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81. Under the IMD classification, a cyclone with sustained winds of 222 km/h or more is termed a:
- A. Super Cyclonic Storm
- B. Very Severe Cyclonic Storm
- C. Severe Cyclonic Storm
- D. Extremely Severe Cyclonic Storm
Answer: Super Cyclonic Storm
Explanation: Winds of 222 km/h and above define a Super Cyclonic Storm; the 1999 Odisha cyclone belonged to this category.
82. The Public Liability Insurance Act, 1991, enacted after the Bhopal Gas Tragedy, provides relief to victims of accidents involving hazardous substances on what basis?
- A. Only for employees of the railways
- B. Only if the victim proves negligence of the owner
- C. Only after the owner is convicted in a criminal court
- D. No-fault basis, without the victim having to prove negligence by the owner
Answer: No-fault basis, without the victim having to prove negligence by the owner
Explanation: The Act makes insurance mandatory for owners handling hazardous substances so that victims receive immediate relief on a no-fault basis, without proving negligence.
83. Under the DM Act, 2005, written directions issued by the Central Government to Ministries, the National/State Authorities or State Governments to facilitate or assist in disaster management are:
- A. Purely advisory suggestions with no legal weight
- B. Applicable only to central government employees
- C. Valid only while Parliament is in session
- D. Binding - the Ministry, Authority or State Government concerned is bound to comply with them
Answer: Binding - the Ministry, Authority or State Government concerned is bound to comply with them
Explanation: The Act empowers the Central Government, notwithstanding anything in any other law, to issue written directions to Ministries/Departments, the National or State Authority or State Governments, and they are bound to comply.
84. India's Mission Karmayogi, launched in 2020 and extended in 2024 as a capacity-building programme, is delivered through which online platform?
- A. iGOT Karmayogi
- B. DIKSHA
- C. SWAYAM
- D. e-Sampada
Answer: iGOT Karmayogi
Explanation: iGOT Karmayogi is the learning platform for civil servants, run by the Capacity Building Commission.
85. India's Parliament passed the Waqf (Amendment) Bill, 2025 in April 2025 after a Joint Parliamentary Committee chaired by:
- A. Jagdambika Pal
- B. Nishikant Dubey
- C. Mallikarjun Kharge
- D. Tejasvi Surya
Answer: Jagdambika Pal
Explanation: Jagdambika Pal's JPC examined the Bill introduced in August 2024; the Lok Sabha passed it on 3 April 2025 and the Rajya Sabha on 4 April.
86. The Union Cabinet's September 2024 decision to roll out Ayushman Bharat PM-JAY to all senior citizens covers those aged:
- A. 65 years and above, BPL only
- B. 70 years and above, irrespective of income
- C. 75 years and above, irrespective of income
- D. 60 years and above with income below Rs 5 lakh
Answer: 70 years and above, irrespective of income
Explanation: Eligible senior citizens get a top-up cover of Rs 5 lakh per family per year; Ayushman Vay Vandana cards were launched on 29 October 2024.
87. India's national Digital Public Infrastructure initiative 'Bharat Interface for Money' (BHIM) is operated by which entity?
- A. Unique Identification Authority of India
- B. NITI Aayog
- C. Reserve Bank Innovation Hub
- D. National Payments Corporation of India
Answer: National Payments Corporation of India
Explanation: NPCI, an umbrella organisation promoted by RBI and banks, runs UPI, RuPay and BHIM; UPI's international arm is NPCI International Payments Ltd (NIPL).
88. Which Indian city hosted the 2023 Intercontinental football cup and, in the same year, the 2023 FIH Men's Hockey World Cup final?
- A. Hyderabad
- B. Chennai
- C. Guwahati
- D. Bhubaneswar
Answer: Bhubaneswar
Explanation: Both were held at Odisha's Kalinga Stadium complexes in Bhubaneswar; Odisha is the main sponsor of the Indian hockey teams.
89. The Bharatiya Vayuyan Adhiniyam, 2024 gives statutory backing to the regulation of civil aviation. Which authority is the aviation security regulator under it?
