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2401. Which of the following correctly describes the relationship between the National Crisis Management Committee (NCMC) and the NDMA in handling a major disaster?
- A. NCMC, chaired by the Cabinet Secretary, handles high-level crisis coordination especially for non-natural/security-linked crises, while NDMA is the statutory apex body for comprehensive disaster management under the DM Act
- B. NDMA reports administratively to NCMC as a subordinate office
- C. NCMC and NDMA have identical statutory powers and are interchangeable
- D. NCMC has replaced NDMA entirely since 2010
Answer: NCMC, chaired by the Cabinet Secretary, handles high-level crisis coordination especially for non-natural/security-linked crises, while NDMA is the statutory apex body for comprehensive disaster management under the DM Act
Explanation: NCMC (Cabinet Secretary-chaired) coordinates high-level crisis management especially for security-linked or non-natural crises, while NDMA is the statutory apex disaster management body under the DM Act 2005 — they serve complementary, not identical, roles.
2402. Which of the following best describes NDRF's 'Flood Rescue' specialised equipment typically deployed during monsoon flood response?
- A. Only land-based bulldozers with no water equipment
- B. Only fire extinguishers meant for industrial fires
- C. Only seismic sensors for earthquake detection
- D. Inflatable motorised boats, life jackets, rope rescue kits, and deep-diving sets for water rescue operations
Answer: Inflatable motorised boats, life jackets, rope rescue kits, and deep-diving sets for water rescue operations
Explanation: NDRF flood rescue teams are equipped with inflatable motorised boats, life jackets, rope rescue kits, and deep-diving equipment for water-based search and rescue during floods.
2403. Under Section 37 of the DM Act 2005, every Ministry/Department of the Government of India must prepare a Disaster Management Plan setting out which of the following?
- A. Measures for prevention/mitigation, capacity building, and the roles/responsibilities of that ministry/department in responding to a disaster
- B. Only the organisational chart of the ministry with no disaster-related content
- C. Only a list of retired employees eligible for re-employment
- D. Only the ministry's annual budget allocation
Answer: Measures for prevention/mitigation, capacity building, and the roles/responsibilities of that ministry/department in responding to a disaster
Explanation: Section 37 requires every Central Ministry/Department to prepare a Disaster Management Plan outlining prevention/mitigation measures, capacity building, and its role in disaster response.
2404. Under Section 24 of the DM Act 2005, the State Executive Committee, for the purpose of disaster management, may control and manage which type of infrastructure within the state?
- A. Only privately owned telecommunication towers with compensation paid upfront
- B. Telecommunication, roads, bridges, and other infrastructure vital for response, by giving directions to concerned departments
- C. No infrastructure; the SEC has no such power
- D. Only railway stations located in the state capital
Answer: Telecommunication, roads, bridges, and other infrastructure vital for response, by giving directions to concerned departments
Explanation: Section 24 empowers the SEC to direct relevant departments/agencies to control and manage telecommunications, roads, bridges and other infrastructure necessary for disaster response within the state.
2405. Under the DM Act 2005 framework, which of the following best describes the relationship between a 'calamity of severe nature' (pre-2005 terminology) and the Act's current classification approach?
- A. Severe-nature calamities are defined exclusively in the Indian Penal Code
- B. The Act does not use rigid severity-based classification in its text; the L0-L3 severity levels are an administrative construct under the NDMP, not a statutory term
- C. The term is retained verbatim and legally binding under Section 2(d) of the Act
- D. The Act's Section 2 statutorily defines L0, L1, L2 and L3 as legal categories
Answer: The Act does not use rigid severity-based classification in its text; the L0-L3 severity levels are an administrative construct under the NDMP, not a statutory term
Explanation: The DM Act 2005's statutory text does not define L0-L3 severity levels; these are an administrative/operational classification introduced under the National Disaster Management Plan (NDMP) for response coordination, not a statutory category under Section 2.
2406. Which of the following best describes the rationale behind Indian Railways maintaining 'Accident Relief Medical Equipment (ARME)' vans distinct from full ARTs at select locations?
- A. ARME vans replace the need for any civilian hospital involvement
- B. ARME vans are purely decorative and never actually deployed
- C. ARME vans provide a lighter, faster-deployable medical-only response for accidents where heavy restoration equipment is not immediately needed
- D. ARME vans are used only for routine health checkups of staff
Answer: ARME vans provide a lighter, faster-deployable medical-only response for accidents where heavy restoration equipment is not immediately needed
Explanation: ARME (Accident Relief Medical Equipment) vans are lighter and faster to mobilise than a full ART, providing rapid medical-only response when heavy crane/restoration capability is not the immediate priority.
2407. The 1981 Bihar train disaster, in which a passenger train plunged into the Bagmati river (then Baghmati/Bagmati), is historically significant primarily because of which factor?
- A. It remains one of the deadliest rail disasters in Indian history, widely attributed to a cyclonic storm and derailment causing coaches to plunge into the river
- B. It involved a terrorist attack on railway infrastructure
- C. It led directly to the enactment of the DM Act 2005
- D. It was the first railway accident investigated by NDRF
Answer: It remains one of the deadliest rail disasters in Indian history, widely attributed to a cyclonic storm and derailment causing coaches to plunge into the river
Explanation: The June 1981 Bihar train disaster near Mansi, where a passenger train plunged into the Bagmati river during a storm, remains among the deadliest rail accidents in Indian/world history.
2408. Which of the following best describes the role of the 'Divisional Railway Manager (DRM)' as the Responsible Officer during a railway accident within their division?
- A. Overall coordination of relief and restoration operations within the division, mobilising ART/ARMV, liaison with state administration and NDRF
- B. Exclusively handling media relations and nothing else
- C. Only ceremonial attendance at the accident site with no operational role
- D. Adjudicating criminal liability of railway staff on the spot
Answer: Overall coordination of relief and restoration operations within the division, mobilising ART/ARMV, liaison with state administration and NDRF
Explanation: The DRM, as the senior-most officer in the division, is the Responsible Officer overseeing overall coordination of relief/restoration, mobilising ART/ARMV, and liaising with state administration/NDRF during an accident.
2409. Which of the following best describes why 'triage tagging' (colour-coded tags like red/yellow/green/black) is used at a mass-casualty railway accident site?
- A. To record the ticket class of each injured passenger for refund purposes
- B. To identify which passengers are liable for fines under railway rules
- C. To separate passengers by language spoken for translation purposes only
- D. To rapidly categorise casualties by medical priority so limited medical resources are allocated to save the maximum number of lives
Answer: To rapidly categorise casualties by medical priority so limited medical resources are allocated to save the maximum number of lives
Explanation: Triage tagging rapidly sorts casualties by severity/survivability (immediate, delayed, minor, deceased) so limited medical resources at a mass-casualty site save the maximum number of lives.
