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401. The RBI announced withdrawal of Rs 2,000 banknotes from circulation on 19 May 2023. The exchange/deposit window was extended until:
- A. 30 November 2023
- B. 7 October 2023
- C. 31 December 2023
- D. 30 September 2023
Answer: 7 October 2023
Explanation: The original deadline of 30 September 2023 was extended to 7 October; thereafter exchange continued only at RBI issue offices, and the notes remain legal tender.
402. On 7 February 2025, the RBI's MPC under Governor Sanjay Malhotra cut the repo rate by 25 basis points to:
- A. 6.50 per cent
- B. 6.25 per cent
- C. 6.00 per cent
- D. 5.75 per cent
Answer: 6.25 per cent
Explanation: It was the first repo rate cut since May 2020; further cuts took the rate to 6.00% (April 2025) and 5.50% (June 2025, a 50 bp cut with a 100 bp CRR reduction).
403. The Income-tax Act, 2025, which replaces the 1961 Act from 1 April 2026, replaces the dual concept of 'previous year' and 'assessment year' with:
- A. A 'return year'
- B. A 'financial period'
- C. A single 'tax year'
- D. A 'fiscal block'
Answer: A single 'tax year'
Explanation: The new Act simplifies the law with a unified 'tax year' concept and fewer sections and words than the 1961 Act.
404. From 22 September 2025, the 'GST 2.0' reforms restructured rates into which main slabs, with a special rate for sin and luxury goods?
- A. 0% and 10%, with 35% special rate
- B. 5%, 12% and 28%
- C. 5% and 18%, with 40% special rate
- D. 3% and 15%, with 50% special rate
Answer: 5% and 18%, with 40% special rate
Explanation: The 56th GST Council meeting on 3 September 2025 abolished the 12% and 28% slabs; sin goods attract 40%.
405. Under the February 2024 approvals, India's first commercial semiconductor fab (with PSMC, Taiwan) is being set up by Tata Electronics at:
- A. Sanand, Gujarat
- B. Dholera, Gujarat
- C. Hyderabad, Telangana
- D. Jagiroad, Assam
Answer: Dholera, Gujarat
Explanation: The Rs 91,000 crore Dholera fab was approved together with Tata's Jagiroad OSAT and CG Power-Renesas OSAT at Sanand; Micron's ATMP is also at Sanand.
406. The IndiaAI Mission, approved by the Cabinet in March 2024, has an outlay of about:
- A. Rs 10,372 crore
- B. Rs 3,000 crore
- C. Rs 1,500 crore
- D. Rs 25,000 crore
Answer: Rs 10,372 crore
Explanation: IndiaAI Mission (Rs 10,371.92 crore over five years) builds compute capacity of GPUs, foundation models and datasets platform AIKosh.
407. The National Green Hydrogen Mission (January 2023) with an outlay of Rs 19,744 crore targets annual green hydrogen production capacity of how much by 2030?
- A. 10 million metric tonnes
- B. 1 million metric tonnes
- C. 25 million metric tonnes
- D. 5 million metric tonnes
Answer: 5 million metric tonnes
Explanation: The mission aims at 5 MMT green hydrogen production and about 125 GW of associated renewable capacity by 2030 under the SIGHT programme.
408. Ayushman Vay Vandana cards, launched on 29 October 2024, provide health cover of Rs 5 lakh per family per year to:
- A. All citizens aged 70 and above, regardless of income
- B. Citizens above 60 below poverty line
- C. Women above 65
- D. Only government pensioners above 70
Answer: All citizens aged 70 and above, regardless of income
Explanation: AB PM-JAY was expanded to all senior citizens aged 70+; families already covered share a top-up of Rs 5 lakh among them.
409. The PM E-DRIVE scheme (October 2024) replaced which earlier scheme and does NOT offer subsidy for which category?
- A. NEMMP; e-ambulances
- B. FAME-II; electric four-wheeler private cars
- C. PLI-ACC; e-buses
- D. FAME-I; e-two-wheelers
Answer: FAME-II; electric four-wheeler private cars
Explanation: PM E-DRIVE (Rs 10,900 crore) supports e-two/three-wheelers, e-buses, e-trucks, e-ambulances and charging infrastructure, but not private e-cars.
410. PM-JANMAN, launched on 15 November 2023 from Khunti, Jharkhand, targets:
- A. Manual scavengers
- B. Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs)
- C. Migrant workers
- D. Denotified tribes only
Answer: Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs)
Explanation: The Rs 24,104 crore mission covers 75 PVTG communities in 18 States and UTs across nine ministries, launched on Janjatiya Gaurav Divas (Birsa Munda's birth anniversary).
