RPF Head Constable Rule 72 LDCE MCQ Practice

1. A. The District Magistrate personally, in all cases
2. B. A police officer, or in the absence of one, take the person to the nearest police station
3. C. No one; the private person must personally detain forever
4. D. The local Panchayat for judgment

1. A. Permission of the State Human Rights Commission
2. B. Prior permission of an officer not below the rank of Deputy Superintendent of Police
3. C. No permission is needed under any circumstance
4. D. Permission of the local Municipal Commissioner

1. A. Traveling abroad for business purposes only
2. B. Voting in elections
3. C. Attending religious ceremonies
4. D. Tampering with evidence or influencing witnesses, or making inducement/threat to any person acquainted with the facts

1. A. Section 528 BNSS; only the Supreme Court
2. B. Section 173 BNSS; only the police station in charge
3. C. Section 41 BNSS; only the trial Magistrate
4. D. Section 482 BNSS; the Court of Session or the High Court

1. A. Only the Home Minister can override the police officer's refusal
2. B. Police officer's opinion is final and binding in all bailable cases
3. C. In a bailable offence, bail is a matter of right and must be granted on furnishing bail/bond; police discretion cannot override this
4. D. Bail can be refused permanently regardless of offence type

1. A. All bailable offences
2. B. All offences under local and special laws without exception
3. C. Offences punishable with death or life imprisonment, and cases involving multiple offences or proceedings against the same person
4. D. All offences investigated by the Railway Protection Force

1. A. Bail only after serving the full sentence
2. B. Bail only with a High Court order
3. C. No relief; must undergo full trial in custody
4. D. Bail after having undergone detention for one-third of the maximum period of imprisonment specified for that offence

1. A. Anticipatory bail only
2. B. Parole granted by the Home Ministry
3. C. No form of bail; must remain in custody indefinitely
4. D. Default/statutory bail

1. A. Section 528 BNSS relating to savings
2. B. Section 43 BNSS relating to arrest only
3. C. Section 103 BNSS (search of place, persons therein - equivalent to old Section 100 CrPC)
4. D. Section 173 BNSS relating to FIR registration

1. A. The nearest Magistrate empowered to take cognizance of the offence
2. B. The National Human Rights Commission
3. C. The Chief Minister's office
4. D. The local Municipal Corporation

1. A. 10 years or more, life imprisonment, or death
2. B. Any offence, irrespective of punishment
3. C. Only offences under special economic laws
4. D. Only offences punishable with fine

1. A. Means such as email, SMS, or other electronic communication as recognized by rules
2. B. Only hand delivery by a constable
3. C. Only registered post
4. D. Only newspaper publication

1. A. Warrant of arrest
2. B. Proclamation and attachment of property
3. C. Summons
4. D. Public auction of property

1. A. With permission of any two adult male relatives
2. B. In exceptional circumstances, with the prior permission of the Judicial Magistrate of the first class within whose jurisdiction the offence is committed or the arrest is to be made
3. C. Under no circumstances whatsoever, even with permission
4. D. With permission of the local Sarpanch only

1. A. 72 hours in all cases
2. B. 48 hours, including travel time
3. C. 7 days if the offence is cognizable
4. D. 24 hours, excluding the time necessary for the journey from the place of arrest to the Magistrate's court

1. A. Only in open court in the presence of the accused
2. B. Through audio-video means, preferably mobile phone, at the residence of the victim or a place of her choice
3. C. Only in writing without any recording
4. D. Only by a male Magistrate

1. A. Only a Magistrate, never a police officer
2. B. Only the Station House Officer regardless of gender
3. C. Any male officer available at the station
4. D. A woman police officer, or in her absence any woman officer

1. A. Electronic FIRs are not recognized under BNSS
2. B. FIR must always be signed at the moment it is first reported
3. C. FIR can only be given orally at the police station in person
4. D. Information relating to a cognizable offence may be given electronically and shall be signed within 3 days after being taken on record

1. A. A search of the accused's premises without warrant, mandatorily
2. B. An arrest without any inquiry
3. C. A full trial before registration
4. D. A preliminary inquiry to ascertain whether a prima facie case exists, within 14 days

1. A. E-FIR provisional registration
2. B. Cross FIR
3. C. Zero FIR
4. D. Suo motu FIR

1. A. Only for offences punishable with death
2. B. 7 years or more
3. C. Any imprisonment term, without exception
4. D. Less than 3 years only

