RPF Head Constable Rule 72 LDCE MCQ Practice

1. A. Section 204
2. B. Section 221
3. C. Section 229
4. D. Section 61

1. A. Section 229
2. B. Section 238
3. C. Section 204
4. D. Section 217

1. A. Section 309
2. B. Section 121
3. C. Section 221
4. D. Section 331

1. A. Section 132
2. B. Section 121(1)
3. C. Section 303
4. D. Section 316

1. A. Section 238
2. B. Section 204
3. C. Section 221
4. D. Section 229

1. A. Fine only
2. B. Up to six months only
3. C. Same as the principal offender's maximum doubled
4. D. As if he had abetted the offence

1. A. Section 45
2. B. Section 3(5)
3. C. Section 238
4. D. Section 61

1. A. Section 218
2. B. Section 187
3. C. Section 514
4. D. Section 337

1. A. Yes, unless two women are present
2. B. No; the Code has no general ban on night searches, but the search must follow the prescribed procedure and be recorded
3. C. Yes, unless the Magistrate is present
4. D. Yes; all searches must be between sunrise and sunset

1. A. Yes; Section 3 focuses on the possession of those found, not on identifying the original thief
2. B. No; the case must be dropped
3. C. Yes, but only with a fine
4. D. No; the original thief must always be convicted first

1. A. The sentence he is likely to get
2. B. The identity of the complainant
3. C. Full particulars of the offence and the grounds of arrest, and bail rights if the offence is bailable
4. D. Only his name and rank

1. A. She must be searched only by a doctor
2. B. No search is permitted
3. C. Any male officer may search if two panchas are present
4. D. The search must be made by another woman with strict regard to decency

1. A. The person is a railway employee
2. B. The offence is cognizable
3. C. The offence is punishable with imprisonment of less than three years
4. D. The offence is punishable up to seven years

1. A. The colour of the truck
2. B. Whether circumstances such as concealment, route and dealings show his knowledge of the load
3. C. Whether the truck belongs to the Railways
4. D. Whether he has a driving licence

1. A. No; possession under official issue is lawful, and nothing is reasonably suspected to be stolen or unlawfully obtained
2. B. Yes; he must prove issue within 24 hours
3. C. Yes; no railway property may leave the station building
4. D. Yes, because quarters are private premises

1. A. Yes; only property above Rs 1,000 is covered
2. B. Yes; the Act applies only above a threshold value
3. C. No; value is not an ingredient, though it may influence sentence and bail
4. D. Yes; conviction fails without a valuation certificate

1. A. Section 105
2. B. Section 187
3. C. Section 482
4. D. Section 218

1. A. The statement shall not be signed by the person making it
2. B. The witness must sign every page in the presence of two panchas
3. C. Signature is mandatory for admissibility
4. D. Only an illiterate witness must sign

1. A. Within 24 hours, excluding travel time
2. B. Within 7 days
3. C. Within 48 hours
4. D. Within 15 days

1. A. Serious offence
2. B. Heinous offence
3. C. Petty offence
4. D. Not classified

1. A. Right to anticipatory bail
2. B. Power to search without warrant
3. C. Handcuffing is prima facie inhuman and unreasonable and violates Articles 14, 19 and 21 unless justified
4. D. Burden of proof in dowry cases

1. A. A first-time offender under Section 3 of the RP(UP) Act
2. B. A person who escaped from custody
3. C. A habitual offender
4. D. A person arrested for organised crime or a terrorist act

1. A. She can be freely arrested at any hour by a male constable
2. B. Only an Executive Magistrate's verbal order is required
3. C. Save in exceptional circumstances, no arrest after sunset and before sunrise; a woman officer must obtain prior written permission of the Judicial Magistrate First Class
4. D. She can never be arrested under any law

1. A. Section 480
2. B. Section 479
3. C. Section 482
4. D. Section 35

1. A. Section 341
2. B. Section 187
3. C. Section 479
4. D. Section 105

1. A. As a restriction on foreign trade only
2. B. As a restriction justified by Article 22
3. C. As a measure of preventive detention
4. D. As a reasonable restriction in the public interest under Article 19(6)

1. A. RPF registers all FIRs for murder on trains
2. B. Both are raised by the Railway Board under the Railways Act
3. C. RPF is a Union armed force under the Railway Protection Force Act, 1957; GRP is a State police force handling general crime on railways
4. D. RPF is a State force while GRP is a Union force

1. A. The sentence stands since Magistrates have unfettered discretion
2. B. The Act becomes inoperative
3. C. The accused must be re-arrested
4. D. The sentence is illegal and liable to be enhanced or set aside in appeal or revision

