediation Act, 2023 contains a provision for settlement agreements arising out of mediation. Such agreements are:
- A. Valid only for commercial disputes
- B. Final and binding and enforceable like a court judgment/decree
- C. Valid only if signed before a Magistrate
- D. Advisory only and require court confirmation each time
Answer: Final and binding and enforceable like a court judgment/decree
Explanation: The Mediation Act, 2023 makes mediated settlement agreements final, binding and enforceable as if a court decree, and provides for community mediation and a Mediation Council of India.
497. Which Constitutional Article, inserted by the 2023 amendment, provides for reservation of seats for women in Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assemblies?
- A. Article 332A
- B. Article 243D
- C. Article 334A
- D. Article 330A
Answer: Article 334A
Explanation: Article 334A (with Articles 330A and 332A) was inserted; Article 334A makes the reservation effective after delimitation.
498. C. P. Radhakrishnan, elected in September 2025, is the which Vice-President of India?
- A. 16th
- B. 15th
- C. 13th
- D. 14th
Answer: 15th
Explanation: The election was held after Jagdeep Dhankhar resigned on 21 July 2025; Radhakrishnan, a former Maharashtra Governor, defeated B. Sudershan Reddy.
499. The new Parliament building was inaugurated on 28 May 2023. Which architect firm led its design?
- A. HCP Design, Planning and Management (Bimal Patel)
- B. Charles Correa Associates
- C. Hafeez Contractor Architects
- D. Studio Lotus
Answer: HCP Design, Planning and Management (Bimal Patel)
Explanation: The triangular building was designed by Ahmedabad's HCP Design under Bimal Patel and built by Tata Projects; the ceremonial Sengol was installed near the Speaker's chair.
500. Om Birla's re-election as Lok Sabha Speaker on 26 June 2024 made him the first Speaker since which person to be re-elected for a consecutive full term after completing a full term?
- A. Balram Jakhar
- B. G. M. C. Balayogi
- C. Somnath Chatterjee
- D. Sardar Hukam Singh
Answer: Balram Jakhar
Explanation: Om Birla became the first Speaker since Balram Jakhar (7th and 8th Lok Sabhas) to be elected to a second consecutive term after completing a full term.
501. In June 2024, Rahul Gandhi became Leader of Opposition in the Lok Sabha. Who served as the pro-tem Speaker of the 18th Lok Sabha?
- A. Radha Mohan Singh
- B. Virendra Kumar
- C. Kodikunnil Suresh
- D. Bhartruhari Mahtab
Answer: Bhartruhari Mahtab
Explanation: BJP's seven-time Cuttack MP Bhartruhari Mahtab was pro-tem Speaker; the opposition protested the bypassing of Congress's Kodikunnil Suresh.
502. Which State became the first in independent India to enact a Uniform Civil Code, with the Act coming into force on 27 January 2025?
- A. Assam
- B. Uttarakhand
- C. Gujarat
- D. Madhya Pradesh
Answer: Uttarakhand
Explanation: Uttarakhand's UCC Act, passed in February 2024 and operationalised on 27 January 2025, made registration of live-in relationships mandatory (Goa had a colonial-era civil code).
503. The Citizenship (Amendment) Rules, 2024 were notified on 11 March 2024. The cut-off date of entry into India for eligible applicants is:
- A. 1 January 2015
- B. 31 December 2014
- C. 31 December 2019
- D. 26 January 2020
Answer: 31 December 2014
Explanation: Under the CAA 2019 rules, undocumented non-Muslim migrants from Afghanistan, Bangladesh and Pakistan who entered on or before 31 December 2014 can apply via an online portal.
504. The Forest (Conservation) Amendment Act, 2023 renamed the 1980 Act as:
- A. Rashtriya Van Nitti Adhiniyam
- B. Van Adhikar Sanrakshan Adhiniyam
- C. Van (Sanrakshan Evam Samvardhan) Adhiniyam
- D. Bharatiya Van Vikas Adhiniyam
Answer: Van (Sanrakshan Evam Samvardhan) Adhiniyam
Explanation: The 2023 amendment renamed the Act as the Van (Sanrakshan Evam Samvardhan) Adhiniyam and exempted certain categories, such as strategic linear projects near borders, from prior approval.
505. The Government of NCT of Delhi (Amendment) Act, 2023 created the National Capital Civil Service Authority. Who chairs it?