2410. Which of the following best describes the 'Unified Command' concept as applied under IRS when multiple jurisdictions (e.g., Railways and state police) respond to the same incident?
- A. A single agency takes over all others' legal authority permanently
- B. Each agency operates in complete isolation with no joint objective-setting
- C. Representatives of different jurisdictions jointly determine objectives, priorities and strategy while maintaining their own agency authority
- D. Unified command applies only to international disasters, never domestic ones
Answer: Representatives of different jurisdictions jointly determine objectives, priorities and strategy while maintaining their own agency authority
Explanation: Unified Command under IRS allows representatives of multiple jurisdictions/agencies with responsibility for an incident to jointly set objectives and strategy while each retains its own authority and accountability.
2411. Which of the following best describes why Indian Railways mandates periodic joint mock exercises between RPF, GRP, and civil district administration?
- A. Because RPF has no jurisdiction and exercises are purely symbolic
- B. To test and improve inter-agency coordination, communication protocols and response time ahead of an actual disaster, since real accidents require multi-agency cooperation
- C. Because the law mandates a single agency acts alone during accidents
- D. To satisfy only an annual paperwork requirement with no field testing
Answer: To test and improve inter-agency coordination, communication protocols and response time ahead of an actual disaster, since real accidents require multi-agency cooperation
Explanation: Joint mock exercises test inter-agency coordination (RPF, GRP, NDRF, district administration, medical, fire services) since real railway disasters require seamless multi-agency response.
2412. Which of the following correctly describes the purpose of a railway 'Crane Train' being dispatched separately from the ART to an accident site?
- A. To transport only food and water to stranded passengers
- B. To provide heavy lifting capacity for removing derailed coaches/wagons and restoring the track, especially when the on-board ART crane capacity is insufficient
- C. To serve purely as a passenger evacuation train
- D. To replace the need for any medical response
Answer: To provide heavy lifting capacity for removing derailed coaches/wagons and restoring the track, especially when the on-board ART crane capacity is insufficient
Explanation: A dedicated heavy Crane Train (e.g., 140-tonne crane) is dispatched when the derailment severity exceeds the ART's onboard crane capacity, to lift heavy derailed rolling stock and restore the track.
2413. Which of the following best describes the real operational distinction between a railway 'Medical Van' attached to an ART and a civilian hospital ambulance?
- A. The Medical Van can only be used for routine passenger illness, never accident response
- B. Civilian ambulances always arrive before the railway Medical Van at any accident site
- C. They are functionally and legally identical with no distinction
- D. The Medical Van is equipped for on-site mass-casualty triage and stabilisation at remote accident sites with rail access, often beyond road ambulance reach
Answer: The Medical Van is equipped for on-site mass-casualty triage and stabilisation at remote accident sites with rail access, often beyond road ambulance reach
Explanation: The railway Medical Van, part of ART, is specifically equipped for on-site mass-casualty triage and stabilisation at remote rail accident sites often inaccessible by road, complementing civilian ambulance services.
2414. The Indian Tsunami Early Warning System (ITEWS), operated by INCOIS, is capable of issuing a tsunami warning for the Indian coastline within approximately how many minutes of an undersea earthquake?
- A. Approximately 24 hours
- B. Approximately 6 to 8 hours
- C. Approximately 10 to 20 minutes
- D. Approximately 48 hours
Answer: Approximately 10 to 20 minutes
Explanation: ITEWS, operated by INCOIS (Hyderabad), can detect undersea earthquakes and issue tsunami warnings for the Indian coast within about 10-20 minutes, enabling rapid evacuation decisions.
2415. Which of the following best describes the function of 'Doppler Weather Radar (DWR)' specifically in cyclone/severe storm tracking?
- A. It replaces the need for satellite-based cyclone tracking entirely
- B. It is used exclusively for air traffic control, unrelated to disaster forecasting
- C. It measures only ground-level temperature with no wind data
- D. It detects precipitation intensity and wind velocity/direction in real time, enabling short-range nowcasting of severe weather
Answer: It detects precipitation intensity and wind velocity/direction in real time, enabling short-range nowcasting of severe weather
Explanation: DWR detects precipitation intensity, wind speed and direction in real time, critical for short-range nowcasting of cyclones, thunderstorms and severe convective weather.
2416. The India Meteorological Department's colour-coded warning system uses 'Orange' alert to signify which level of weather-related threat?
- A. Only applicable to marine/coastal warnings, not land
- B. Extreme danger requiring immediate evacuation of entire states
- C. No action needed, normal conditions
- D. Be prepared — severe weather with potential to disrupt daily life, action may be required
Answer: Be prepared — severe weather with potential to disrupt daily life, action may be required
Explanation: IMD's four-colour code: Green (no action), Yellow (watch/be aware), Orange (be prepared, severe weather likely), Red (take action, extremely severe weather).
2417. Which of the following is the nodal ministry under the NDMP for management of mine disasters?
- A. Ministry of Shipping
- B. Ministry of Railways
- C. Ministry of Civil Aviation
- D. Ministry of Coal / Ministry of Mines (as applicable, with DGMS oversight)
Answer: Ministry of Coal / Ministry of Mines (as applicable, with DGMS oversight)
Explanation: Mine disasters/accidents fall under the Ministry of Coal/Ministry of Mines, with the Directorate General of Mines Safety (DGMS) as the technical regulatory body.
2418. Under the National Disaster Management Plan, which ministry is designated as the nodal ministry for air accidents?
- A. Ministry of Road Transport and Highways
- B. Ministry of Defence
- C. Ministry of Civil Aviation
- D. Ministry of Home Affairs
Answer: Ministry of Civil Aviation
Explanation: Under the NDMP, the Ministry of Civil Aviation is the nodal ministry for management of air accidents, while Ministry of Railways handles rail accidents.
2419. Which NDRF battalion, raised from ITBP, is headquartered at Greater Noida/Ghaziabad and provides disaster response coverage to the NCR region?
- A. 2nd Battalion NDRF
- B. 8th Battalion NDRF
- C. 9th Battalion NDRF
- D. 7th Battalion NDRF
Answer: 8th Battalion NDRF
Explanation: The 8th Battalion NDRF, raised from ITBP, is based in the Greater Noida/Ghaziabad area, providing response coverage for the National Capital Region.
2420. Under Section 46 of the DM Act 2005, the National Disaster Response Fund may be supplemented by contributions from which source, in addition to the Central Government?