- A. Bureau of Civil Aviation Security
- B. Airports Authority of India
- C. Directorate General of Civil Aviation
- D. Aircraft Accident Investigation Bureau
Answer: Bureau of Civil Aviation Security
Explanation: BCAS is the aviation security regulator; DGCA handles safety and AAIB investigates accidents, all of which the 2024 Act recognises.
90. Under the Union Budget 2025-26, the Kisan Credit Card loan limit under MISS was raised from Rs 3 lakh to Rs 5 lakh. What does MISS stand for?
- A. Mission for Irrigation and Seed Security
- B. Minimum Income Support Scheme
- C. Modified Interest Subvention Scheme
- D. Micro Insurance Subsidy Scheme
Answer: Modified Interest Subvention Scheme
Explanation: The Modified Interest Subvention Scheme provides short-term farm loans at concessional interest, benefitting about 7.7 crore farmers, fishers and dairy farmers.
91. D. Gukesh won the 2024 FIDE Candidates Tournament at Toronto and became the:
- A. First Indian to beat Magnus Carlsen in a classical game
- B. Oldest Candidates winner
- C. Youngest Grandmaster ever
- D. Youngest challenger for the World Championship
Answer: Youngest challenger for the World Championship
Explanation: At 17, Gukesh broke Garry Kasparov's record as the youngest Candidates winner and earned the right to challenge Ding Liren.
92. India won the Women's Asian Champions Trophy hockey 2024 held at Rajgir, Bihar, by defeating which team in the final?
- A. Thailand
- B. China
- C. South Korea
- D. Japan
Answer: China
Explanation: India beat China 1-0 with a goal from Deepika; it was India's third title in the tournament.
93. 2023 was declared by the United Nations as the International Year of:
- A. Cooperatives
- B. Millets
- C. Glaciers' Preservation
- D. Pulses
Answer: Millets
Explanation: The UNGA adopted the India-led proposal in March 2021; 2025 was declared International Year of Glaciers' Preservation and also of Cooperatives.
94. Which two texts were inscribed in UNESCO's Memory of the World Register in April 2025 from India?
- A. Bhagavad Gita and Natyashastra
- B. Arthashastra and Manusmriti
- C. Ramayana and Mahabharata
- D. Vedas and Upanishads
Answer: Bhagavad Gita and Natyashastra
Explanation: The inscription added Gita and Bharata's Natyashastra to India's existing entries such as the Rigveda manuscripts.
95. The Union Cabinet approved Chandrayaan-4 in September 2024, a mission that aims to:
- A. Build a lunar base
- B. Land a crewed module on the Moon
- C. Bring lunar samples back to Earth
- D. Place a rover on Mars
Answer: Bring lunar samples back to Earth
Explanation: The Chandrayaan-4 lunar sample return mission, targeted for 2027, will test docking and undocking; the Cabinet also approved the Next Generation Launch Vehicle.
96. In September 2025, the Supreme Court's interim order on the Waqf (Amendment) Act, 2025 stayed the provision requiring that a person:
- A. Must be a resident of the State to create a waqf
- B. Must be above 50 years of age to create a waqf
- C. Must register the waqf with a High Court
- D. Must have practised Islam for at least five years to create a waqf
Answer: Must have practised Islam for at least five years to create a waqf
Explanation: The Court declined to stay the entire Act but paused the five-year practice condition until rules are framed, and capped non-Muslim members on waqf bodies.
97. Justice Yashwant Varma of the Delhi High Court became the subject of an in-house inquiry in March 2025 after:
- A. An unauthorised foreign trip
- B. A controversial remark during a hearing
- C. A fire at his official residence led to the alleged discovery of a large cash stockpile
- D. A conflict of interest in a tax case
Answer: A fire at his official residence led to the alleged discovery of a large cash stockpile
Explanation: CJI Sanjiv Khanna set up a three-judge in-house committee; Justice Varma was repatriated to the Allahabad High Court and impeachment under Article 124 read with Article 217 was pursued.
98. In November 2024, the Supreme Court upheld the validity of which State Act, while striking down its provisions for higher degrees like Kamil and Fazil?
- A. Rajasthan Madrasa Board Act, 2020
- B. Uttar Pradesh Board of Madarsa Education Act, 2004
- C. Assam Repealing Act, 2020
- D. Bihar Madrasa Act, 1982
Answer: Uttar Pradesh Board of Madarsa Education Act, 2004
Explanation: The Court reversed the Allahabad High Court's finding that the Act violated secularism, but held that higher degrees conflict with the UGC Act.