1. A. Section 123
2. B. Section 137
3. C. Section 141
4. D. Section 124A

1. A. 'Railway servant'
2. B. 'Passenger'
3. C. 'Railway administration'
4. D. 'Untoward incident'

1. A. Section 144
2. B. Section 147
3. C. Section 141
4. D. Section 145

1. A. Section 145
2. B. Section 143
3. C. Section 156
4. D. Section 147

1. A. Section 144
2. B. Section 146
3. C. Section 141
4. D. Section 150

1. A. Section 145
2. B. Section 143
3. C. Section 144
4. D. Section 156

1. A. Section 137
2. B. Section 143
3. C. Section 147
4. D. Section 141

1. A. Written in the statute alone, however harsh
2. B. Applicable only to citizens
3. C. Approved by a Sessions Judge
4. D. Fair, just and reasonable, not arbitrary or oppressive

1. A. To refuse the arrest memo
2. B. To have a friend, relative or other person informed of the arrest and place of detention
3. C. To be released at once on personal bond
4. D. To be tried by a Sessions Judge

1. A. Right to speedy trial
2. B. Right to anticipatory bail
3. C. Right to jury trial
4. D. Right to remain silent

1. A. Only in Sessions trials
2. B. Only at the appeal stage
3. C. From the first production before the Magistrate
4. D. Only after charges are framed

1. A. To bail within 24 hours and to compensation
2. B. To be released on bond and to trial within 60 days
3. C. To be informed of the grounds of arrest and to consult and be defended by a legal practitioner of his choice
4. D. To remain silent and to a free interpreter

1. A. He may be punished only by a fine
2. B. He cannot be convicted for an act that was not an offence when committed, nor given a penalty greater than then prescribed
3. C. He is exempt from every criminal law
4. D. He may be given any enhanced penalty since the Act is remedial

1. A. The presumption continues as railway property can never be sold
2. B. He must pay a fine equal to the item's price
3. C. The presumption stands rebutted; lawful possession is established and no offence is made out
4. D. He is convicted but gets the minimum sentence

763. Section 10 of the RP(UP) Act deals with which subject?

1. A. Penalty for owner or occupier who connives
2. B. Issue of a search warrant by a Magistrate on the application of an officer of the Force
3. C. Power of the Central Government to make rules
4. D. Repeal of the earlier Railway Stores Act

1. A. No; it belongs to the passenger, so only BNS theft applies
2. B. No; only items worth over Rs 50,000 qualify
3. C. Yes; goods entrusted to or detained by the railway administration qualify, regardless of true ownership
4. D. Yes, but only after 6 months of storage

1. A. No; contraband can never be property
2. B. Yes, but only if its value exceeds Rs 10,000
3. C. No; only items owned by the Railways are covered
4. D. Yes; goods seized or detained by a railway administration are within the definition

1. A. Yes; he may impose fine up to Rs 5,000 on the spot
2. B. Yes; he may sentence up to 3 months
3. C. Yes; only for first offenders
4. D. No; he can only release the person or forward him with a report to the Magistrate for trial

1. A. He is not liable as rent-taking is a civil matter
2. B. He is liable as an owner/occupier who connives at the offence, even without personal possession
3. C. He is liable only if he personally possessed the goods
4. D. He is liable only under the BNS, never under the Act

1. A. Mere physical proximity to the object
2. B. Possession for at least 24 hours
3. C. Ownership title of the object
4. D. Conscious possession, i.e. knowledge of the thing being possessed

1. A. A prior conviction of the accused
2. B. That the accused personally broke into the railway store
3. C. Possession of railway property and the reasonable suspicion that it was stolen or unlawfully obtained
4. D. Only that the accused is an ex-railway employee

1. A. Yes; but only for first offenders
2. B. No; the offence is not in the compoundable lists of BNSS Section 359
3. C. Yes; with payment of twice the value
4. D. Yes; the railway administration can withdraw anytime

1. A. Section 187, remand
2. B. Section 482, anticipatory bail
3. C. Section 480, bail in bailable offence
4. D. Section 58, detention limit

1. A. Court of Session only
2. B. Any Magistrate
3. C. Magistrate of the First Class
4. D. Executive Magistrate

1. A. Summons-case, as the maximum is under seven years
2. B. Sessions trial, as it affects public property
3. C. Warrant-case, as it is punishable with imprisonment exceeding two years
4. D. Summons-case, because it is a special Act

1. A. Yes; only fine-only offences are exempt
2. B. Yes; all offences are barred after three years
3. C. Yes; the bar is one year for all special Acts
4. D. No; the limitation bars apply only to offences punishable up to three years