411. The PM Vishwakarma scheme (launched 17 September 2023) offers collateral-free credit at a concessional 5% interest of up to:
- A. Rs 3 lakh in two tranches
- B. Rs 10 lakh
- C. Rs 1 lakh in a single tranche
- D. Rs 5 lakh in three tranches
Answer: Rs 3 lakh in two tranches
Explanation: The Rs 13,000 crore scheme covers 18 traditional trades; credit is Rs 1 lakh followed by Rs 2 lakh, with Rs 15,000 toolkit incentive.
412. Under the PM Surya Ghar: Muft Bijli Yojana (launched 13 February 2024), the target is rooftop solar for:
- A. One crore households, with up to 300 units of free electricity a month
- B. 50 lakh households with 100 free units
- C. 25 lakh farmers' pumps
- D. Two crore households with 500 free units
Answer: One crore households, with up to 300 units of free electricity a month
Explanation: Outlay is Rs 75,021 crore; central financial assistance is Rs 30,000 per kW for up to 2 kW and Rs 18,000 for the third kW, capped at Rs 78,000.
413. The PM Internship Scheme announced in Budget 2024-25 envisages internships for one crore youth over five years with a monthly stipend of:
- A. Rs 3,000
- B. Rs 10,000
- C. Rs 8,000
- D. Rs 5,000
Answer: Rs 5,000
Explanation: Interns in top 500 companies get Rs 5,000 per month plus a one-time Rs 6,000 assistance (Rs 4,500 from the Government and Rs 500 from the company monthly).
414. Under the Budget 2025-26 announcement, the Kisan Credit Card loan limit under the Modified Interest Subvention Scheme was raised from Rs 3 lakh to:
- A. Rs 5 lakh
- B. Rs 10 lakh
- C. Rs 4 lakh
- D. Rs 7 lakh
Answer: Rs 5 lakh
Explanation: The KCC limit rose to Rs 5 lakh, and the PM Dhan-Dhaanya Krishi Yojana targeting 100 low-productivity districts was announced.
415. The Nuclear Energy Mission announced in Budget 2025-26 focuses on research and development of:
- A. Floating nuclear plants
- B. Fusion reactors
- C. Small Modular Reactors (Bharat Small Reactors)
- D. Thorium-fuelled fast breeder reactors only
Answer: Small Modular Reactors (Bharat Small Reactors)
Explanation: The Rs 20,000 crore mission targets at least five indigenously developed SMRs by 2033 and 100 GW nuclear capacity by 2047.
416. Union Budget 2025-26 made income up to Rs 12 lakh tax-free under the new regime through a rebate. The basic exemption limit under the new regime was raised to:
- A. Rs 5 lakh
- B. Rs 7 lakh
- C. Rs 4 lakh
- D. Rs 3 lakh
Answer: Rs 4 lakh
Explanation: The basic exemption limit became Rs 4 lakh and the Section 87A rebate was raised to Rs 60,000; with the standard deduction of Rs 75,000, salaried income up to Rs 12.75 lakh is tax-free.
417. In Union Budget 2024-25 (July 2024), the long-term capital gains tax on listed equity shares was revised to:
- A. 10 per cent
- B. 12.5 per cent
- C. 20 per cent
- D. 15 per cent
Answer: 12.5 per cent
Explanation: LTCG on listed equity rose from 10% to 12.5% (exemption raised to Rs 1.25 lakh) and STCG from 15% to 20%; indexation benefit on property was removed. It was Sitharaman's seventh consecutive Budget, passing Morarji Desai's six.
418. The seven priorities ('Saptarishi') of Union Budget 2023-24 did NOT include:
- A. Youth power
- B. Unleashing the potential
- C. Green growth
- D. Defence indigenisation
Answer: Defence indigenisation
Explanation: The Saptarishi priorities were inclusive development, reaching the last mile, infrastructure and investment, unleashing the potential, green growth, youth power and the financial sector.
419. The Union Budget 2023-24 allocated a record capital outlay for Indian Railways of about:
- A. Rs 2.62 lakh crore
- B. Rs 3.10 lakh crore
- C. Rs 1.40 lakh crore
- D. Rs 2.40 lakh crore
Answer: Rs 2.40 lakh crore
Explanation: The 2023-24 outlay of Rs 2.40 lakh crore was the highest ever, about nine times the 2013-14 allocation; 2024-25 and 2025-26 saw Rs 2.62 lakh crore and Rs 2.52 lakh crore respectively.
420. The Election Commission's Special Intensive Revision (SIR) of electoral rolls began in June 2025 in which State first?
- A. West Bengal
- B. Assam
- C. Uttar Pradesh
- D. Bihar
Answer: Bihar
Explanation: The Bihar SIR led to about 65 lakh names being excluded from the draft roll; the Supreme Court in September 2025 directed that Aadhaar be accepted as an additional proof of identity.