99. On 12 December 2024, the Supreme Court restrained courts from passing effective interim or final orders in fresh suits challenging the status of places of worship, in the context of:
- A. The Religious Endowments Act, 1863
- B. The Waqf Act, 1995
- C. The Places of Worship (Special Provisions) Act, 1991
- D. The Ancient Monuments Act, 1958
Answer: The Places of Worship (Special Provisions) Act, 1991
Explanation: The 1991 Act freezes the religious character of places of worship as on 15 August 1947 (except Ayodhya); its validity was under challenge before a three-judge bench.
100. The multinational exercise Africa-India Key Maritime Engagement (AIKEYME), held in April 2025, was co-hosted by the Indian Navy and the defence forces of:
- A. South Africa
- B. Tanzania
- C. Egypt
- D. Kenya
Answer: Tanzania
Explanation: AIKEYME, co-hosted by the Indian Navy and the Tanzania People's Defence Force, was the first India-Africa maritime exercise with multiple African nations.
101. The theme of Republic Day 2025 (76th) parade tableaux, held at Kartavya Path, was:
- A. Bharat: Loktantra ki Matruka
- B. Nari Shakti
- C. Swarnim Bharat: Virasat aur Vikas
- D. Viksit Bharat
Answer: Swarnim Bharat: Virasat aur Vikas
Explanation: The 2025 celebrations marked 75 years of the Republic of India; 'Bharat: Loktantra ki Matruka' was the 2024 theme.
102. Prabowo Subianto was sworn in as Indonesia's President on 20 October 2024 and was Chief Guest at India's Republic Day parade in:
- A. 2026
- B. 2024
- C. 2023
- D. 2025
Answer: 2025
Explanation: Prabowo was the chief guest on 26 January 2025; Emmanuel Macron was in 2024 and Egypt's Abdel Fattah el-Sisi in 2023.
103. Muhammad Yunus, who heads Bangladesh's interim government since August 2024, is a Nobel laureate in:
- A. Peace (2006)
- B. Economics (2006)
- C. Literature (2006)
- D. Peace (2009)
Answer: Peace (2006)
Explanation: Yunus, founder of Grameen Bank, shared the 2006 Nobel Peace Prize with the bank for microcredit.
104. Sheikh Hasina's ouster in August 2024 followed a mass movement that began as protests against:
- A. A new election law
- B. A proposed constitutional amendment
- C. Rising fuel prices
- D. The quota system in government jobs
Answer: The quota system in government jobs
Explanation: Student protests against the 30% freedom-fighter-descendant quota in civil service jobs escalated into a nationwide uprising.
105. Which team won the Intercontinental Football Cup 2023 in Bhubaneswar, with India beating Lebanon in the final?
- A. Vanuatu
- B. Kenya
- C. Lebanon
- D. Mongolia
Answer: Lebanon
Explanation: India beat Lebanon 2-0 at the Kalinga Stadium; the same tournament in 2024 was hosted in Hyderabad.
106. Navi Mumbai International Airport, inaugurated in October 2025, is being developed in a PPP with which group?
- A. Tata Group with MIAL
- B. GMR Group with AAI
- C. GVK Group with MMRDA
- D. Adani Group with CIDCO
Answer: Adani Group with CIDCO
Explanation: Navi Mumbai International Airport Ltd is an Adani Airport Holdings-led JV with CIDCO, intended to ease pressure on Mumbai's Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj International Airport.
107. Who topped the UPSC Civil Services Examination 2024, the results of which were declared in April 2025?
- A. Ishita Kishore
- B. Animesh Pradhan
- C. Aditya Srivastava
- D. Shakti Dubey
Answer: Shakti Dubey
Explanation: Shakti Dubey of Prayagraj secured AIR 1; Aditya Srivastava topped CSE 2023.
108. The Tribhuvan Sahkari University, established by an Act of Parliament in 2025, is located at:
- A. Jaipur, Rajasthan
- B. Anand, Gujarat
- C. Pune, Maharashtra
- D. Lucknow, Uttar Pradesh
Answer: Anand, Gujarat
Explanation: The university, named after cooperative pioneer Tribhuvandas Patel, is India's first national cooperative university; 2025 was the UN International Year of Cooperatives.