- A. No supplementary contribution is permitted by law
- B. Only the Reserve Bank of India's contingency reserves
- C. Only foreign governments through bilateral treaties
- D. Any person or institution, for the purpose of disaster management
Answer: Any person or institution, for the purpose of disaster management
Explanation: Section 46 allows the National Disaster Response Fund to receive contributions from any person or institution for the purpose of disaster management.
2421. Under Section 4 of the DM Act 2005, the Vice-Chairperson of the NDMA, during the absence of the Chairperson, exercises which powers?
- A. Powers limited strictly to financial sanctions below Rs 1 lakh
- B. All the powers of the Chairperson to be exercised when the Chairperson, for any reason, is unable to attend a meeting
- C. No powers; meetings are cancelled if the Chairperson is absent
- D. Only ceremonial powers with no decision-making authority
Answer: All the powers of the Chairperson to be exercised when the Chairperson, for any reason, is unable to attend a meeting
Explanation: Under Section 4, the Vice-Chairperson exercises the powers of the Chairperson when the Chairperson is unable to attend a meeting for any reason.
2422. Which of the following best describes the role of 'Mutual Aid Agreements' between neighbouring railway divisions during a major accident?
- A. They prohibit any resource from crossing divisional boundaries during emergencies
- B. They enable sharing of ART/ARMV, medical and manpower resources across divisional boundaries when the affected division's own resources are insufficient
- C. They are informal arrangements with no basis in Railway Board policy
- D. They apply only to passenger reservation sharing, not accident response
Answer: They enable sharing of ART/ARMV, medical and manpower resources across divisional boundaries when the affected division's own resources are insufficient
Explanation: Mutual aid arrangements between neighbouring divisions/zones allow rapid cross-boundary sharing of ART, ARMV, medical teams and manpower when local resources are overwhelmed.
2423. Which of the following best describes the specific function of a railway 'Accident Manual' maintained at the zonal level under Indian Railways' disaster management framework?
- A. It lays down detailed standard operating procedures, resource lists and responsibility matrices for accident response specific to that zone
- B. It replaces the need for any mock drills once published
- C. It is applicable only to level-crossing accidents
- D. It is a financial ledger recording only compensation payouts
Answer: It lays down detailed standard operating procedures, resource lists and responsibility matrices for accident response specific to that zone
Explanation: The zonal Accident Manual lays down detailed SOPs, resource inventories (ART/ARMV locations, equipment), and responsibility matrices specific to that railway zone's accident response.
2424. Which of the following best describes the real purpose of 'After Action Review (AAR)' conducted following a disaster response operation?
- A. A purely financial audit of relief expenditure
- B. A media briefing to publicise the response operation's success
- C. A structured debrief to identify lessons learnt, gaps and best practices to improve future response, independent of attributing individual blame
- D. A punitive disciplinary inquiry to assign blame to specific officers
Answer: A structured debrief to identify lessons learnt, gaps and best practices to improve future response, independent of attributing individual blame
Explanation: An After Action Review (AAR) is a structured, non-punitive debrief process to capture lessons learnt, identify gaps and good practices, feeding into improved future disaster response planning.
2425. The Central Water Commission's flood forecasting network primarily issues warnings based on which type of monitoring stations?
- A. Only rain-gauge stations operated by private agencies
- B. Only satellite-based remote sensing stations with no ground stations
- C. Level forecasting stations and inflow forecasting stations on major rivers
- D. Seismographic stations monitoring tectonic activity
Answer: Level forecasting stations and inflow forecasting stations on major rivers
Explanation: CWC's flood forecasting network comprises level forecasting stations (water level at a point) and inflow forecasting stations (predicting inflow into reservoirs) on major rivers across India.
2426. Which of the following correctly describes India's approach of 'Mission Mode' adopted for flagship disaster-resilience programmes such as earthquake-resistant construction?
- A. An approach applicable only to urban flood management
- B. An approach limited exclusively to military disaster response
- C. A purely voluntary, unfunded community initiative with no government role
- D. A time-bound, target-oriented implementation approach with defined deliverables and monitoring mechanisms across ministries
Answer: A time-bound, target-oriented implementation approach with defined deliverables and monitoring mechanisms across ministries
Explanation: 'Mission Mode' implementation refers to a time-bound, target-oriented approach with clear deliverables, dedicated resources and monitoring, used for programmes like earthquake/cyclone resilient construction.
2427. Which UN agency serves as the secretariat for the implementation, follow-up and review of the Sendai Framework for Disaster Risk Reduction?
- A. UNDRR (United Nations Office for Disaster Risk Reduction)
- B. UNEP (United Nations Environment Programme)
- C. UNDP (United Nations Development Programme)
- D. WHO (World Health Organization)
Answer: UNDRR (United Nations Office for Disaster Risk Reduction)
Explanation: UNDRR (formerly UNISDR) serves as the UN secretariat responsible for supporting implementation, follow-up and review of the Sendai Framework.
2428. The Coalition for Disaster Resilient Infrastructure (CDRI), headquartered in New Delhi, was formally launched by India's Prime Minister at which international summit in 2019?
- A. SAARC Summit, Kathmandu
- B. UN Climate Action Summit, New York
- C. G20 Summit, Osaka
- D. COP21, Paris
Answer: UN Climate Action Summit, New York
Explanation: CDRI was launched by the Prime Minister of India at the UN Climate Action Summit in New York in September 2019.
2429. The Hyogo Framework for Action was adopted at the World Conference on Disaster Reduction held in which city?
- A. Sendai, Japan
- B. Yokohama, Japan
- C. Kobe, Japan
- D. Geneva, Switzerland
Answer: Kobe, Japan
Explanation: The Hyogo Framework for Action (2005-2015) was adopted at the World Conference on Disaster Reduction held in Kobe (Hyogo prefecture), Japan, in January 2005.
2430. Which of the Sendai Framework's seven global targets specifically relates to reducing direct economic loss in relation to global gross domestic product (GDP) by 2030?
- A. Target G
- B. Target C
- C. Target E
- D. Target A
Answer: Target C
Explanation: Target C of the Sendai Framework's seven global targets is to reduce direct disaster economic loss in relation to global GDP by 2030.
2431. The Sendai Framework's Priority 3 for Action specifically emphasises which of the following?
- A. Enhancing disaster preparedness for effective response and to 'Build Back Better'
- B. Investing in disaster risk reduction for resilience
- C. Strengthening disaster risk governance to manage disaster risk
- D. Understanding disaster risk
Answer: Investing in disaster risk reduction for resilience
Explanation: Sendai Framework's four Priorities for Action are: (1) Understanding disaster risk, (2) Strengthening disaster risk governance, (3) Investing in DRR for resilience, (4) Enhancing preparedness for effective response and Build Back Better. Priority 3 is investing in DRR for resilience.
2432. Which of the following best describes the role of a 'Transit Camp' in disaster response logistics, as distinguished from a 'Staging Area'?