- A. The Lieutenant Governor
- B. The Chief Minister of Delhi
- C. The Chief Secretary of Delhi
- D. The Union Home Secretary
Answer: The Chief Minister of Delhi
Explanation: The Authority is chaired by the Chief Minister with the Chief Secretary and Principal Home Secretary as members; it was enacted after the May 2023 Constitution Bench ruling on services.
506. The Promotion and Regulation of Online Gaming Act, 2025 primarily prohibits:
- A. Mobile games for persons under 21
- B. Online money games, including real-money fantasy sports and betting-type games
- C. All e-sports tournaments
- D. Foreign-developed game applications
Answer: Online money games, including real-money fantasy sports and betting-type games
Explanation: The Act (August 2025) bans online money games while promoting e-sports and social games, and creates a regulatory authority.
507. The Anusandhan National Research Foundation Act, 2023 subsumed which existing statutory body?
- A. Science and Engineering Research Board (SERB)
- B. Department of Biotechnology
- C. Defence Research and Development Organisation
- D. Council of Scientific and Industrial Research
Answer: Science and Engineering Research Board (SERB)
Explanation: ANRF, with the Prime Minister as ex-officio President, subsumes SERB established under the SERB Act 2008.
508. The Post Office Act, 2023, which came into force on 18 June 2024, repealed which Act?
- A. Postal Life Insurance Act, 1884
- B. Savings Banks Act, 1873
- C. Indian Telegraph Act, 1885
- D. Indian Post Office Act, 1898
Answer: Indian Post Office Act, 1898
Explanation: The Post Office Act 2023 repealed the Indian Post Office Act 1898 and removed the Post Office's exclusive privilege of carrying letters.
509. The Press and Registration of Periodicals Act, 2023 replaced an Act of which year?
- A. 1955
- B. 1908
- C. 1867
- D. 1923
Answer: 1867
Explanation: It replaced the Press and Registration of Books Act, 1867, and set up a Press Registrar General; it also decriminalised most offences.
510. The Immigration and Foreigners Act, 2025 consolidated which set of four older laws?
- A. Registration of Foreigners Act 1939, Passport Act 1967, Foreigners Act 1946, Emigration Act 1983
- B. Passport (Entry into India) Act 1920, Registration of Foreigners Act 1939, Foreigners Act 1946, Immigration (Carriers' Liability) Act 2000
- C. Passport Act 1967, Extradition Act 1962, Citizenship Act 1955, Foreigners Act 1946
- D. Foreigners Act 1946, Citizenship Act 1955, Extradition Act 1962, Immigration (Carriers' Liability) Act 2000
Answer: Passport (Entry into India) Act 1920, Registration of Foreigners Act 1939, Foreigners Act 1946, Immigration (Carriers' Liability) Act 2000
Explanation: The 2025 Act repealed and merged the Passport (Entry into India) Act 1920, Registration of Foreigners Act 1939, Foreigners Act 1946 and Immigration (Carriers' Liability) Act 2000.
511. The Bharatiya Vayuyan Adhiniyam, 2024 replaced which earlier law?
- A. The Carriage by Air Act, 1972
- B. The Airports Authority of India Act, 1994
- C. The Aircraft Act, 1934
- D. The Aircraft (Security) Rules, 2023
Answer: The Aircraft Act, 1934
Explanation: The Bharatiya Vayuyan Adhiniyam, 2024 replaced the 90-year-old Aircraft Act, 1934, as part of decolonising legislation.
512. The Constitution (129th Amendment) Bill, 2024 on simultaneous elections introduced in December 2024 was referred to a Joint Parliamentary Committee chaired by:
- A. Jagdambika Pal
- B. Bhartruhari Mahtab
- C. P. P. Chaudhary
- D. Anurag Thakur
Answer: P. P. Chaudhary
Explanation: The JPC on the 'One Nation One Election' bills is chaired by BJP MP P. P. Chaudhary.
513. The high-level committee on simultaneous elections whose report was submitted to the President in March 2024 was headed by:
- A. N. K. Singh
- B. Venkaiah Naidu
- C. Ram Nath Kovind
- D. Justice Ranjana Prakash Desai
Answer: Ram Nath Kovind
Explanation: The Kovind committee recommended simultaneous Lok Sabha and Assembly polls first, followed by local body elections within 100 days.