109. The MSP of wheat for the Rabi Marketing Season 2025-26 was fixed at:
- A. Rs 2,585 per quintal
- B. Rs 2,125 per quintal
- C. Rs 2,425 per quintal
- D. Rs 2,275 per quintal
Answer: Rs 2,425 per quintal
Explanation: The Rs 160 increase over Rs 2,275 for 2024-25 was approved by the Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs in October 2024.
110. The FASTag annual pass introduced from 15 August 2025 for private non-commercial vehicles costs Rs 3,000 and allows up to:
- A. 50 trips or three months
- B. 100 trips or six months
- C. 200 trips or one year, whichever is earlier
- D. 365 trips or two years
Answer: 200 trips or one year, whichever is earlier
Explanation: The pass applies at toll plazas on National Highways and National Expressways.
111. The Vadhavan Port, approved by the Union Cabinet in June 2024 at about Rs 76,200 crore, is being developed in which State?
- A. Andhra Pradesh (Machilipatnam)
- B. Gujarat (Bhavnagar)
- C. Odisha (Gopalpur)
- D. Maharashtra (Palghar)
Answer: Maharashtra (Palghar)
Explanation: The deep-draft Vadhavan port, near Dahanu, is planned as one of the world's top ten container ports.
112. Vizhinjam International Seaport, commissioned on 2 May 2025, is India's first:
- A. Offshore oil terminal
- B. Inland river container port
- C. Deep-water container transshipment port
- D. Floating LNG port
Answer: Deep-water container transshipment port
Explanation: Built at Thiruvananthapuram in Kerala under a PPP model with Adani Ports, it aims to capture container transshipment currently handled at Colombo, Singapore and Salalah.
113. Mumbai Metro Line 3 (Aqua Line), whose first phase from Aarey JVLR to BKC opened in October 2024, is notable as Mumbai's first:
- A. Monorail corridor
- B. Elevated suburban corridor
- C. Driverless metro line
- D. Fully underground metro line
Answer: Fully underground metro line
Explanation: The 33.5 km Colaba-Bandra-SEEPZ corridor, built by Mumbai Metro Rail Corporation, is fully underground with 27 stations.
114. Who became the 2025 Formula 1 World Drivers' Champion, winning narrowly in the Abu Dhabi finale?
- A. Lando Norris
- B. Oscar Piastri
- C. Max Verstappen
- D. Charles Leclerc
Answer: Lando Norris
Explanation: Norris of McLaren won his first title by two points over Verstappen, who had won four titles from 2021 to 2024.
115. Who was appointed India's Test captain in May 2025 after Rohit Sharma's Test retirement?
- A. Shubman Gill
- B. Rishabh Pant
- C. K. L. Rahul
- D. Jasprit Bumrah
Answer: Shubman Gill
Explanation: Gill, aged 25, led India on the 2025 England tour; Rohit announced his retirement from Tests on 7 May 2025 and Kohli on 12 May.
116. India's home Test series against New Zealand in October-November 2024 ended in a:
- A. 3-0 clean sweep for New Zealand
- B. 2-1 win for India
- C. 1-1 draw
- D. 2-0 win for India
Answer: 3-0 clean sweep for New Zealand
Explanation: It was India's first-ever 3-0 whitewash in a home Test series of three or more matches.
117. In the Asia Cup 2023 ODI final at Colombo, India bowled out Sri Lanka for just how many runs?
- A. 101
- B. 83
- C. 67
- D. 50
Answer: 50
Explanation: Mohammed Siraj took 6 for 21 and India chased 51 in 6.1 overs without losing a wicket for a 10-wicket win.
118. Glenn Maxwell's unbeaten 201 against Afghanistan in the 2023 World Cup is the first double century in a World Cup chase and came at:
- A. Eden Gardens, Kolkata
- B. Wankhede Stadium, Mumbai
- C. HPCA Stadium, Dharamsala
- D. Arun Jaitley Stadium, Delhi
Answer: Wankhede Stadium, Mumbai
Explanation: Australia chased 292 from 91/7 on 7 November 2023, with Maxwell batting with cramps.