1. A. 60 days continuously
2. B. 15 days, strictly only in the first 15 days as before
3. C. 24 hours only
4. D. 15 days, which may now be authorized in parts spread across the 40/60-day period rather than only in the first 15 days

1. A. In every arrest without exception
2. B. Never under any circumstances
3. C. Where the person is a habitual/repeat offender who escaped from custody, or is accused of organized crime, terrorist act, drug-related offence, or offences against the State, among specified categories
4. D. Only for women accused

1. A. Send it directly to the High Court
2. B. Inform only the nearest Member of Parliament
3. C. Display it on a notice board designated for this purpose at the police station and maintained by a designated police officer
4. D. Publish it in a local newspaper

1. A. Audio-video recorded, preferably on a mobile phone
2. B. Conducted only between sunrise and sunset
3. C. Conducted only in the presence of a Magistrate
4. D. Recorded in triplicate on paper only

1. A. Non-cognizable offence
2. B. Compoundable offence
3. C. Cognizable offence
4. D. Non-compoundable offence

1. A. 15 August 2023
2. B. 1 April 2024
3. C. 26 January 2024
4. D. 1 July 2024

1. A. The Police Act, 1861
2. B. The Indian Penal Code, 1860
3. C. The Indian Evidence Act, 1872
4. D. The Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973

1. A. A fine on the arrested person
2. B. Release together with monetary compensation under writ jurisdiction for violation of Articles 21 and 22(2), without prejudice to civil or criminal remedies
3. C. Only a departmental warning to the officer
4. D. Only a direction to release him; compensation can never be awarded

1. A. No; the section applies only in civil cases
2. B. Yes, the section lifts the entire burden of proof from the prosecution
3. C. Yes, but only for offences under special Acts
4. D. No; the section does not relieve the prosecution of its primary burden, and applies only to facts especially within the accused's knowledge that the prosecution cannot readily prove

1. A. When the pen drive is sealed by the investigating officer
2. B. When the original device itself is produced in court and proved by its owner or operator as primary evidence
3. C. Never; the certificate is always optional
4. D. When the video is under one minute

1. A. No, because a chargesheet is never filed against an unarrested person
2. B. Yes; arrest is a precondition to filing a chargesheet
3. C. Yes, but only for offences above seven years
4. D. No; arrest is not a mandatory precondition to filing a chargesheet or taking cognizance, and requiring it is wrong

1. A. He must acquit the accused
2. B. He can pass any sentence up to the statutory maximum of five years
3. C. His own sentencing power is limited to three years, so he may forward the case to the Chief Judicial Magistrate, who can pass the higher sentence
4. D. The case must go to the High Court

1. A. With prior permission of an officer not below Deputy Superintendent rank, hold a preliminary enquiry within fourteen days to see if a prima facie case exists, or proceed with the investigation
2. B. He may hold an enquiry of up to ninety days at his own discretion
3. C. He must wait for a Magistrate's order in every case
4. D. He may never hold a preliminary enquiry

1. A. Dishonestly receiving stolen property under BNS Section 317(2)
2. B. Simple theft under BNS Section 303(2)
3. C. Section 3 of the RP(UP) Act
4. D. Robbery of the railway cash van

1. A. Section 303(2), imprisonment of up to one month
2. B. Section 111, death penalty in every case
3. C. Section 3 of the RP(UP) Act, imprisonment of up to six months
4. D. Section 112 (petty organised crime), imprisonment of not less than one year which may extend to seven years, with fine

1. A. More than one chargesheet in the preceding ten years for cognizable offences punishable with three years or more, on which a competent court has taken cognizance
2. B. Membership of at least ten persons
3. C. A conviction in the preceding five years for a non-cognizable offence
4. D. Any one earlier FIR, even without cognizance

1. A. The investigating officer may attach it on his own authority at the spot
2. B. Attachment is impossible until the conviction is final
3. C. Only by an order of the Court or Magistrate on the application of the investigating police officer, who must show reason to believe the property is proceeds of crime
4. D. Only by the Railway Board under the RPF Act

1. A. A conviction is legally permissible, but as a rule of prudence the court requires corroboration in material particulars connecting the accused with the crime, not merely proving the crime
2. B. A conviction on an approver's uncorroborated evidence is legally barred
3. C. Corroboration of the occurrence of the crime alone is always sufficient
4. D. Corroboration is needed only where the approver is a woman

1. A. The Chief Judicial Magistrate, on the condition of full and true disclosure
2. B. The Superintendent of Police alone
3. C. Any police officer above the rank of Inspector
4. D. The Station Master of the affected station