421. In the February 2025 Delhi Assembly election, the BJP returned to power after about 27 years. Who became Chief Minister on 20 February 2025?
- A. Parvesh Verma
- B. Atishi
- C. Manoj Tiwari
- D. Rekha Gupta
Answer: Rekha Gupta
Explanation: The BJP won 48 of 70 seats; Rekha Gupta (Shalimar Bagh) became the fourth woman CM of Delhi.
422. The first Assembly election in Jammu and Kashmir after the 2019 reorganisation (Sept-Oct 2024) was won by the National Conference with how many seats of 90?
- A. 55
- B. 48
- C. 42
- D. 29
Answer: 42
Explanation: NC won 42 seats (BJP 29, Congress 6); Omar Abdullah took oath as Chief Minister on 16 October 2024.
423. Odisha's June 2024 Assembly result ended the rule of which party after 24 years and who became Chief Minister?
- A. BJD; Mohan Charan Majhi
- B. BJD; Sambit Patra
- C. Congress; Dharmendra Pradhan
- D. BJD; Pratap Sarangi
Answer: BJD; Mohan Charan Majhi
Explanation: The BJP won 78 of 147 seats; Majhi, a tribal Keonjhar leader, was sworn in on 12 June 2024, ending Naveen Patnaik's tenure.
424. In 2024, Indore recorded the highest-ever NOTA votes in a Lok Sabha constituency, after which party's candidate withdrew his nomination?
- A. Congress
- B. AAP
- C. Samajwadi Party
- D. BSP
Answer: Congress
Explanation: Congress's Akshay Kanti Bam withdrew his nomination, and a campaign for NOTA recorded over 2.18 lakh votes; BJP's Shankar Lalwani won by a record margin of about 11.75 lakh.
425. The 2024 general elections to the 18th Lok Sabha were held in how many phases and was the counting held on which date?
- A. Eight phases; 4 June 2024
- B. Six phases; 23 May 2024
- C. Seven phases; 1 June 2024
- D. Seven phases; 4 June 2024
Answer: Seven phases; 4 June 2024
Explanation: Polling ran from 19 April to 1 June 2024; the BJP won 240 seats, Congress 99 and the NDA 293.
426. Donald Trump's return to office on 20 January 2025 made him the second US President after whom to serve non-consecutive terms?
- A. Franklin Pierce
- B. Andrew Johnson
- C. Grover Cleveland
- D. Theodore Roosevelt
Answer: Grover Cleveland
Explanation: Trump is the 47th President; Grover Cleveland (22nd and 24th) was the only earlier case. J. D. Vance became the 50th Vice President.
427. Iranian President Ebrahim Raisi died on 19 May 2024 in a helicopter crash in which region, and who won the subsequent election?
- A. Isfahan; Saeed Jalili
- B. Khorasan; Hassan Rouhani
- C. East Azerbaijan; Masoud Pezeshkian
- D. Tehran; Mohammad Ghalibaf
Answer: East Azerbaijan; Masoud Pezeshkian
Explanation: Pezeshkian, a reformist heart surgeon, defeated Saeed Jalili in the 5 July 2024 runoff.
428. Who became Sri Lanka's president on 23 September 2024, leading the National People's Power alliance?
- A. Anura Kumara Dissanayake
- B. Namal Rajapaksa
- C. Ranil Wickremesinghe
- D. Sajith Premadasa
Answer: Anura Kumara Dissanayake
Explanation: Dissanayake of the JVP-led NPP became the 9th executive president, winning the first election in which a second-preference count decided the result.
429. Who became Nepal's interim Prime Minister on 12 September 2025 after the Gen Z protests, and what was her earlier office?
- A. Ranju Jha; former Speaker
- B. Sushila Karki; former Chief Justice
- C. Bidya Devi Bhandari; former President
- D. Sahana Pradhan; former Foreign Minister
Answer: Sushila Karki; former Chief Justice
Explanation: Sushila Karki, Nepal's first woman Chief Justice, became its first woman PM after K. P. Sharma Oli resigned following protests triggered by a social media ban.
430. After Sheikh Hasina fled Bangladesh on 5 August 2024, who was sworn in as Chief Adviser of the interim government on 8 August?
- A. Salahuddin Ahmed
- B. Abdul Hamid
- C. Muhammad Yunus
- D. Khaleda Zia
Answer: Muhammad Yunus
Explanation: The Nobel Peace Prize (2006) laureate Muhammad Yunus led the interim government after student-led quota protests toppled the Awami League government.
431. Claudia Sheinbaum, inaugurated on 1 October 2024, is notable as the first woman President of which country and a former mayor of which city?
- A. Chile; Santiago
- B. Mexico; Mexico City
- C. Colombia; Bogotá
- D. Argentina; Buenos Aires
Answer: Mexico; Mexico City
Explanation: Sheinbaum, a climate scientist and a Morena party leader, was head of government of Mexico City before succeeding Andrés Manuel López Obrador.