- A. A Transit Camp is exclusively for storing relief material, with no role for displaced persons
- B. A Staging Area is a permanent facility established years before any disaster occurs
- C. Both terms are interchangeable and refer to the same facility
- D. A Transit Camp provides temporary shelter and amenities to evacuated/displaced persons en route to relief camps, while a Staging Area temporarily holds resources and personnel awaiting assignment
Answer: A Transit Camp provides temporary shelter and amenities to evacuated/displaced persons en route to relief camps, while a Staging Area temporarily holds resources and personnel awaiting assignment
Explanation: A Transit Camp houses evacuated/displaced persons temporarily en route to relief camps, whereas a Staging Area is a location where response resources/personnel are held pending tactical assignment.
2433. Under the Incident Response System used in India, who among the following is designated to activate the Incident Response Teams (IRTs) at the state level?
- A. The Responsible Officer (RO), typically the Relief Commissioner or equivalent at state level
- B. The Union Home Secretary
- C. The local Member of Parliament
- D. The NDRF Director General
Answer: The Responsible Officer (RO), typically the Relief Commissioner or equivalent at state level
Explanation: Under IRS, the Responsible Officer (RO) at state/district level, typically the Relief Commissioner or District Magistrate, activates the Incident Response Teams.
2434. Under the Incident Response System's organisational hierarchy, which of the following correctly represents the reporting structure of the 'General Staff'?
- A. General Staff report to the Responsible Officer, bypassing the Incident Commander
- B. Operations, Planning, Logistics, and Finance/Administration Section Chiefs report directly to the Incident Commander
- C. Only the Operations Section Chief reports to the Incident Commander
- D. All section chiefs report to the Safety Officer
Answer: Operations, Planning, Logistics, and Finance/Administration Section Chiefs report directly to the Incident Commander
Explanation: In IRS, the General Staff comprises the four Section Chiefs (Operations, Planning, Logistics, Finance/Administration), all reporting directly to the Incident Commander.
2435. Under the Incident Response System, which functionary is responsible for incident safety and has authority to stop or prevent unsafe acts during response operations?
- A. Safety Officer
- B. Finance Section Chief
- C. Information and Media Officer
- D. Liaison Officer
Answer: Safety Officer
Explanation: The Safety Officer in IRS is responsible for monitoring incident operations and has the authority to stop or prevent unsafe acts, reporting directly to the Incident Commander.
2436. Under the Incident Response System, the 'Documentation Unit' functions under which Section of the Incident Command?
- A. Logistics Section
- B. Operations Section
- C. Finance and Administration Section
- D. Planning Section
Answer: Planning Section
Explanation: Under IRS, the Documentation Unit, responsible for maintaining accurate incident records, operates under the Planning Section headed by the Planning Section Chief.
2437. The National Disaster Response Force's specialised training academy for disaster response skills is located at which place?
- A. NDRF Academy, Hyderabad
- B. NDRF Academy, Bhopal
- C. NDRF Academy, Chennai
- D. NDRF Academy, Nagpur
Answer: NDRF Academy, Nagpur
Explanation: The NDRF Academy, located at Nagpur, Maharashtra, is the premier training institution for NDRF personnel including CBRN and collapsed structure search and rescue training.
2438. Which NDRF battalion, raised from the CRPF, is headquartered at Pune and is responsible for disaster response coverage in Maharashtra and Goa?
- A. 12th Battalion NDRF
- B. 5th Battalion NDRF
- C. 1st Battalion NDRF
- D. 3rd Battalion NDRF
Answer: 5th Battalion NDRF
Explanation: The 5th Battalion NDRF, raised from CRPF, is headquartered at Pune, covering Maharashtra and Goa for disaster response.
2439. Under Section 34 of the DM Act 2005, powers and functions of the DDMA include which of the following during a threatening disaster situation?
- A. Declare financial emergency in the district
- B. Dissolve the local municipal body
- C. Suspend the operation of all central laws in the district
- D. Give directions for the release and use of resources available with any department of the Government and the district
Answer: Give directions for the release and use of resources available with any department of the Government and the district
Explanation: Section 34 empowers DDMA, inter alia, to give directions for release and use of resources available with any department of Government and the district administration during a threatening disaster situation.
2440. Under Section 23 of the DM Act 2005, every State Government is required to prepare which document, to be reviewed and updated annually?
- A. The State Industrial Safety Code
- B. The State Police Manual
- C. The State Budget for relief operations
- D. The State Disaster Management Plan
Answer: The State Disaster Management Plan
Explanation: Section 23 mandates preparation of the State Disaster Management Plan by the State Executive Committee, to be reviewed and updated annually.
2441. Under Section 11 of the DM Act 2005, the National Plan prepared for disaster management must include measures for which of the following?
- A. Prevention and mitigation of disasters, integration of mitigation measures into development plans, and capacity building
- B. Only allocation of relief funds to states
- C. Only training of NDRF personnel
- D. Only coordination with foreign governments
Answer: Prevention and mitigation of disasters, integration of mitigation measures into development plans, and capacity building
Explanation: Section 11 requires the National Plan to include measures for prevention/mitigation of disasters, integration of mitigation measures into development plans, capacity building, preparedness, and response.
2442. Which of the following best describes why 'redundancy' in communication systems (having multiple independent channels like radio, satellite phone, and landline) is a core principle in railway disaster response planning?
- A. It ensures that if one communication channel fails or is overloaded during a disaster, alternate channels keep the response coordination functioning
- B. It exists purely to satisfy an international trade requirement unrelated to disasters
- C. It is a cost-cutting measure that reduces the total number of communication devices used
- D. It is designed to intentionally slow down communication during emergencies
Answer: It ensures that if one communication channel fails or is overloaded during a disaster, alternate channels keep the response coordination functioning
Explanation: Disasters often damage or overload single points of communication failure (e.g., cell towers); maintaining redundant channels (radio networks, satellite phones, landlines) ensures that command-and-control coordination between RPF, Railways, NDRF and civil administration does not collapse if one channel goes down.
2443. Which of the following best describes the purpose of 'Post-Disaster Needs Assessment (PDNA)', a methodology India has used following major disasters?
- A. To systematically estimate the damage, loss and recovery needs across sectors to guide a comprehensive reconstruction/recovery strategy and resource mobilisation
- B. To replace the need for any disaster insurance scheme
- C. To determine criminal culpability for a disaster
- D. To calculate only the number of tourists who cancelled bookings
Answer: To systematically estimate the damage, loss and recovery needs across sectors to guide a comprehensive reconstruction/recovery strategy and resource mobilisation
Explanation: PDNA is a structured, multi-sectoral methodology (covering housing, infrastructure, livelihoods, etc.) used to estimate disaster damage and loss and to identify recovery needs, guiding evidence-based reconstruction planning and resource allocation after a major disaster.