119. Virat Kohli's 50th ODI century, a record, came in the 2023 World Cup semi-final against New Zealand at:
- A. M. A. Chidambaram Stadium, Chennai
- B. Wankhede Stadium, Mumbai
- C. Eden Gardens, Kolkata
- D. Narendra Modi Stadium, Ahmedabad
Answer: Wankhede Stadium, Mumbai
Explanation: Kohli's 117 on 15 November 2023 surpassed Sachin Tendulkar's 49 ODI hundreds; Mohammed Shami took 7 for 57 in the same match.
120. Novak Djokovic completed a career 'Golden Slam' in 2024 by winning Olympic singles gold at Paris, defeating:
- A. Jannik Sinner
- B. Rafael Nadal
- C. Daniil Medvedev
- D. Carlos Alcaraz
Answer: Carlos Alcaraz
Explanation: Djokovic beat Alcaraz 7-6, 7-6 at Roland Garros to win his first Olympic gold at age 37.
121. The 71st Miss World pageant in March 2024 was hosted in India after a gap of 28 years at:
- A. Hyderabad
- B. Bengaluru
- C. Mumbai
- D. Delhi
Answer: Mumbai
Explanation: Czech Republic's Krystyna Pyszkova won the crown at the Jio World Convention Centre; India's Sini Shetty finished among the top eight.
122. Chandrika Tandon won a Grammy in February 2025 in which category for her album 'Triveni'?
- A. Best Global Music Album
- B. Best New Age, Ambient or Chant Album
- C. Best Children's Music Album
- D. Best Classical Crossover Album
Answer: Best New Age, Ambient or Chant Album
Explanation: The Indian-American musician won with Wouter Kellerman and Eru Matsumoto; Beyonce took Album of the Year for 'Cowboy Carter'.
123. Payal Kapadia's 'All We Imagine as Light' won which award at the 2024 Cannes Film Festival?
- A. Best Director
- B. Grand Prix (second-highest award)
- C. Jury Prize
- D. Palme d'Or
Answer: Grand Prix (second-highest award)
Explanation: Kapadia became the first Indian woman director to win the Grand Prix; Anasuya Sengupta won Best Actress in Un Certain Regard for 'The Shameless'.
124. At the 97th Academy Awards (March 2025), the Best Picture Oscar went to:
- A. The Brutalist
- B. Emilia Perez
- C. Anora
- D. Conclave
Answer: Anora
Explanation: Sean Baker's Anora won five Oscars; the 96th Academy Awards (2024) were dominated by Oppenheimer, which won seven including Best Picture.
125. The Booker Prize 2025 was won by David Szalay for the novel:
- A. Prophet Song
- B. Flesh
- C. Orbital
- D. The Seven Moons of Maali Almeida
Answer: Flesh
Explanation: Szalay, a British-Hungarian-Canadian author, won for 'Flesh' about a Hungarian man's life; Samantha Harvey won in 2024.
126. The 2025 Nobel Prize in Physiology or Medicine concerned discoveries relating to:
- A. Circadian clocks
- B. Peripheral immune tolerance
- C. mRNA vaccine technology
- D. Hepatitis C virus
Answer: Peripheral immune tolerance
Explanation: Mary Brunkow, Fred Ramsdell and Shimon Sakaguchi were recognised for discovering regulatory T cells and the FOXP3 gene that prevent the immune system attacking the body.
127. The 2023 Nobel Prize in Literature was awarded to Jon Fosse of Norway, who writes in:
- A. Bokmal
- B. Nynorsk
- C. Danish
- D. Sami
Answer: Nynorsk
Explanation: Fosse writes in Nynorsk, one of Norway's two written standards; he was honoured for 'innovative plays and prose which give voice to the unsayable'.
128. The 2025 Nobel Prize in Literature went to the Hungarian writer:
- A. Péter Esterházy
- B. Imre Kertész
- C. Péter Nádas
- D. László Krasznahorkai
Answer: László Krasznahorkai
Explanation: Krasznahorkai, known for 'Satantango', was honoured for his compelling and visionary oeuvre; Imre Kertesz had won in 2002.