432. Sanae Takaichi, who became Japan's Prime Minister in October 2025, is significant as:
- A. The first non-Diet-member PM
- B. The first Prime Minister from the Opposition CDP
- C. The youngest Prime Minister of Japan
- D. The first woman Prime Minister of Japan
Answer: The first woman Prime Minister of Japan
Explanation: Takaichi, elected LDP president in October 2025, succeeded Shigeru Ishiba as PM.
433. Pope Leo XIV, elected on 8 May 2025, is notable as:
- A. The first Jesuit pope
- B. The first pope from Asia
- C. The first pope from the United States
- D. The first pope from Africa
Answer: The first pope from the United States
Explanation: Robert Francis Prevost of Chicago, an Augustinian, succeeded Pope Francis, who died on 21 April 2025.
434. Jay Shah, who became ICC Chairman on 1 December 2024, is the which Indian to hold the post and the youngest ever?
- A. Third Indian
- B. Second Indian
- C. Seventh Indian
- D. Fifth Indian
Answer: Fifth Indian
Explanation: Jay Shah, aged 36, followed Jagmohan Dalmiya, Sharad Pawar, N. Srinivasan and Shashank Manohar as an Indian ICC head, succeeding Greg Barclay.
435. Kirsty Coventry, elected IOC President in March 2025, is notable as the first woman and first African to hold the post. She represents which country?
- A. Zimbabwe
- B. South Africa
- C. Kenya
- D. Nigeria
Answer: Zimbabwe
Explanation: Coventry, a seven-time Olympic swimming medallist from Zimbabwe, succeeded Thomas Bach in June 2025.
436. Jaya Verma Sinha, who became Chairperson and CEO of the Railway Board on 1 September 2023, was the first woman to hold the post. She belongs to the:
- A. Indian Railway Accounts Service
- B. Indian Railway Protection Force Service
- C. Indian Railway Service of Engineers
- D. Indian Railway Traffic Service
Answer: Indian Railway Traffic Service
Explanation: A 1988-batch IRTS officer, she earlier led the Railway Board's Operations and Business Development and played a role in the Balasore accident response communication.
437. General Upendra Dwivedi, the 30th Chief of the Army Staff (from 30 June 2024), was commissioned into which regiment?
- A. Garhwal Rifles
- B. Jammu and Kashmir Rifles
- C. Madras Regiment
- D. Rajputana Rifles
Answer: Jammu and Kashmir Rifles
Explanation: Gen Dwivedi was commissioned into the 18th Battalion of the Jammu & Kashmir Rifles in 1984 and succeeded Gen Manoj Pande.
438. Admiral Dinesh K. Tripathi took over as the 26th Chief of the Naval Staff on 30 April 2024. He succeeded:
- A. Admiral R. Hari Kumar
- B. Admiral Karambir Singh
- C. Admiral Ajit Kumar
- D. Admiral Sunil Lanba
Answer: Admiral R. Hari Kumar
Explanation: Tripathi, earlier Vice Chief of Naval Staff, succeeded Admiral R. Hari Kumar who retired on 30 April 2024.
439. T. V. Somanathan, appointed Cabinet Secretary on 30 August 2024, belongs to which cadre, and whom did he succeed?
- A. Karnataka; Rajiv Mehrishi
- B. Gujarat; Ajit Seth
- C. Tamil Nadu; Rajiv Gauba
- D. Kerala; P. K. Sinha
Answer: Tamil Nadu; Rajiv Gauba
Explanation: T. V. Somanathan, a 1987-batch Tamil Nadu cadre IAS officer and former Finance Secretary, succeeded Rajiv Gauba who served the longest tenure (2019-2024).
440. Vikram Misri, appointed Foreign Secretary in July 2024, had earlier served as India's Ambassador to:
- A. Japan and Russia
- B. Spain and China
- C. Egypt and Iran
- D. France and Germany
Answer: Spain and China
Explanation: Misri, a 1989-batch IFS officer, served as Ambassador to Spain and China and as Deputy NSA before succeeding Vinay Mohan Kwatra.
441. Which two officers were appointed Election Commissioners on 14 March 2024, after Arun Goel's resignation and Anup Chandra Pandey's retirement?
- A. Gyanesh Kumar and Vivek Joshi
- B. Rajiv Kumar and Gyanesh Kumar
- C. Gyanesh Kumar and Sukhbir Singh Sandhu
- D. Vivek Joshi and Sukhbir Singh Sandhu
Answer: Gyanesh Kumar and Sukhbir Singh Sandhu
Explanation: The first selection under the new 2023 Act chose Gyanesh Kumar and Sukhbir Singh Sandhu on 14 March 2024; Vivek Joshi was appointed Election Commissioner in 2025.