2444. Which of the following correctly reflects the real distinction between 'hazard mapping' and 'vulnerability assessment' as two separate but related components of disaster risk analysis?
- A. Hazard mapping identifies areas prone to a specific hazard (e.g., flood-prone zones), while vulnerability assessment evaluates how exposed populations/infrastructure would be affected by that hazard
- B. Hazard mapping deals only with railway timetables
- C. Vulnerability assessment deals only with criminal law enforcement
- D. Both terms are entirely interchangeable with no distinction whatsoever
Answer: Hazard mapping identifies areas prone to a specific hazard (e.g., flood-prone zones), while vulnerability assessment evaluates how exposed populations/infrastructure would be affected by that hazard
Explanation: Hazard mapping identifies the geographic spread/intensity of a specific hazard, while vulnerability assessment separately analyses the susceptibility of exposed people, structures (e.g., old railway bridges) and systems to that hazard — together these combine to estimate overall disaster risk.
2445. Which of the following best describes the real purpose of conducting a 'tabletop exercise' as distinguished from a 'full-scale mock drill' in disaster preparedness training?
- A. A financial audit of the disaster management budget
- B. A discussion-based simulation where participants talk through roles/responsibilities and decision-making for a hypothetical scenario, without physical deployment of resources
- C. An exercise that requires actual evacuation of a live, populated station with real casualties
- D. A purely physical fitness test for NDRF recruits
Answer: A discussion-based simulation where participants talk through roles/responsibilities and decision-making for a hypothetical scenario, without physical deployment of resources
Explanation: A tabletop exercise is a low-cost, discussion-based simulation where key stakeholders walk through their roles and coordination for a hypothetical disaster scenario without physically deploying resources, complementing (and often preceding) a resource-intensive full-scale mock drill that involves physical simulation.
2446. Which of the following best describes the role played by Indian Railways' 'Integrated Emergency Response Management System (IERMS)'/helpline mechanisms such as the '139' helpline in disaster response?
- A. It functions only as a job recruitment portal for Railways
- B. It is used exclusively for booking railway catering orders
- C. It enables passengers and the public to promptly report emergencies/accidents and seek assistance, accelerating the alerting and initial response process
- D. It is a system reserved solely for internal railway board meetings
Answer: It enables passengers and the public to promptly report emergencies/accidents and seek assistance, accelerating the alerting and initial response process
Explanation: The Railways' '139' helpline and integrated emergency response systems allow passengers/public to quickly report accidents, security threats or medical emergencies, enabling faster alerting of RPF/GRP/medical teams — a vital early-warning and response-triggering link in the disaster management chain.
2447. Which of the following best describes why RPF's Quick Response Teams (QRTs) at railway stations are trained in basic first-aid and evacuation drills, in addition to their security duties?
- A. Because first-aid training is unrelated to RPF's actual duties and done only for ceremonial purposes
- B. Because RPF is legally required to replace all doctors in railway hospitals
- C. Because QRTs are solely responsible for issuing train tickets during emergencies
- D. Because RPF personnel are typically the first uniformed responders present at a station-area emergency, before specialised medical/NDRF teams can arrive
Answer: Because RPF personnel are typically the first uniformed responders present at a station-area emergency, before specialised medical/NDRF teams can arrive
Explanation: Given their constant presence at stations, RPF QRTs are often the first responders to an on-site emergency (fire, stampede, accident); basic first-aid/evacuation training allows them to stabilise the situation and assist victims in the critical minutes before specialised medical or NDRF teams arrive.
2448. Which of the following best captures why 'Disaster Risk Financing' instruments like catastrophe bonds/insurance pools are increasingly promoted in India's disaster management strategy?
- A. They are illegal mechanisms banned under the DM Act 2005
- B. They apply exclusively to railway employee pension schemes
- C. They provide pre-arranged, rapid financial resources for post-disaster response/recovery instead of relying solely on slower ad-hoc budgetary reallocation
- D. They are designed to completely replace the NDRF and SDRF funds
Answer: They provide pre-arranged, rapid financial resources for post-disaster response/recovery instead of relying solely on slower ad-hoc budgetary reallocation
Explanation: Disaster Risk Financing instruments (insurance pools, catastrophe bonds, contingency funds) ensure quick, pre-arranged liquidity is available immediately after a disaster strikes, avoiding delays inherent in ad-hoc post-disaster budget reallocation, and complement (not replace) statutory funds like NDRF/SDRF.
2449. Which of the following best describes the significance of 'Rule Curve' based operation in the context of dam-related flood disaster mitigation?
- A. It is unrelated to water management and instead governs mining permits
- B. It is a legal rule governing railway ticket refunds
- C. It is a rule that bans all dam construction in India
- D. It prescribes pre-determined reservoir water level limits through the year to balance flood-cushioning storage capacity with irrigation/power needs, reducing flood risk if followed properly
Answer: It prescribes pre-determined reservoir water level limits through the year to balance flood-cushioning storage capacity with irrigation/power needs, reducing flood risk if followed properly
Explanation: A Rule Curve defines the ideal reservoir water level for each time of year, ensuring sufficient flood-cushioning capacity is maintained during monsoon while meeting irrigation/power generation needs; failure to adhere to Rule Curves has been cited as a contributing factor in floods like the 2018 Kerala floods.
2450. Which of the following correctly describes the function of 'Kavach' (Train Collision Avoidance System) in reducing railway disaster risk?
- A. It is a weather forecasting satellite unrelated to train operations
- B. It is a device used exclusively to issue tickets electronically
- C. It automatically applies brakes to prevent a train from passing a red signal or colliding with another train on the same track, reducing human-error-driven collisions
- D. It is a crowd-management mobile application for stations
Answer: It automatically applies brakes to prevent a train from passing a red signal or colliding with another train on the same track, reducing human-error-driven collisions
Explanation: Kavach is an indigenously developed Automatic Train Protection (ATP) system that applies automatic brakes if the driver fails to control the train speed as per signalling, preventing signal-passing-at-danger (SPAD) incidents and head-on/rear-end collisions — a key technological mitigation measure for railway disaster prevention.
2451. Which of the following best describes the real limitation of relying solely on 'manual' track patrolling as a railway disaster-prevention measure during monsoon in landslide/flood-prone sections?