514. The Waqf Act, 1995 was renamed by the Waqf (Amendment) Act, 2025 as:
- A. Unified Waqf Management, Empowerment, Efficiency and Development (UMEED) Act, 1995
- B. Bharatiya Waqf Sanrakshan Act, 1995
- C. Waqf Properties Regulation Act, 1995
- D. National Waqf Trust Act, 1995
Answer: Unified Waqf Management, Empowerment, Efficiency and Development (UMEED) Act, 1995
Explanation: The Waqf (Amendment) Act, 2025 (assent 5 April 2025) renamed the 1995 Act as the UMEED Act; the Supreme Court in September 2025 stayed some provisions on an interim basis.
515. The CEC and Other Election Commissioners (Appointment, Conditions of Service and Term of Office) Act, 2023 changed the selection committee by replacing which member with a Union Cabinet Minister nominated by the Prime Minister?
- A. Attorney General of India
- B. Chief Justice of India
- C. Leader of the House in Rajya Sabha
- D. Speaker of the Lok Sabha
Answer: Chief Justice of India
Explanation: The Supreme Court in Anoop Baranwal (March 2023) had directed a panel of PM, Leader of Opposition and CJI; the 2023 Act substituted the CJI with a Cabinet Minister.
516. The Jan Vishwas (Amendment of Provisions) Act, 2023 decriminalised or rationalised offences across how many Central Acts?
- A. 97
- B. 68
- C. 19
- D. 42
Answer: 42
Explanation: The Act amended 183 provisions in 42 Central Acts administered by 19 ministries to promote ease of living and doing business.
517. The Telecommunications Act, 2023 repealed which pair of colonial-era statutes?
- A. Indian Post Office Act, 1898 and Telegraph Wires (Unlawful Possession) Act, 1950
- B. Indian Telegraph Act, 1885 and Cable Television Networks Act, 1995
- C. Indian Telegraph Act, 1885 and Indian Wireless Telegraphy Act, 1933
- D. Indian Wireless Telegraphy Act, 1933 and TRAI Act, 1997
Answer: Indian Telegraph Act, 1885 and Indian Wireless Telegraphy Act, 1933
Explanation: The Telecommunications Act, 2023 replaced the Indian Telegraph Act 1885 and the Indian Wireless Telegraphy Act 1933 (and amended the TRAI Act 1997).
518. What is the maximum monetary penalty prescribed under the Digital Personal Data Protection Act, 2023 for failure to take reasonable security safeguards to prevent a personal data breach?
- A. Rs 150 crore
- B. Rs 500 crore
- C. Rs 250 crore
- D. Rs 50 crore
Answer: Rs 250 crore
Explanation: The Schedule to the DPDP Act, 2023 sets a penalty of up to Rs 250 crore for failure to take reasonable security safeguards; the Data Protection Board of India adjudicates.
519. Under the Constitution (106th Amendment) Act, 2023 (Nari Shakti Vandan Adhiniyam), the women's reservation in the Lok Sabha and State Assemblies becomes operative only after which event?
- A. After a delimitation exercise based on the first census taken after the Act's commencement
- B. After ratification by all State Legislatures
- C. Immediately from the 2024 general election
- D. After the Election Commission issues a separate notification for each State
Answer: After a delimitation exercise based on the first census taken after the Act's commencement
Explanation: Article 334A, inserted by the 106th Amendment, makes the one-third reservation effective only after delimitation based on the first census following commencement; it runs for 15 years, extendable by Parliament.
520. The main venue of the first Asian Games (1951) was:
- A. National Stadium, New Delhi
- B. Eden Gardens
- C. Brabourne Stadium
- D. Salt Lake Stadium
Answer: National Stadium, New Delhi
Explanation: The 1951 Games were held at the National Stadium (now Dhyan Chand National Stadium), Delhi.
521. In which journal was 'Jana Gana Mana' first published, in January 1912, under the title 'Bharat Vidhata'?
- A. Sandhya
- B. Tattwabodhini Patrika
- C. Modern Review
- D. Bangadarshan
Answer: Tattwabodhini Patrika
Explanation: Jana Gana Mana appeared as 'Bharat Vidhata' in Tattwabodhini Patrika in January 1912; Tagore translated it as 'The Morning Song of India' in 1919 at Madanapalle.
522. The Indian Navy's INS Vikramaditya was acquired from Russia for use as:
- A. A nuclear submarine
- B. An aircraft carrier operating MiG-29K fighters
- C. A landing platform dock
- D. A fleet tanker
Answer: An aircraft carrier operating MiG-29K fighters
Explanation: Vikramaditya, ex-Admiral Gorshkov, entered service in November 2013 and operates MiG-29K jets.