442. Gyanesh Kumar assumed office as the 26th Chief Election Commissioner on 19 February 2025. Immediately before becoming an Election Commissioner, he served as Secretary in the Ministry of:
- A. Cooperation
- B. Home Affairs
- C. Finance
- D. Parliamentary Affairs
Answer: Cooperation
Explanation: Gyanesh Kumar, a Kerala-cadre 1988-batch IAS officer, was Secretary in the Ministry of Cooperation; he succeeded Rajiv Kumar.
443. Sanjay Malhotra, who succeeded Shaktikanta Das on 11 December 2024, is the which Governor of the Reserve Bank of India?
- A. 27th
- B. 26th
- C. 25th
- D. 24th
Answer: 26th
Explanation: Malhotra, a 1990-batch Rajasthan-cadre IAS officer and former Revenue Secretary, is the 26th RBI Governor; under him the repo rate was first cut in February 2025 after nearly five years.
444. Surya Kant was sworn in as the 53rd Chief Justice of India on 24 November 2025. He belongs to which State and was earlier Chief Justice of which High Court?
- A. Uttar Pradesh; Patna High Court
- B. Punjab; Delhi High Court
- C. Rajasthan; Allahabad High Court
- D. Haryana; Himachal Pradesh High Court
Answer: Haryana; Himachal Pradesh High Court
Explanation: Surya Kant, born in Hisar, Haryana, served as Chief Justice of the Himachal Pradesh High Court (2018) before elevation to the Supreme Court in 2019; his tenure runs to February 2027.
445. B. R. Gavai, who took oath as the 52nd CJI on 14 May 2025, is the second Chief Justice from the Scheduled Castes after:
- A. K. G. Balakrishnan
- B. S. H. Kapadia
- C. A. M. Ahmadi
- D. J. S. Verma
Answer: K. G. Balakrishnan
Explanation: K. G. Balakrishnan (CJI 2007-2010) was the first Dalit CJI; Gavai is from Amravati, Maharashtra, and was also part of the Article 370 and electoral bonds benches.
446. Justice Sanjiv Khanna, who became the 51st Chief Justice of India on 11 November 2024, is the nephew of which jurist known for his dissent in the ADM Jabalpur case?
- A. Justice H. R. Khanna
- B. Justice P. N. Bhagwati
- C. Justice M. Hidayatullah
- D. Justice V. R. Krishna Iyer
Answer: Justice H. R. Khanna
Explanation: Justice H. R. Khanna's 1976 dissent in ADM Jabalpur v. Shivkant Shukla upheld the right to life during the Emergency; Sanjiv Khanna's tenure ran until 13 May 2025.
447. After the Pahalgam terror attack of April 2025, India took which treaty-related step on 23 April 2025?
- A. Terminated the Simla Agreement
- B. Withdrew from SAARC
- C. Placed the Indus Waters Treaty 1960 in abeyance
- D. Suspended the Kartarpur Corridor Agreement permanently
Answer: Placed the Indus Waters Treaty 1960 in abeyance
Explanation: The CCS decided to hold the Indus Waters Treaty in abeyance, close the Attari Integrated Check Post and reduce Pakistani High Commission strength.
448. Operation Sindoor (7 May 2025) targeted terror infrastructure in Pakistan and PoK, including the headquarters of which two groups at Bahawalpur and Muridke?
- A. Harkat-ul-Mujahideen and Jamaat-ud-Dawa
- B. Hizbul Mujahideen and Al-Badr
- C. TTP and ISI-K
- D. Jaish-e-Mohammed and Lashkar-e-Taiba
Answer: Jaish-e-Mohammed and Lashkar-e-Taiba
Explanation: Nine sites were struck, including JeM's Bahawalpur and LeT's Muridke bases, in response to the 22 April 2025 Pahalgam attack that killed 26 people.
449. India's defence exports in FY 2023-24 reached a record of about:
- A. Rs 21,083 crore
- B. Rs 15,920 crore
- C. Rs 30,500 crore
- D. Rs 8,500 crore
Answer: Rs 21,083 crore
Explanation: Exports were Rs 21,083 crore in 2023-24, up 32.5 per cent over 2022-23 (Rs 15,920 crore); 2024-25 rose further to about Rs 23,622 crore.
450. India's October 2024 deal for 31 MQ-9B drones with the US included how many for the Navy?
- A. 15
- B. 10
- C. 8
- D. 31
Answer: 15
Explanation: Of the 31 MQ-9B (about $3.5 billion), 15 are Sea Guardians for the Navy and 8 each Sky Guardians for the Air Force and Army.