129. The 2025 Nobel Peace Prize was awarded to María Corina Machado, an opposition leader from:
- A. Venezuela
- B. Nicaragua
- C. Colombia
- D. Cuba
Answer: Venezuela
Explanation: She was honoured for her work promoting democratic rights and a peaceful transition from dictatorship to democracy in Venezuela.
130. The 2023 Nobel Prize in Physics, shared by Pierre Agostini, Ferenc Krausz and Anne L'Huillier, was for experimental methods that generate:
- A. Neutrino oscillations
- B. Gravitational waves
- C. Bose-Einstein condensates
- D. Attosecond pulses of light
Answer: Attosecond pulses of light
Explanation: These ultra-short light pulses allow study of electron dynamics in atoms and molecules.
131. The 2024 Nobel Memorial Prize in Economic Sciences, awarded to Daron Acemoglu, Simon Johnson and James Robinson, concerned:
- A. Behavioural finance and market anomalies
- B. Auction theory
- C. How institutions are formed and affect prosperity
- D. Natural experiments in labour economics
Answer: How institutions are formed and affect prosperity
Explanation: Their work compared colonial-era institutions to show why some countries remain poor and others prosper.
132. The 2024 Nobel Prize in Chemistry was shared by David Baker, Demis Hassabis and John Jumper for work on:
- A. Lithium-ion batteries
- B. CRISPR gene editing
- C. Quantum dots
- D. Computational protein design and protein structure prediction
Answer: Computational protein design and protein structure prediction
Explanation: Baker was cited for computational protein design, while Hassabis and Jumper, of Google DeepMind, for AlphaFold's protein structure prediction.
133. Budget 2025-26 announced that 50,000 Atal Tinkering Labs would be set up in government schools over the next:
- A. Three years
- B. Two years
- C. Five years
- D. Ten years
Answer: Five years
Explanation: The Budget also announced broadband connectivity for all government secondary schools through BharatNet and a Centre of Excellence in AI for education.
134. The Jal Jeevan Mission was extended in Budget 2025-26 till:
- A. 2028
- B. 2030
- C. 2026
- D. 2027
Answer: 2028
Explanation: The extension, with an enhanced outlay, aims at 100% coverage of tap water supply in rural households.
135. Budget 2025-26 raised the credit guarantee cover for micro and small enterprises from Rs 5 crore to:
- A. Rs 10 crore
- B. Rs 20 crore
- C. Rs 15 crore
- D. Rs 7.5 crore
Answer: Rs 10 crore
Explanation: The measure was projected to generate additional credit of Rs 1.5 lakh crore over five years.
136. The Maritime Development Fund announced in Budget 2025-26 has a corpus of:
- A. Rs 10,000 crore
- B. Rs 5,000 crore
- C. Rs 25,000 crore
- D. Rs 1 lakh crore
Answer: Rs 25,000 crore
Explanation: The Rs 25,000 crore fund, with up to 49% government contribution, aims to finance long-term shipping and port projects.
137. Budget 2025-26 announced a new Fund of Funds for Startups with a corpus of:
- A. Rs 2,500 crore
- B. Rs 50,000 crore
- C. Rs 1,000 crore
- D. Rs 10,000 crore
Answer: Rs 10,000 crore
Explanation: A new Fund of Funds for Startups with a Rs 10,000 crore corpus was announced as a follow-on to the earlier fund.
138. On the International Yoga Day 2023, the PM led a Guinness World Record event at:
- A. United Nations Headquarters, New York
- B. Kartavya Path, New Delhi
- C. Eiffel Tower, Paris
- D. Rashtrapati Bhavan, New Delhi
Answer: United Nations Headquarters, New York
Explanation: The event recorded participation from the largest number of nationalities in a single yoga session.
139. The International Yoga Day 2024 event led by the PM took place at the Sher-i-Kashmir International Convention Centre on the banks of:
- A. Nainital Lake
- B. Dal Lake, Srinagar
- C. Pangong Lake
- D. Wular Lake
Answer: Dal Lake, Srinagar
Explanation: The 2024 theme was 'Yoga for Self and Society'; in 2025 the central event was at Visakhapatnam with the theme 'Yoga for One Earth, One Health'.