523. The Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023 replaced which law?
- A. Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973
- B. Indian Penal Code, 1860
- C. Police Act, 1861
- D. Indian Evidence Act, 1872
Answer: Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973
Explanation: BNSS replaced the CrPC 1973; BNS replaced IPC and BSA replaced the Evidence Act; all came into force on 1 July 2024.
524. The Chipko Movement leader Sunderlal Bahuguna was associated with which Himalayan state?
- A. Uttarakhand (then Uttar Pradesh hills)
- B. Himachal Pradesh
- C. Sikkim
- D. Arunachal Pradesh
Answer: Uttarakhand (then Uttar Pradesh hills)
Explanation: Chipko began in 1973 at Mandal in Chamoli; Bahuguna and Chandi Prasad Bhatt led it.
525. The Kailash Satyarthi-founded movement that campaigns against child labour is:
- A. Chipko Andolan
- B. Appiko
- C. Bachpan Bachao Andolan
- D. Narmada Bachao Andolan
Answer: Bachpan Bachao Andolan
Explanation: Satyarthi founded Bachpan Bachao Andolan in 1980 and shared the 2014 Nobel Peace Prize.
526. The Padma awards were instituted in which year, with the Bharat Ratna?
- A. 1961
- B. 1969
- C. 1954
- D. 1950
Answer: 1954
Explanation: Both the Bharat Ratna and the Padma awards were instituted in January 1954.
527. The Vice-President of India is the ex-officio Chairman of which house and which Article provides this?
- A. Lok Sabha - Article 64
- B. Rajya Sabha - Article 64
- C. Rajya Sabha - Article 89
- D. Lok Sabha - Article 93
Answer: Rajya Sabha - Article 64
Explanation: Article 64 makes the Vice-President ex-officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha.
528. The Poshan Abhiyaan (2018) set a target of reducing stunting in children aged 0-6 years by:
- A. 5% per annum
- B. 2% per annum
- C. 10% per annum
- D. 1% per annum
Answer: 2% per annum
Explanation: Poshan Abhiyaan targets 2% a year reduction of stunting, undernutrition and low birth weight, and 3% in anaemia.
529. The Swachh Bharat Mission was launched on 2 October 2014 at:
- A. Red Fort
- B. Rajghat, New Delhi
- C. Vigyan Bhawan
- D. Sabarmati Ashram
Answer: Rajghat, New Delhi
Explanation: PM Narendra Modi launched SBM at Rajghat on Gandhi's 145th birth anniversary.
530. The MUDRA bank loan categories are Shishu, Kishor and Tarun; the Tarun category covers loans above Rs 5 lakh and up to:
- A. Rs 10 lakh
- B. Rs 50 lakh
- C. Rs 8 lakh
- D. Rs 20 lakh
Answer: Rs 10 lakh
Explanation: Shishu is up to Rs 50,000, Kishor Rs 50,000-5 lakh and Tarun Rs 5-10 lakh (Tarun Plus extends to Rs 20 lakh from 2024).
531. Mission Karmayogi (September 2020) is a national programme for:
- A. Digital literacy of farmers
- B. Defence procurement
- C. Rural sanitation
- D. Civil services capacity building
Answer: Civil services capacity building
Explanation: The National Programme for Civil Services Capacity Building (NPCSCB) runs on the iGOT-Karmayogi platform.
532. The Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana (Urban) was launched in June 2015 with the mission 'Housing for All' by:
- A. 2030
- B. 2020
- C. 2022
- D. 2025
Answer: 2022
Explanation: PMAY-U targeted Housing for All by 2022, the 75th year of independence.
533. ISRO's navigation satellite constellation IRNSS operates under the operational name:
- A. GPS-Aided
- B. GAGAN
- C. NavIC
- D. Bharat-Nav
Answer: NavIC
Explanation: NavIC (Navigation with Indian Constellation) provides about 1,500 km coverage around India; GAGAN is the SBAS augmentation system.
534. Rakesh Sharma flew to space on 2 April 1984 aboard which Soyuz mission?
- A. Soyuz TM-2
- B. Soyuz T-11
- C. Soyuz 19
- D. Soyuz T-10
Answer: Soyuz T-11
Explanation: Rakesh Sharma flew on Soyuz T-11 on 2 April 1984 and spent about 7 days at Salyut 7.
535. The Amar Jawan Jyoti at India Gate was merged with the flame of the National War Memorial in:
- A. March 2020
- B. January 2022
- C. February 2019
- D. August 2015
Answer: January 2022
Explanation: The Amar Jawan Jyoti, established in 1972 after the 1971 war, was merged on 21 January 2022.