- A. Manual patrolling is entirely unnecessary and has been fully banned by the Railway Board
- B. Manual patrolling is cheaper than all technology-based alternatives and hence always preferred
- C. Manual patrollers only work during daylight hours by law and never at night
- D. Manual patrolling depends on human visibility/speed and may not detect sudden track washouts or instantaneous landslide-triggered damage in time, necessitating supplementary technology-based monitoring
Answer: Manual patrolling depends on human visibility/speed and may not detect sudden track washouts or instantaneous landslide-triggered damage in time, necessitating supplementary technology-based monitoring
Explanation: Manual patrolling, while a long-standing monsoon-season safety measure in vulnerable sections, is limited by human reaction time and coverage, which is why Railways increasingly supplements it with rainfall sensors, track-circuit monitoring and other technology-based early-warning tools for washouts/landslides.
2452. Which of the following correctly describes the primary role of the Crisis Management Group (CMG) at the central government level in disaster response?
- A. A group that only handles international diplomatic negotiations
- B. A private-sector lobby group with no government role
- C. A judicial body that tries disaster-related criminal cases
- D. An inter-ministerial group, chaired by a senior official, that reviews preparedness and coordinates central response measures for specific hazards like cyclones each season
Answer: An inter-ministerial group, chaired by a senior official, that reviews preparedness and coordinates central response measures for specific hazards like cyclones each season
Explanation: The Crisis Management Group, typically chaired by a senior nodal ministry official (e.g., under MHA for cyclones), coordinates inter-ministerial preparedness reviews and central assistance measures ahead of/during specific seasonal hazards, complementing the statutory NDMA/NEC machinery.
2453. Which of the following accurately distinguishes the National Crisis Management Committee (NCMC) from the National Disaster Management Authority (NDMA) in terms of their legal basis?
- A. NDMA is a statutory body created under the DM Act 2005, while NCMC is an executive/administrative mechanism under the Cabinet Secretariat not created by that Act
- B. Neither body has any legal or administrative basis in India
- C. NCMC is a statutory body under the DM Act while NDMA is purely administrative
- D. Both are identical bodies with the same legal status and the same Chairperson
Answer: NDMA is a statutory body created under the DM Act 2005, while NCMC is an executive/administrative mechanism under the Cabinet Secretariat not created by that Act
Explanation: NDMA derives its existence and powers directly from Section 3 of the DM Act 2005 (a statutory body), while the NCMC, chaired by the Cabinet Secretary, is an executive coordination mechanism pre-dating the Act, dealing with crises having serious/national ramifications, operating alongside but distinct from the statutory DM Act framework.
2454. Which of the following best describes the purpose of maintaining a 'control chart'/accident register system at Railway Divisional Control Offices for disaster response?
- A. To track catering contract renewals
- B. To maintain historical ticketing revenue data unrelated to safety
- C. To provide real-time tracking of train movements and rapidly identify, locate and respond to an accident as soon as it is reported
- D. To record employee leave applications only
Answer: To provide real-time tracking of train movements and rapidly identify, locate and respond to an accident as soon as it is reported
Explanation: The Divisional Control Office maintains real-time control charts tracking every train's position/movement across the division, which is critical for immediately recognising an accident/unusual stoppage and triggering ART/ARMV dispatch without delay.
2455. Which of the following best describes the concept of the 'Golden Hour' as applied in mass-casualty disaster medical response?
- A. A mandatory one-hour delay before any rescue operation can legally begin
- B. A period reserved exclusively for administrative paperwork
- C. The hour during which media is barred from reporting on a disaster
- D. The critical initial period after a traumatic injury during which prompt medical treatment significantly improves chances of survival
Answer: The critical initial period after a traumatic injury during which prompt medical treatment significantly improves chances of survival
Explanation: The 'Golden Hour' refers to the critical window immediately following severe trauma (common in rail/road accidents) during which timely medical intervention dramatically increases survival chances, underscoring why rapid ART/ARMV/NDRF/ambulance response is prioritised.
2456. Which of the following correctly explains why 'cutting and lifting equipment' (gas cutters, hydraulic jacks, spreaders) is standard equipment carried by both NDRF teams and Railway ART crews responding to a derailment?
- A. Such equipment is essential to cut through twisted metal and lift heavy wreckage to free trapped/injured passengers quickly, directly affecting survival rates
- B. It is used only for ceremonial purposes during inaugurations
- C. It is required solely for routine track-laying work unrelated to accidents
- D. It is used exclusively to repaint damaged coaches
Answer: Such equipment is essential to cut through twisted metal and lift heavy wreckage to free trapped/injured passengers quickly, directly affecting survival rates
Explanation: In derailments, victims are often trapped under twisted metal/compressed coach structures; hydraulic cutters, jacks and spreaders enable rapid extraction within the critical 'golden hour', directly improving survival chances — hence both NDRF and Railway ART crews standardise this equipment.
2457. In the context of railway accident relief operations, what is the function of a 'Breakdown Crane' carried as part of an ART's composition?
- A. To conduct aerial surveillance of the accident site
- B. To issue replacement train tickets on the spot
- C. To lift and remove derailed/overturned coaches and wagons from the track to clear the line and extract trapped victims
- D. To provide drinking water to passengers
Answer: To lift and remove derailed/overturned coaches and wagons from the track to clear the line and extract trapped victims
Explanation: A Breakdown Crane, part of the ART, is a heavy lifting machine used to lift/move derailed or overturned coaches and wagons, both to extract trapped passengers and to clear the track for restoration of traffic.
2458. In the context of railway disaster response, what is the primary function of a 'Tower Wagon' dispatched to an accident/derailment site?
- A. To transport injured passengers to hospitals
- B. To conduct criminal investigation at the site
- C. To provide catering services to rescue workers
- D. To carry out overhead electrical traction wire repair/restoration work at the accident site
Answer: To carry out overhead electrical traction wire repair/restoration work at the accident site
Explanation: A Tower Wagon is a specialised railway vehicle equipped with an elevated platform used by the Overhead Equipment (OHE)/electrical department to repair damaged overhead traction wires, essential for restoring electrified rail lines after an accident.
2459. Which of the following best explains the rationale for Indian Railways maintaining a 'Self-Propelled Accident Relief Train (SPART)' at select major stations?
- A. It is used exclusively for carrying tourists on scenic routes
- B. It can move to an accident site faster than a conventional ART that needs a separate locomotive to be attached, reducing response time
- C. It is primarily a freight-carrying unit unrelated to accidents
- D. It replaces the need for any medical response at an accident site
Answer: It can move to an accident site faster than a conventional ART that needs a separate locomotive to be attached, reducing response time
Explanation: A Self-Propelled Accident Relief Train (SPART) has its own power car, allowing it to depart immediately without waiting for a locomotive to be coupled, significantly cutting the critical response/reach time compared to a conventional ART.
2460. Which of the following best describes why NDRF personnel, though a specialised disaster response force, generally operate without magisterial/police powers of arrest at a disaster site?