1. A. Criminal proceedings must be automatically terminated after a fixed outer limit of time
2. B. Every case must be tried within six months of cognizance
3. C. Delay is irrelevant to Article 21
4. D. The Supreme Court and High Courts cannot fix bar-of-limitation periods for criminal trials; the earlier directions were not to be treated as mandatory, and delay is assessed case by case

1. A. The right extends to all stages (investigation, inquiry, trial, appeal, revision, retrial), there is no fixed outer time-limit, and each case turns on factors like length and reasons of delay, assertion of the right and prejudice
2. B. The right begins only after the framing of charge
3. C. Every trial must end within a fixed one year from the date of arrest
4. D. The right applies only to accused in custody

1. A. Police testimony must always be corroborated by at least two private persons
2. B. The recovery is void in every case without an independent witness
3. C. Police testimony is inadmissible in law
4. D. Absence of independent witnesses is not fatal where the public is reluctant to join; testimony of the officials is not discarded merely because they are officials and, if credible, can sustain conviction after careful scrutiny

1. A. Explain that he is not bound to confess and that it may be used as evidence against him, and record it only after being satisfied that it is voluntary
2. B. Hand him over to the police for a further day of custody to confirm the statement
3. C. Administer an oath and treat the statement as sworn testimony
4. D. Record it at once, since a confession before a Magistrate needs no safeguards

1. A. Every omission, however trivial, is a contradiction
2. B. Only when the omitted fact appears significant and relevant in the context in which the omission occurred
3. C. Only when the witness signed the earlier statement
4. D. An omission is never a contradiction

1. A. Any male under fifteen or above sixty years, any woman, and any mentally or physically disabled person
2. B. Only persons above sixty-five years
3. C. Only women
4. D. Any male under eighteen or above seventy years

1. A. Six months
2. B. Fifteen months, being one-fourth of the maximum term of imprisonment fixed for the offence
3. C. Two and a half years, being half of the maximum term
4. D. Five years, equal to the maximum term

1. A. The five months of detention during investigation, inquiry or trial of that case are set off against the sentence, leaving about seven months
2. B. The set-off applies only if the fine is also paid
3. C. Nothing; the full one year must still be served
4. D. The set-off applies only to detention in a different, earlier case

1. A. The company can be prosecuted only through a civil suit for damages
2. B. Only the directors can ever be tried; the company is wholly immune
3. C. The company cannot be prosecuted because imprisonment cannot be imposed on a juristic person
4. D. The company can be prosecuted, and where the punishment includes imprisonment the court may impose the fine on the company, since the company cannot be imprisoned

1. A. The power is wide and discretionary; courts must not read in rigid, inflexible conditions, and each application is decided on its own facts
2. B. Anticipatory bail is available only after an FIR and chargesheet have been filed
3. C. Anticipatory bail may be granted only in exceptional cases of imminent political victimisation
4. D. Anticipatory bail is barred for every offence carrying imprisonment of more than three years

1. A. Yes, it lapses after ninety days in every case
2. B. No; but it lapses automatically on the first day of trial
3. C. Yes, it automatically lapses when the chargesheet is filed
4. D. No; there is no fixed time limit, and protection can ordinarily continue till the end of the trial unless the court for special reasons limits it

1. A. Because Section 3 offences are bailable and bailable offences need no record
2. B. Because the ruling applies only to offences against women and children
3. C. Because the ruling concerns cognizable offences, whereas Section 5 makes offences under the Act non-cognizable, so the scheme of arrest, inquiry and forwarding under Sections 6 to 8 applies instead
4. D. Because the RPF is exempt from all rulings of the Supreme Court

1. A. The entire prosecution is quashed and the person can never be arrested again
2. B. Only a departmental penalty on the arresting officer follows; the custody remains valid
3. C. Nothing; Article 22(1) is satisfied if the arrest memo is signed
4. D. The arrest and consequent custody are vitiated under Article 22(1) and the person is entitled to be released, though the trial is not automatically quashed

1. A. Category C (special Acts with twin conditions): bail only if the court records that the accused is not guilty
2. B. Category D (economic offences): bail only after deposit of the value of the property
3. C. Category B (death or life imprisonment): bail only after trial begins
4. D. Category A (up to seven years and not in B or D): where the accused cooperated and was not arrested in investigation, summons should issue on the chargesheet and a bail application need not be insisted on

1. A. It has no fixed period; it depends on the nature of the article and the circumstances, and the presumption weakens as time passes, especially for articles that readily change hands
2. B. It means a fixed period of thirty days from the theft
3. C. It means recovery within twenty-four hours of the theft
4. D. It applies only if the property is found on the accused's person and not in his premises