451. India signed an inter-governmental agreement in April 2025 with France for 26 Rafale-M aircraft that will operate from:
- A. INS Vikramaditya's sister ship INS Vishal
- B. Ranjit-class destroyers
- C. Andaman airstrips only
- D. INS Vikrant
Answer: INS Vikrant
Explanation: The deal for 22 single-seat and 4 twin-seat Rafale-M jets (about Rs 63,000 crore) is for carrier-based operations from INS Vikrant.
452. The Cabinet Committee on Security cleared the procurement of how many Light Combat Helicopters 'Prachand' in March 2025?
- A. 97
- B. 114
- C. 83
- D. 156
Answer: 156
Explanation: The 156 LCH (66 for the IAF, 90 for the Army) are to be built by HAL in a deal of about Rs 62,700 crore.
453. In March 2024, which Indian warship rescued crew of the hijacked vessel MV Ruen and secured the surrender of 35 pirates off Somalia?
- A. INS Kolkata
- B. INS Tabar
- C. INS Sumedha
- D. INS Vikrant
Answer: INS Kolkata
Explanation: INS Kolkata, in Operation Sankalp's anti-piracy deployment, rescued 17 crew of MV Ruen and the 35 Somali pirates surrendered.
454. INS Tamal, commissioned in July 2025 at Kaliningrad, Russia, is notable as:
- A. The first stealth submarine
- B. The first indigenous aircraft carrier
- C. The last major warship to be inducted into the Indian Navy from a foreign shipyard
- D. The first hospital ship
Answer: The last major warship to be inducted into the Indian Navy from a foreign shipyard
Explanation: INS Tamal is the last of the Talwar-class (Project 1135.6) frigates built abroad, following INS Tushil in December 2024.
455. On 15 January 2025, the Indian Navy simultaneously commissioned INS Surat, INS Nilgiri and which submarine?
- A. INS Vela
- B. INS Vagir
- C. INS Khanderi
- D. INS Vaghsheer
Answer: INS Vaghsheer
Explanation: INS Vaghsheer, the sixth and last Scorpene (Kalvari-class) submarine under Project-75, joined the destroyer INS Surat (P15B) and frigate INS Nilgiri (P17A).
456. India's second SSBN, INS Arighaat, was commissioned on 29 August 2024 at:
- A. Kochi
- B. Karwar
- C. Mumbai
- D. Visakhapatnam
Answer: Visakhapatnam
Explanation: INS Arighaat, built at the Ship Building Centre Visakhapatnam under the ATV project, carries K-15 and K-4 SLBMs; K-4 (3,500 km) was tested from it on 27 November 2024.
457. Mission Divyastra (11 March 2024), a test of the Agni-5 missile, demonstrated which capability?
- A. Hypersonic glide
- B. Submarine launch
- C. Multiple Independently Targetable Re-entry Vehicle (MIRV) technology
- D. Anti-satellite kill
Answer: Multiple Independently Targetable Re-entry Vehicle (MIRV) technology
Explanation: Agni-5 (range over 5,000 km) was tested from Dr A.P.J. Abdul Kalam Island, Odisha, with MIRV capability of delivering multiple warheads at different targets.
458. The Agnibaan SOrTeD mission of Agnikul Cosmos (30 May 2024) was notable for:
- A. First crewed private flight
- B. Using a single-piece 3D-printed semi-cryogenic engine from India's first private launchpad
- C. First sea-launched orbital rocket
- D. First reusable booster landing
Answer: Using a single-piece 3D-printed semi-cryogenic engine from India's first private launchpad
Explanation: Launched from Agnikul's 'Dhanush' launchpad at Sriharikota, it used the world's first single-piece 3D-printed engine.
459. The Union Cabinet in September 2024 approved the Venus Orbiter Mission, targeted for launch by:
- A. 2035
- B. December 2025
- C. March 2028
- D. March 2026
Answer: March 2028
Explanation: Approved on 18 September 2024 with about Rs 1,236 crore, alongside Chandrayaan-4 sample return and the first module of Bharatiya Antariksh Station.
460. ISRO's Pushpak (RLV-LEX-03) landing experiment in June 2024 was conducted at:
- A. Aeronautical Test Range, Chitradurga
- B. Sriharikota
- C. Thumba
- D. Pokhran
Answer: Aeronautical Test Range, Chitradurga
Explanation: Pushpak, released from an IAF Chinook helicopter, autonomously landed on the runway at ATR Chitradurga, Karnataka, completing the third and final LEX in the series.
461. V. Narayanan, who took over as ISRO Chairman in January 2025, previously headed which ISRO centre and is an expert in:
- A. Space Applications Centre; remote sensing
- B. Vikram Sarabhai Space Centre; satellite navigation
- C. U R Rao Satellite Centre; communication payloads
- D. Liquid Propulsion Systems Centre; cryogenic propulsion
Answer: Liquid Propulsion Systems Centre; cryogenic propulsion
Explanation: V. Narayanan, former director of LPSC, succeeded S. Somanath on 14 January 2025 and is a cryogenic propulsion specialist.