- A. NDRF has no legal recognition under any Indian law
- B. NDRF's statutory mandate under the DM Act is focused on specialised rescue/relief operations, not law-and-order or criminal investigation, which remains with the state police/GRP
- C. NDRF personnel are forbidden from entering any disaster site
- D. NDRF is purely a private contractor-based organisation
Answer: NDRF's statutory mandate under the DM Act is focused on specialised rescue/relief operations, not law-and-order or criminal investigation, which remains with the state police/GRP
Explanation: NDRF, constituted under Sections 44-45 of the DM Act 2005, is specifically mandated for specialist disaster response (search, rescue, immediate relief), while law-and-order functions, criminal investigation and arrest powers in railway accidents remain with GRP/state police as per the Railways Act and Cr.P.C./BNSS framework.
2461. The November 2016 Indore-Patna Express derailment near Pukhrayan, Kanpur Dehat, is significant in disaster response studies primarily because of which factor?
- A. It was caused exclusively by a cyclone
- B. It occurred entirely outside Indian territory
- C. It was one of independent India's deadliest derailments, prompting a major review of track maintenance protocols and rapid local-community/NDRF rescue mobilisation
- D. It involved zero casualties and served only as a successful mock drill
Answer: It was one of independent India's deadliest derailments, prompting a major review of track maintenance protocols and rapid local-community/NDRF rescue mobilisation
Explanation: The Pukhrayan derailment killed over 150 people, making it one of the deadliest rail accidents in India in recent decades; it triggered rapid mobilisation of local villagers, RPF, NDRF and medical teams, and prompted scrutiny of track fracture/maintenance issues as a probable cause.
2462. The 2023 Balasore (Odisha) triple train collision involving the Coromandel Express is widely cited in disaster management studies primarily to illustrate which issue?
- A. The complete absence of any railway safety protocols in India
- B. The critical importance of signalling system integrity/interlocking failures and the need for rapid, multi-agency mass-casualty response coordination
- C. The irrelevance of NDRF in railway disaster response
- D. The success of a fully automated disaster response with no human involvement
Answer: The critical importance of signalling system integrity/interlocking failures and the need for rapid, multi-agency mass-casualty response coordination
Explanation: The Balasore triple-train collision (June 2023), one of India's deadliest rail disasters in recent decades, highlighted signalling/interlocking failure as a root cause and triggered a massive multi-agency response involving Railways, RPF, NDRF, SDRF, Odisha state machinery and the Army, underscoring the need for coordinated mass-casualty management.
2463. Which of the following accurately describes the India Meteorological Department's (IMD) colour-coded warning system used for cyclones and heavy rainfall?
- A. A system using only black and white flags at ports
- B. A system exclusively used for railway signalling, unrelated to weather
- C. A four-colour code (Green, Yellow, Orange, Red) indicating increasing levels of severity and the need for action
- D. A numeric-only system from 1 to 100 with no colour association
Answer: A four-colour code (Green, Yellow, Orange, Red) indicating increasing levels of severity and the need for action
Explanation: IMD uses a four-colour warning code — Green (no warning), Yellow (watch/be aware), Orange (be prepared), and Red (take action) — to communicate escalating severity of weather events like cyclones and heavy rainfall to disaster managers and the public.
2464. Which of the following best describes the purpose of NDRF's forward-deployment of teams to vulnerable areas ahead of a forecast cyclone, a practice often reported in media coverage?
- A. Collecting taxes from coastal businesses
- B. Conducting tourism promotion in coastal areas
- C. Pre-positioning trained responders and equipment close to the likely impact zone to minimise response time once the disaster strikes
- D. Replacing the local police force permanently
Answer: Pre-positioning trained responders and equipment close to the likely impact zone to minimise response time once the disaster strikes
Explanation: Based on IMD's cyclone early warnings, NDRF pre-positions teams with rescue equipment in likely landfall districts before the cyclone strikes, drastically cutting response time for search, rescue and relief once the disaster occurs — a core preparedness strategy.
2465. Under Section 62 of the DM Act 2005, the Central Government's power to give directions extends to which of the following bodies?
- A. Only private citizens with no official role
- B. Any State Government or authority to facilitate or secure compliance with the Act's provisions
- C. Only the United Nations
- D. Only foreign embassies in India
Answer: Any State Government or authority to facilitate or secure compliance with the Act's provisions
Explanation: Section 62 empowers the Central Government to give directions to any State Government or any authority or body under the Central Government to facilitate or secure compliance with the provisions of the DM Act 2005.
2466. Under Section 25 of the DM Act 2005, the District Disaster Management Authority consists of the Chairperson and how many other members as prescribed, including the Co-Chairperson?
- A. Exactly fifteen other members
- B. Exactly fifty other members
- C. No other members besides the Chairperson
- D. Not more than seven other members
Answer: Not more than seven other members
Explanation: Section 25 provides that the DDMA consists of the Chairperson (District Magistrate/Collector/Deputy Commissioner), the Co-Chairperson (elected representative of local authority), and not more than seven other members as may be prescribed.
2467. Under Section 18 of the DM Act 2005, which of the following is a specific function assigned to the State Disaster Management Authority?
- A. To issue currency notes for the state
- B. To conduct Lok Sabha elections in the state
- C. To lay down the state disaster management policy
- D. To appoint High Court judges
Answer: To lay down the state disaster management policy
Explanation: Section 18 lists the SDMA's functions, foremost among them being to lay down the state disaster management policy, approve the State Plan, and coordinate implementation of the National Policy and National Plan.
2468. Under Section 14 of the DM Act 2005, which provision governs the constitution of the State Disaster Management Authority regarding the number of members other than the Chairperson?
- A. Only two members as fixed permanently by Parliament
- B. Not exceeding eight members, as the State Government may notify, with the Chief Minister as Chairperson
- C. No limit on the number of members
- D. Exactly twenty members fixed by the Act itself
Answer: Not exceeding eight members, as the State Government may notify, with the Chief Minister as Chairperson
Explanation: Section 14 provides that the SDMA consists of the Chief Minister as Chairperson and not more than eight other members as the State Government may notify, including the Vice-Chairperson.
2469. Which of the following best explains why 'Satellite Phones' are maintained as part of disaster preparedness equipment at vulnerable railway locations and NDRF units?
- A. They are required only for international calls
- B. They provide reliable communication even when terrestrial mobile/landline networks are damaged or overloaded during a disaster
- C. They replace the need for any other communication equipment entirely
- D. They are cheaper than regular mobile phones
Answer: They provide reliable communication even when terrestrial mobile/landline networks are damaged or overloaded during a disaster
Explanation: Satellite phones bypass terrestrial cellular/landline infrastructure which is frequently damaged or congested in disaster-hit areas, ensuring a critical communication lifeline for coordinating response when conventional networks fail — a key redundancy principle in disaster communication planning.