1. A. The five golden principles (Sharad Birdhichand Sarda): circumstances fully established and forming a complete chain pointing only to guilt
2. B. Circumstantial evidence is inadmissible
3. C. Any single suspicious circumstance suffices
4. D. The accused must prove each circumstance

1. A. Yes; release is a final bar
2. B. No; release is not an acquittal and prosecution can follow on fresh evidence
3. C. Yes, for 10 years
4. D. Yes, unless the Magistrate permits

1. A. The doctrine of necessity
2. B. Rule of strict construction (lenity) of penal statutes
3. C. Rule of liberal construction against the accused
4. D. Res judicata

1. A. Granting divorce
2. B. Re-appreciating the entire evidence like a first appeal
3. C. Deciding service matters of RPF personnel
4. D. Examining the correctness, legality or propriety of any finding, sentence or order of an inferior criminal court

1. A. As proof that the gaskets are not railway property
2. B. As irrelevant for Section 3
3. C. As a ground for immediate acquittal
4. D. As strong circumstantial evidence supporting the foundational suspicion and shifting the burden to him to explain

1. A. That every official act is invalid
2. B. That official acts are fraudulent
3. C. That official acts need written orders
4. D. That judicial and official acts have been regularly performed

1. A. By the accused's confession alone
2. B. By the seizing officer's belief alone
3. C. By railway stores witnesses and records such as markings, indents and stock registers
4. D. By the arrest memo

1. A. Section 193
2. B. Section 176
3. C. Section 173
4. D. Section 180

1. A. Only a direction from the High Court
2. B. Only a police report
3. C. A complaint, a police report, information from any person other than police, or his own knowledge
4. D. Only a complaint by a private person

1. A. Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India (1978)
2. B. State of Haryana v. Bhajan Lal (1992)
3. C. Selvi v. State of Karnataka (2010)
4. D. D.K. Basu v. State of W.B. (1997)

1. A. Section 438
2. B. Section 482
3. C. Section 528
4. D. Section 415

1. A. Executive Magistrate
2. B. High Court directly
3. C. Court of Session
4. D. Supreme Court

1. A. Funding the RPF Welfare Fund
2. B. Return to the convict
3. C. Rewarding the arresting officer
4. D. Payment of compensation to a person who has suffered loss caused by the offence

1. A. Concurrently by default
2. B. Only the lighter is executed
3. C. Only the heavier is executed
4. D. Consecutively, one after the other

1. A. Ejusdem generis
2. B. The golden rule
3. C. The literal rule
4. D. The mischief rule

1. A. Penal statutes apply retrospectively
2. B. Special Acts apply only to government employees
3. C. Mens rea is an essential ingredient unless excluded expressly or by necessary implication
4. D. Mens rea is never needed in special Acts

1. A. No; only gazetted officers qualify
2. B. No; only IPS officers are public servants
3. C. Yes; he is in the service and pay of the Government and discharges public duty
4. D. No; the Force is a private security agency

1. A. Escaping arrest
2. B. Causing hurt to a person
3. C. Merely deceiving a public servant
4. D. Causing wrongful gain to one person or wrongful loss to another

1. A. He has been told so by a stranger
2. B. He wishes the thing to be true
3. C. He has sufficient cause to believe that thing, but not otherwise
4. D. He merely suspects the thing

1. A. Direct medical treatment and consider bail or appropriate custody orders with recorded reasons
2. B. Refuse to take cognizance
3. C. Order immediate unconditional acquittal
4. D. Hand him to the RPF for treatment at their discretion

716. Who is the head of the Railway Protection Force?

1. A. General Manager of the Zonal Railway
2. B. Director General, RPF
3. C. Home Secretary
4. D. Chairman, Railway Board

1. A. Inspector
2. B. Assistant Sub-Inspector
3. C. Naib Subedar
4. D. Sub-Inspector

1. A. The presumption stays unrebutted and the court may convict, though silence cannot be compelled
2. B. The case is stayed until he speaks
3. C. He is automatically acquitted
4. D. The court must draw an inference of theft

1. A. It converts the case into theft
2. B. It fails since he must prove beyond reasonable doubt
3. C. It is ignored completely
4. D. It may discharge his burden, as he need only show lawful acquisition to a preponderance of probability

1. A. Beyond reasonable doubt
2. B. Prima facie only
3. C. Mere preponderance of probabilities
4. D. No proof needed, they are presumed