462. The 100th launch from Sriharikota, on 29 January 2025, was carried out by which launch vehicle and carried which satellite?
- A. GSLV-F15 with NVS-02
- B. LVM3-M4 with Chandrayaan-3
- C. PSLV-C60 with SpaDeX
- D. SSLV-D3 with EOS-08
Answer: GSLV-F15 with NVS-02
Explanation: GSLV-F15 carried the NavIC satellite NVS-02; the satellite later could not raise its orbit due to a valve issue.
463. The NISAR satellite, launched on GSLV-F16 on 30 July 2025, is a joint Earth-observation mission of ISRO and:
- A. NASA
- B. ESA
- C. Roscosmos
- D. JAXA
Answer: NASA
Explanation: NISAR carries NASA's L-band and ISRO's S-band synthetic aperture radar, imaging nearly the entire land and ice surface every 12 days.
464. On the Axiom-4 mission (June 2025), Shubhanshu Shukla served as the mission:
- A. Pilot
- B. Commander
- C. Flight engineer
- D. Payload specialist for Poland
Answer: Pilot
Explanation: Shukla was the pilot under Commander Peggy Whitson, with Sławosz Uznański (Poland) and Tibor Kapu (Hungary); he became the first Indian on the ISS and returned on 15 July 2025.
465. Which of these was NOT among the four Gaganyaan astronaut-designates announced by PM Modi on 27 February 2024?
- A. Rakesh Sharma
- B. Prasanth Balakrishnan Nair
- C. Angad Pratap
- D. Shubhanshu Shukla
Answer: Rakesh Sharma
Explanation: The four IAF Group Captains were Prasanth Balakrishnan Nair, Ajit Krishnan, Angad Pratap and Shubhanshu Shukla; Rakesh Sharma flew in 1984.
466. Gaganyaan's planned human mission envisages a crew of three being placed in low Earth orbit at roughly what altitude for a three-day mission?
- A. 1,200 km
- B. 800 km
- C. 400 km
- D. 200 km
Answer: 400 km
Explanation: Gaganyaan plans a 400 km orbit for three days with a safe return in the Bay of Bengal; the TV-D1 test on 21 October 2023 validated the crew escape system.
467. With the successful docking of SpaDeX satellites on 16 January 2025, India became which-numbered country to master space docking?
- A. Fifth
- B. Third
- C. Second
- D. Fourth
Answer: Fourth
Explanation: After the US, Russia and China, India became the fourth nation to demonstrate in-space docking with the Chaser and Target satellites launched on PSLV-C60 (30 December 2024).
468. ISRO's XPoSat, launched on PSLV-C58 on 1 January 2024, is dedicated to studying:
- A. X-ray polarisation from cosmic sources such as black holes and neutron stars
- B. Solar corona imaging
- C. Navigation augmentation
- D. Ocean colour monitoring
Answer: X-ray polarisation from cosmic sources such as black holes and neutron stars
Explanation: XPoSat is India's first dedicated polarimetry mission and the world's second such observatory after NASA's IXPE.
469. Aditya-L1 was inserted into its final halo orbit around the Sun-Earth L1 point on:
- A. 6 January 2024
- B. 1 January 2024
- C. 2 September 2023
- D. 15 February 2024
Answer: 6 January 2024
Explanation: Aditya-L1, launched on PSLV-C57 on 2 September 2023, reached the L1 halo orbit about 1.5 million km from Earth on 6 January 2024.
470. Which instrument on the Pragyan rover of Chandrayaan-3 provided the in-situ confirmation of sulphur near the lunar south pole?
- A. Alpha Particle X-ray Spectrometer (APXS) only
- B. Laser Induced Breakdown Spectroscope (LIBS)
- C. Visible and Near-IR Imaging Spectrometer
- D. ChaSTE thermal probe
Answer: Laser Induced Breakdown Spectroscope (LIBS)
Explanation: LIBS on Pragyan confirmed sulphur along with aluminium, calcium, iron, chromium and titanium; APXS later added manganese, silicon and others.
471. After Chandrayaan-3's Vikram lander touched down on 23 August 2023, the landing site was named 'Shiv Shakti' point on which date, and which day is observed as National Space Day?
- A. 14 July
- B. 2 September
- C. 26 August
- D. 23 August
Answer: 23 August
Explanation: PM Modi announced the name 'Shiv Shakti' on 26 August 2023 at ISTRAC Bengaluru and declared 23 August as National Space Day.
472. In Vivek Narayan Sharma v. Union of India (2 January 2023), the Supreme Court upheld the 2016 demonetisation by a 4:1 majority. Who dissented?