2470. Which of the following best describes the primary purpose of a 'Disaster Management Cell' maintained at the Divisional level in Indian Railways?
- A. To sell railway tickets during peak season
- B. To maintain updated disaster management plans, coordinate resources (ART/ARMV), and serve as the nodal point for accident/disaster response within the division
- C. To manage only the catering services of the division
- D. To handle only routine track maintenance schedules unrelated to accidents
Answer: To maintain updated disaster management plans, coordinate resources (ART/ARMV), and serve as the nodal point for accident/disaster response within the division
Explanation: The Divisional Disaster Management Cell maintains the division's disaster management plan, tracks availability/readiness of ART and ARMV resources, conducts mock drills, and acts as the coordination point when an accident occurs within the division's jurisdiction.
2471. Which of the following best describes the role of the 'Railway Board' (apex body of Indian Railways) in a nationally significant railway disaster?
- A. Issuing train tickets directly to affected passengers
- B. Conducting local search and rescue operations itself with its own field teams
- C. Overall policy direction, resource mobilisation across zones, and liaison with the Ministry of Railways and Central Government agencies
- D. Replacing the role of NDMA in all railway disasters
Answer: Overall policy direction, resource mobilisation across zones, and liaison with the Ministry of Railways and Central Government agencies
Explanation: The Railway Board provides overarching policy direction, mobilises resources (ARTs, ARMVs, personnel) across zones for major disasters, and liaises with the Ministry of Railways, NDMA and other central agencies, while actual on-ground response is led by zonal/divisional railway officials and RPF.
2472. In Indian Railways' zonal disaster management structure, who typically holds overall responsibility for disaster management coordination within a Railway Zone?
- A. Chairman of the Railway Board exclusively for every zone
- B. Union Minister of Railways directly
- C. District Magistrate of the zone headquarters city only
- D. General Manager of the Zonal Railway
Answer: General Manager of the Zonal Railway
Explanation: Within each Zonal Railway, the General Manager holds overall administrative and operational responsibility, including oversight of the zone's disaster management/accident response framework, while coordinating with civil administration and Railway Board for larger disasters.
2473. Under IRS, if an incident expands and requires activity beyond the capacity of one Incident Commander, which organisational mechanism is used to manage multiple sites or sectors?
- A. Division of the incident into Branches/Divisions/Groups under Deputy Incident Commanders or Branch Directors
- B. Random reassignment of responders with no hierarchy
- C. Transfer of all authority to the central government without any local structure
- D. Immediate termination of the response operation
Answer: Division of the incident into Branches/Divisions/Groups under Deputy Incident Commanders or Branch Directors
Explanation: IRS's modular, scalable design allows the incident organisation to expand by creating Branches, Divisions (geographic) and Groups (functional) under Deputy Incident Commanders, maintaining manageable span of control even for a large, multi-site disaster.
2474. Under the Incident Response System (IRS), the 'Liaison Officer' is a member of which group reporting directly to the Incident Commander?
- A. Command Staff
- B. General Staff - Logistics Section
- C. General Staff - Planning Section
- D. General Staff - Operations Section
Answer: Command Staff
Explanation: Under IRS, the Command Staff consists of the Incident Commander along with the Information and Media Officer, Liaison Officer, and Safety Officer, all reporting directly to the Incident Commander, distinct from the four General Staff Sections (Operations, Planning, Logistics, Finance/Admin).
2475. Under the Incident Response System (IRS), which officer is responsible for handling queries from and interactions with the media and the public during a disaster response?
- A. Transportation Unit Leader
- B. Finance Section Chief
- C. Staging Area Manager
- D. Information and Media Officer
Answer: Information and Media Officer
Explanation: Under IRS, the Information and Media Officer (one of the Command Staff reporting to the Incident Commander/Responsible Officer) is specifically tasked with managing media interactions and public information dissemination during the incident response.
2476. Which of the following is the correct description of the 'Crisis Management Plan (CMP)' that every Ministry/Department of the Government of India is required to prepare?
- A. A one-time plan that never requires updates
- B. A plan exclusively for managing stock market crashes
- C. A sector-specific plan detailing the roles, responsibilities and action points of that Ministry/Department for managing disasters/crises relevant to its domain
- D. A plan only applicable to the Ministry of Defence
Answer: A sector-specific plan detailing the roles, responsibilities and action points of that Ministry/Department for managing disasters/crises relevant to its domain
Explanation: As per Section 37 and related NDMP guidance, every Ministry/Department (including the Ministry of Railways) prepares a Crisis Management Plan/Disaster Management Plan detailing sector-specific hazards, response roles, resources and coordination mechanisms, to be periodically reviewed and updated.
2477. Under the NDMP, which ministry is the nodal ministry for management of drought disasters in India?
- A. Ministry of Mines
- B. Ministry of Defence
- C. Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare
- D. Ministry of Shipping
Answer: Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare
Explanation: The Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare is the designated nodal ministry for drought management under the NDMP, given drought's direct impact on agriculture and crop production.
2478. Under the NDMP, which ministry is designated as the nodal ministry for management of Urban Flood disasters, distinct from riverine floods?
- A. Ministry of External Affairs
- B. Ministry of Railways
- C. Ministry of Textiles
- D. Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs
Answer: Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs
Explanation: As per the National Disaster Management Plan, the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs is the nodal ministry for urban flooding, given its linkage to urban drainage infrastructure and municipal planning, distinct from the Ministry of Jal Shakti's role for riverine floods.
2479. Which of the following best describes the role of the Geological Survey of India (GSI) in India's disaster management framework?
- A. Nodal agency for landslide hazard zonation, monitoring and susceptibility mapping
- B. Nodal agency for urban flood management
- C. Nodal agency for chemical disaster response
- D. Nodal agency for cyclone early warning
Answer: Nodal agency for landslide hazard zonation, monitoring and susceptibility mapping
Explanation: The Geological Survey of India is the nodal agency for landslide hazard zonation mapping and monitoring, particularly in the Himalayan region and Western Ghats, supporting NDMA's landslide risk reduction efforts.
2480. The Central Water Commission (CWC) plays the role of the nodal agency for which specific disaster-related function in India?
- A. Cyclone track prediction over the Arabian Sea
- B. Air quality monitoring during industrial disasters
- C. Earthquake magnitude measurement
- D. Flood forecasting on major interstate rivers
Answer: Flood forecasting on major interstate rivers
Explanation: The Central Water Commission, under the Ministry of Jal Shakti, operates the flood forecasting network on major rivers across India, issuing flood forecasts at key gauge stations to support disaster preparedness and response.
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