1. A. Section 109, burden of proving a fact especially within one's knowledge
2. B. Section 22, inducement and confession
3. C. Section 61, electronic records
4. D. Section 104, burden lies on the one asserting

1. A. Only so much as relates distinctly to the fact discovered
2. B. Nothing, since custody statements are wholly barred
3. C. Only the part admitting guilt
4. D. The entire confessional statement

1. A. A certificate under Section 119 BSA
2. B. An affidavit under BNSS Section 105
3. C. A certificate under Section 63 of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023
4. D. No requirement as video is primary evidence always

1. A. Clause (e)
2. B. Clause (c)
3. C. Clause (a)
4. D. Clause (d)

1. A. Section 305
2. B. Section 317
3. C. Section 303(2)
4. D. Section 307

1. A. Section 309
2. B. Section 306
3. C. Section 331
4. D. Section 304

1. A. Section 316(5) criminal breach of trust by a public servant
2. B. Section 317(2) receiving stolen property
3. C. Section 324 mischief
4. D. Section 303(2) simple theft

1. A. Three years
2. B. Seven years
3. C. Five years
4. D. One year

1. A. BNS needs no mens rea while Section 3 needs full intent to steal
2. B. BNS requires knowledge or reason to believe the property is stolen; Section 3 rests on possession plus reasonable suspicion with the burden shifted to the accused
3. C. Both require proof of actual theft by the accused
4. D. Both are limited to property worth over Rs 5 lakh

1. A. The Railway Protection Force (Amendment) Act, 1966
2. B. The Railway Protection Force (Amendment) Act, 1985
3. C. The Railway Property (Unlawful Possession) Amendment Act, 1966
4. D. The Railways Act, 1989

1. A. State List, Entry 2
2. B. Union List, Entry 22
3. C. Union List, Entry 2A
4. D. Concurrent List, Entry 2

1. A. The case is closed after 24 hours
2. B. The FIR is transferred to the police station having jurisdiction
3. C. The informant is sent away to file afresh
4. D. The FIR is quashed automatically

1. A. Investigate and arrest without any order
2. B. Record it in the prescribed register and refer the informant to the Magistrate; no investigation without the Magistrate's order
3. C. Register an FIR and arrest the accused immediately
4. D. Ignore it as outside police duty

1. A. Section 106
2. B. Section 185
3. C. Section 173
4. D. Section 94

1. A. Keep it with himself until trial ends
2. B. Auction it within 24 hours
3. C. Return it to the suspect against a bond only
4. D. Report the seizure forthwith to the jurisdictional Magistrate

1. A. It is not automatically excluded if it is relevant and genuine, though the irregularity may affect its weight
2. B. It is inadmissible only in cases of theft
3. C. It is admissible only if the search had a Magistrate's warrant
4. D. It is always inadmissible as fruit of the poisonous tree

1. A. They cannot be forced on any person; voluntary consent with safeguards is required
2. B. They may be forced on any accused by the RPF
3. C. They are mandatory in all offences punishable above 3 years
4. D. They are valid only if a Magistrate is absent

1. A. The police investigation stage, enabling refusal of incriminating answers
2. B. It does not apply to special Acts
3. C. Only after conviction at appeal
4. D. Only the trial stage before the Magistrate

1. A. Every 48 hours during custody
2. B. Every 7 days
3. C. Every 12 hours
4. D. Only once at the time of release

1. A. Issue a notice directing the person to appear before him
2. B. Issue a bailable warrant to the person
3. C. Hand the person over to the Magistrate without inquiry
4. D. Seize all his movable property

1. A. Arnesh Kumar applies only to dowry cases and never to special Acts
2. B. Section 3 is punishable with death, so the guidelines are inapplicable
3. C. Arrest under the RP(UP) Act is prohibited altogether
4. D. Section 3 carries a maximum of five years, so arrest must be justified by recorded necessity

1. A. First 40 days of detention
2. B. First 24 hours only
3. C. First 15 days only
4. D. Any time up to 60 days

1. A. 45 days
2. B. 30 days
3. C. 90 days
4. D. 60 days

1. A. Section 47
2. B. Section 105
3. C. Section 58
4. D. Section 35

1. A. Night-time hours between 10 PM and 6 AM
2. B. Time spent in preparing the seizure memo
3. C. Time taken for journey from the place of arrest to the Magistrate's court
4. D. Time spent in medical examination only

1. A. One-half of the maximum sentence, whether or not he has a previous conviction
2. B. One-third of the maximum sentence, i.e. about twenty months for a five-year maximum, if he has never been convicted before
3. C. One-fourth of the maximum sentence, only if the railway administration agrees
4. D. The full maximum sentence, since the Act provides a minimum sentence