- A. Justice A.S. Bopanna
- B. Justice B.R. Gavai
- C. Justice V. Ramasubramanian
- D. Justice B.V. Nagarathna
Answer: Justice B.V. Nagarathna
Explanation: Justice Nagarathna held the demonetisation unlawful as it was initiated by the Centre and not through legislation or a Central Board recommendation procedure under Section 26(2) of the RBI Act.
473. In Pankaj Bansal v. Union of India (October 2023), the Supreme Court held that the Enforcement Directorate must:
- A. Obtain a magistrate's prior permission for every arrest
- B. Furnish the written grounds of arrest to the arrested person as a matter of course
- C. Limit custody to 24 hours
- D. Arrest only in the presence of a lawyer
Answer: Furnish the written grounds of arrest to the arrested person as a matter of course
Explanation: The Court read Article 22(1) with PMLA Section 19 to require furnishing written grounds of arrest; Prabir Purkayastha (2024) extended a similar rule to UAPA arrests.
474. On 4 August 2023 the Supreme Court stayed Rahul Gandhi's conviction in the 'Modi surname' defamation case, which led to restoration of his Lok Sabha membership. The original conviction was by a court in:
- A. Kolar
- B. Surat
- C. Patna
- D. Ahmedabad
Answer: Surat
Explanation: A Surat magistrate court sentenced him to two years on 23 March 2023, leading to disqualification under Section 8(3) of the RP Act; the stay restored his membership.
475. In Shilpa Sailesh v. Varun Sreenivasan (May 2023), the Constitution Bench held that the Supreme Court can use Article 142 to dissolve a marriage on the ground of:
- A. Irretrievable breakdown of marriage
- B. Mutual consent only after six months
- C. Cruelty alone
- D. Desertion alone
Answer: Irretrievable breakdown of marriage
Explanation: The bench held that irretrievable breakdown can be a ground for dissolution under Article 142 and the six-month cooling-off under Section 13B(2) of the Hindu Marriage Act can be waived.
476. On 20 February 2024 the Supreme Court set aside the Chandigarh Mayor election result and declared which candidate duly elected?
- A. Kuldeep Kumar (AAP)
- B. Manoj Sonkar (BJP)
- C. Anil Masih
- D. Harpreet Kaur Babla (BJP)
Answer: Kuldeep Kumar (AAP)
Explanation: The Court found returning officer Anil Masih had defaced eight ballots, set aside the result and declared AAP's Kuldeep Kumar the winner.
477. On 23 July 2024, the Supreme Court declined to cancel and re-conduct NEET-UG 2024 mainly because:
- A. There was no material showing a systemic breach of the exam's sanctity beyond limited centres
- B. The NTA had already cancelled the leaked papers
- C. The leak was confined to one State and was undetected
- D. No FIR had been registered
Answer: There was no material showing a systemic breach of the exam's sanctity beyond limited centres
Explanation: CJI Chandrachud's bench found the leak (Hazaribagh, Patna) localised and not systemic, so a re-test was not ordered.
478. The Supreme Court in November 2024 upheld the constitutional validity of the Uttar Pradesh Board of Madarsa Education Act, 2004, but held which part inconsistent with the UGC Act?
- A. Provisions for the Board's composition
- B. Provisions for Maulvi certificates
- C. Provisions regarding Alim level
- D. Provisions conferring Kamil and Fazil (higher) degrees
Answer: Provisions conferring Kamil and Fazil (higher) degrees
Explanation: The bench of CJI Chandrachud held that only UGC-recognised institutions can confer higher degrees, so Kamil and Fazil provisions are unconstitutional while the Act otherwise survives.
479. In its November 2025 opinion on the Presidential Reference under Article 143 on Governors' assent to Bills, the Constitution Bench headed by CJI B.R. Gavai held that:
- A. Governors have no discretion under Article 200
- B. Deemed assent is valid after three months
- C. Governors must assent within 30 days or the Bill lapses
- D. Courts cannot impose fixed timelines or recognise 'deemed assent' for Governors and the President
Answer: Courts cannot impose fixed timelines or recognise 'deemed assent' for Governors and the President
Explanation: The bench held that deemed assent is alien to the Constitution and that courts cannot prescribe timelines, though prolonged inaction without reason is open to limited judicial review.
480. In the State of Tamil Nadu v. Governor case (April 2025), the Supreme Court, using Article 142, declared ten bills held by the Governor as:
- A. Subject to a mandatory referendum
- B. Void and lapsed
- C. Referred to the President by default
- D. Deemed to have received assent
Answer: Deemed to have received assent
Explanation: The bench of Justices J.B. Pardiwala and R. Mahadevan held the Governor's reservation of bills after re-passage illegal and fixed timelines of up to three months for assent decisions.
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