536. The National War Memorial in New Delhi, near India Gate, was inaugurated in:
- A. August 1947
- B. February 2019
- C. October 2014
- D. January 2023
Answer: February 2019
Explanation: The National War Memorial was inaugurated on 25 February 2019 and commemorates soldiers killed since 1947.
537. India's only tri-service command, raised in 2001, is located at:
- A. Leh
- B. Visakhapatnam
- C. Port Blair
- D. Thiruvananthapuram
Answer: Port Blair
Explanation: The Andaman and Nicobar Command (ANC) at Port Blair is India's first joint theatre command.
538. The Indian Navy's Eastern Fleet is based at:
- A. Visakhapatnam
- B. Port Blair
- C. Kolkata
- D. Chennai
Answer: Visakhapatnam
Explanation: The Eastern Fleet is at Visakhapatnam under the Eastern Naval Command.
539. Which ship was the lead vessel of the Project 15 (Delhi class) destroyers, built at Mazagon Dock?
- A. INS Kolkata
- B. INS Rajput
- C. INS Shivalik
- D. INS Delhi
Answer: INS Delhi
Explanation: INS Delhi (D61), commissioned in 1997 at Mazagon Dock, led the Project 15 Delhi class.
540. The Arjuna Award for outstanding sportspersons was first given in which year?
- A. 1961
- B. 1969
- C. 1956
- D. 1985
Answer: 1961
Explanation: Arjuna Awards began in 1961; the Dronacharya Award followed in 1985.
541. Which Indian economist, with Esther Duflo and Michael Kremer, won the 2019 Nobel Memorial Prize in Economic Sciences?
- A. Raghuram Rajan
- B. Kaushik Basu
- C. Abhijit Banerjee
- D. Jagdish Bhagwati
Answer: Abhijit Banerjee
Explanation: Banerjee, Duflo and Kremer were honoured for their experimental approach to alleviating global poverty.
542. Which Indian was the first to win the Nobel Prize in Physics for the discovery of the Raman effect, announced in 1930?
- A. S. N. Bose
- B. C. V. Raman
- C. S. Chandrasekhar
- D. Meghnad Saha
Answer: C. V. Raman
Explanation: C. V. Raman won the 1930 Nobel in Physics; National Science Day (28 Feb) marks the discovery's announcement in 1928.
543. The Sahitya Akademi was established in 1954 with its headquarters in:
- A. New Delhi
- B. Kolkata
- C. Bhopal
- D. Mumbai
Answer: New Delhi
Explanation: The Sahitya Akademi was formally inaugurated on 12 March 1954 at New Delhi; its first president was Jawaharlal Nehru.
544. The Indian Army's Rashtriya Rifles was raised in 1990 mainly for:
- A. Disaster relief only
- B. Antarctic expeditions
- C. Counter-insurgency in Jammu and Kashmir
- D. Maritime security
Answer: Counter-insurgency in Jammu and Kashmir
Explanation: Rashtriya Rifles is a counter-insurgency force of the Army drawn from its infantry regiments.
545. The Integrated Guided Missile Development Programme (IGMDP) did NOT include which missile?
- A. Prithvi
- B. Trishul
- C. Nag
- D. BrahMos
Answer: BrahMos
Explanation: IGMDP covered Prithvi, Agni, Trishul, Akash and Nag; BrahMos is an Indo-Russian joint venture from 1998.
546. The Pinaka is a:
- A. Anti-tank guided missile
- B. Multi-barrel rocket launcher system
- C. Airborne early warning aircraft
- D. Ship-borne radar
Answer: Multi-barrel rocket launcher system
Explanation: Pinaka, developed by DRDO's ARDE, is a multi-barrel rocket launcher; Nag is an anti-tank missile.
547. The Indian Navy's indigenous nuclear-powered ballistic missile submarine INS Arihant was built under which secret project?
- A. Project 15B
- B. Project 75
- C. Project Seabird
- D. Advanced Technology Vessel (ATV) project
Answer: Advanced Technology Vessel (ATV) project
Explanation: Arihant was built at Visakhapatnam under the ATV project, commissioned in 2016, giving India a nuclear triad.
548. Operation Meghdoot (1984) was conducted by the Indian Army to take control of:
- A. The Siachen Glacier
- B. The Rann of Kutch
- C. Tawang
- D. Kargil heights
Answer: The Siachen Glacier
Explanation: Operation Meghdoot (13 April 1984) secured the Saltoro Ridge and Siachen heights.