140. The 500th birth anniversary of which Gond queen, born in 1524, was observed on 5 October 2024?
- A. Rani Chennamma
- B. Rani Durgavati
- C. Rani Avantibai Lodhi
- D. Rani Gaidinliu
Answer: Rani Durgavati
Explanation: Rani Durgavati of Gondwana (Garha) died fighting the Mughal general Asaf Khan at Narrai in 1564.
141. The 300th birth anniversary of which Maratha queen, born in 1725 at Chondi, was observed in 2025?
- A. Ahilyabai Holkar
- B. Tarabai
- C. Jijabai
- D. Rani Lakshmibai
Answer: Ahilyabai Holkar
Explanation: Ahilyabai Holkar ruled Malwa from Indore (Maheshwar as capital) and rebuilt the Kashi Vishwanath temple; Ahmednagar was renamed Ahilyanagar in her honour.
142. The 150th anniversary of 'Vande Mataram', observed from November 2025, commemorates the song written by which author?
- A. Muhammad Iqbal
- B. Sarojini Naidu
- C. Rabindranath Tagore
- D. Bankim Chandra Chatterjee
Answer: Bankim Chandra Chatterjee
Explanation: Bankim Chandra composed it in 1875; it later featured in his novel Anandamath (1882) and was adopted as the National Song in 1950.
143. The WHO Pandemic Agreement was adopted by the World Health Assembly in:
- A. May 2025
- B. September 2025
- C. May 2024
- D. December 2023
Answer: May 2025
Explanation: The 78th World Health Assembly adopted the Agreement in May 2025; the United States, which announced its withdrawal from WHO in January 2025, did not take part.
144. WHO declared mpox a Public Health Emergency of International Concern (PHEIC) in August 2024. In which year was the COVID-19 PHEIC ended?
- A. 5 May 2023
- B. 11 March 2023
- C. 1 July 2023
- D. 30 January 2023
Answer: 5 May 2023
Explanation: The WHO Director-General ended the COVID-19 PHEIC on 5 May 2023, three years after its declaration on 30 January 2020.
145. The Indian Army received the first AH-64E Apache attack helicopters in July 2025 at which location?
- A. Hindon
- B. Jodhpur
- C. Bengaluru
- D. Pathankot
Answer: Jodhpur
Explanation: The Army Aviation Corps' first Apache squadron was stationed at Jodhpur, near the western border.
146. In his Independence Day speech of 15 August 2025, the PM announced 'Mission Sudarshan Chakra', which aims to build:
- A. A coastal radar chain along the entire coastline
- B. An indigenous fifth-generation fighter fleet
- C. A national multi-layered air defence shield by 2035
- D. A national cyber command
Answer: A national multi-layered air defence shield by 2035
Explanation: The mission is envisaged to neutralise threats to the nation, including critical infrastructure and religious sites, and is aimed at completion by 2035.
147. The terror attack of 22 April 2025 that triggered Operation Sindoor took place at which tourist spot near Pahalgam?
- A. Baisaran Valley
- B. Aru Valley
- C. Chandanwari
- D. Betaab Valley
Answer: Baisaran Valley
Explanation: Twenty-six people, mostly tourists, were killed in Baisaran meadow; The Resistance Front (TRF) claimed it and the US later designated TRF a Foreign Terrorist Organisation.
148. During Operation Sindoor (7 May 2025), the Indian strikes hit terror headquarters of which two groups at Bahawalpur and Muridke respectively?
- A. Jaish-e-Mohammed and Lashkar-e-Taiba
- B. Lashkar-e-Taiba and Hizbul Mujahideen
- C. Harkat-ul-Mujahideen and Jamaat-ud-Dawa
- D. Hizbul Mujahideen and Jaish-e-Mohammed
Answer: Jaish-e-Mohammed and Lashkar-e-Taiba
Explanation: Bahawalpur hosts JeM's Markaz Subhan Allah and Muridke is LeT's Markaz Taiba; a total of nine sites were struck in Pakistan and PoK.
149. How many seats did the INDIA bloc win in the 2024 Lok Sabha election?
- A. 272
- B. 99
- C. 205
- D. 234
Answer: 234
Explanation: INDIA bloc won 234 seats against NDA's 293, with the Congress itself winning 99, doubling its 2019 tally of 52.
150. Which party won the maximum seats among regional parties in the 2024 Lok Sabha election, finishing third overall with 37 seats?