549. The Central Information Commission was constituted under which Act?
- A. Right to Information Act, 2005
- B. Lokpal Act, 2013
- C. Whistle Blowers Protection Act, 2014
- D. Consumer Protection Act, 2019
Answer: Right to Information Act, 2005
Explanation: The CIC was set up in 2005 under the RTI Act; its first Chief Information Commissioner was Wajahat Habibullah.
550. The artist who illustrated the original calligraphed Constitution of India, with Prem Behari Narain Raizada as the calligrapher, was:
- A. Raja Ravi Varma
- B. Nandalal Bose
- C. M. F. Husain
- D. Abanindranath Tagore
Answer: Nandalal Bose
Explanation: Nandalal Bose and his Shantiniketan students illustrated the original Constitution.
551. How many days did the Constituent Assembly take, in total, to frame the Constitution?
- A. 3 years 2 months
- B. 2 years 11 months 18 days
- C. 2 years 5 months
- D. 1 year 11 months
Answer: 2 years 11 months 18 days
Explanation: From 9 Dec 1946 to 26 Nov 1949 — 2 years, 11 months and 18 days.
552. The Constituent Assembly's Drafting Committee was formed on:
- A. 29 August 1947
- B. 26 November 1949
- C. 9 December 1946
- D. 13 December 1946
Answer: 29 August 1947
Explanation: The Drafting Committee, chaired by B. R. Ambedkar, was set up on 29 Aug 1947.
553. The first President of the Indian National Congress (1885) was:
- A. Surendranath Banerjee
- B. W. C. Bonnerjee
- C. A. O. Hume
- D. Dadabhai Naoroji
Answer: W. C. Bonnerjee
Explanation: W. C. Bonnerjee presided over the first session at Bombay; A. O. Hume was the founder-general secretary.
554. Who was the first woman officer to be appointed Director General of Police of an Indian state, in Uttarakhand (2004)?
- A. Manjari Jaruhar
- B. Kiran Bedi
- C. Meera Borwankar
- D. Kanchan Chaudhary Bhattacharya
Answer: Kanchan Chaudhary Bhattacharya
Explanation: Kanchan Chaudhary Bhattacharya was India's first woman DGP (Uttarakhand, 2004); Kiran Bedi was the first woman IPS officer.
555. Who was the first Indian Chief of the Naval Staff (1958)?
- A. Vice Admiral R. D. Katari
- B. Admiral A. K. Chatterji
- C. Admiral B. S. Soman
- D. Admiral S. M. Nanda
Answer: Vice Admiral R. D. Katari
Explanation: Vice Admiral Ram Dass Katari became the first Indian Navy chief in 1958.
556. Who was the first Indian Chief of the Air Staff (1954)?
- A. Om Prakash Mehra
- B. P. C. Lal
- C. Subroto Mukerjee
- D. Arjan Singh
Answer: Subroto Mukerjee
Explanation: Air Marshal Subroto Mukerjee became the first Indian IAF chief in April 1954.
557. Who was India's first Chief of the Army Staff (an Indian) in 1949?
- A. Rajendra Sinhji
- B. K. S. Thimayya
- C. K. M. Cariappa
- D. S. H. F. J. Manekshaw
Answer: K. M. Cariappa
Explanation: General (later Field Marshal) K. M. Cariappa took over from Sir Roy Bucher on 15 January 1949, now celebrated as Army Day.
558. Who is known as the 'Father of Indian Statistics' and founded the Indian Statistical Institute in 1931?
- A. P. C. Mahalanobis
- B. S. S. Bhatnagar
- C. D. D. Kosambi
- D. C. R. Rao
Answer: P. C. Mahalanobis
Explanation: Mahalanobis (born 29 June, observed as Statistics Day) designed the Second Five-Year Plan model.
559. Who is called the 'Father of Indian Cinema' for making 'Raja Harishchandra' (1913)?
- A. Ardeshir Irani
- B. V. Shantaram
- C. Dadasaheb Phalke
- D. Himanshu Rai
Answer: Dadasaheb Phalke
Explanation: Raja Harishchandra, India's first full-length feature film, was released in 1913; Ardeshir Irani made the first talkie 'Alam Ara' (1931).
560. Whose 1853 Railway Minute as Governor-General laid out the plan for India's trunk railway lines?
- A. Lord Canning
- B. Lord Curzon
- C. Lord Ripon
- D. Lord Dalhousie
Answer: Lord Dalhousie
Explanation: Dalhousie's 1853 Railway Minute laid down the trunk lines; the first train ran on 16 April 1853.
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