- A. Samajwadi Party
- B. DMK
- C. TDP
- D. Trinamool Congress
Answer: Samajwadi Party
Explanation: The Samajwadi Party won 37 of Uttar Pradesh's 80 seats, followed by the Trinamool's 29 and the DMK's 22.
151. The Telangana Assembly election of November 2023 was held for how many seats, and where did Congress win the majority?
- A. 117 seats; Congress won 55
- B. 294 seats; Congress won 100
- C. 120 seats; Congress won 70
- D. 119 seats; Congress won 64
Answer: 119 seats; Congress won 64
Explanation: BRS fell to 39 seats and the BJP won 8; the majority mark was 60.
152. The Bharatiya Janata Party won how many of the 60 seats in the 2024 Arunachal Pradesh Assembly election?
- A. 46
- B. 52
- C. 41
- D. 36
Answer: 46
Explanation: The BJP, which had already won 10 seats unopposed, secured 46 seats; Pema Khandu continued as Chief Minister.
153. In Maharashtra's November 2024 election, which party won the largest number of seats in the 288-member Assembly?
- A. Shiv Sena (Shinde) with 57
- B. BJP with 132
- C. NCP (Ajit Pawar) with 41
- D. Congress with 16
Answer: BJP with 132
Explanation: Mahayuti won 230 of 288 seats; the BJP's 132 was its best-ever tally in the State.
154. The first Assembly election in Jammu & Kashmir after 2014 was held in how many phases in September-October 2024?
- A. One
- B. Two
- C. Five
- D. Three
Answer: Three
Explanation: Polling was on 18 September, 25 September and 1 October 2024, with counting on 8 October along with Haryana.
155. After the 2022 delimitation, the Jammu and Kashmir Legislative Assembly has how many elected seats, including a first-ever reservation for Scheduled Tribes?
- A. 87 (including 4 ST seats)
- B. 83 (including 7 ST seats)
- C. 114 (including 24 vacant)
- D. 90 (including 9 ST seats)
Answer: 90 (including 9 ST seats)
Explanation: The Delimitation Commission raised the strength from 83 to 90 (43 in Jammu, 47 in Kashmir); 24 seats stay reserved for PoK and the Lieutenant Governor can nominate five members.
156. The 13 December 2023 Parliament security breach, in which intruders released smoke canisters in the Lok Sabha, occurred on the anniversary of:
- A. The 1975 Emergency
- B. The 1999 Kargil conflict
- C. The 2001 attack on Parliament
- D. The 2008 Mumbai attacks
Answer: The 2001 attack on Parliament
Explanation: The breach on the 22nd anniversary of the 13 December 2001 attack led to a security review and the suspension of a large number of opposition MPs in the Winter Session.
157. The old Parliament building was renamed in September 2023 as:
- A. Sansad Sadan
- B. Loktantra Mandir
- C. Bharat Mandapam
- D. Samvidhan Sadan
Answer: Samvidhan Sadan
Explanation: PM Modi proposed that the old building be called Samvidhan Sadan during the shift to the new Parliament on 19 September 2023.
158. In the March 2023 Nagaland Assembly, which landmark representation was achieved for the first time in the State's history?
- A. A tribal woman became Chief Minister
- B. Two women MLAs were elected
- C. The Assembly was dissolved by a Governor
- D. A Speaker was elected unopposed from Congress
Answer: Two women MLAs were elected
Explanation: Hekani Jakhalu (NDPP) and Salhoutuonuo Kruse (NDPP) became Nagaland's first women MLAs; Neiphiu Rio returned as CM.
159. The Sikkim Krantikari Morcha (SKM) won how many of the 32 Assembly seats in the 2024 Sikkim election?
- A. 29
- B. 31
- C. 24
- D. 27
Answer: 31
Explanation: SKM led by Prem Singh Tamang won 31 of 32 seats; the SDF got one.
160. In the 2023 Karnataka Assembly election, the Congress won how many of the 224 seats?
- A. 135
- B. 113
- C. 122
- D. 150
Answer: 135
Explanation: The BJP won 66 and JD(S) 19; Siddaramaiah became CM for a second time on 20 May 2023 with D. K. Shivakumar as Deputy CM.
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