RPF Head Constable Rule 72 LDCE MCQ Practice

1. A. 552
2. B. 238
3. C. 245
4. D. 250

1. A. Nitrogen
2. B. Oxygen
3. C. Hydrogen
4. D. Carbon dioxide

1. A. Parliament
2. B. Election Commission
3. C. Supreme Court
4. D. High Court

1. A. Sarojini Naidu
2. B. Annie Besant
3. C. Nellie Sengupta
4. D. Vijaya Lakshmi Pandit

1. A. Ahmedabad
2. B. Coimbatore
3. C. Kanpur
4. D. Surat

1. A. It did not include any Indian member
2. B. It supported the Rowlatt Act
3. C. It recommended abolishing provincial legislatures
4. D. It proposed partition of India

1. A. Gall bladder
2. B. Spleen
3. C. Duodenum
4. D. Pancreas

1. A. 67%
2. B. 50%
3. C. 90%
4. D. 75%

1. A. Indus Valley civilization - Indus river valley
2. B. Egyptian civilization - Nile river valley
3. C. Mesopotamian civilization - Nile river valley
4. D. Chinese civilization - Huang He river valley

1. A. Siraj-ud-Daulah and French forces
2. B. Tipu Sultan and Nizam of Hyderabad
3. C. Mir Qasim, Shuja-ud-Daula, and Shah Alam II
4. D. Peshwa Baji Rao and Marathas

1. A. Tenth Schedule
2. B. Sixth Schedule
3. C. Fifth Schedule
4. D. Ninth Schedule

1. A. Originate from glaciers
2. B. Flow through rift valleys into the Arabian Sea
3. C. Flow into the Bay of Bengal
4. D. Form large deltas

1. A. Surendranath Banerjee
2. B. Dadabhai Naoroji
3. C. W.C. Bonnerjee
4. D. Pherozeshah Mehta

1. A. Andhra Pradesh
2. B. West Bengal
3. C. Odisha
4. D. Tamil Nadu

1. A. Uniform Civil Code for citizens
2. B. Right to freedom of speech
3. C. Organisation of village panchayats
4. D. Promotion of international peace

1. A. Dadabhai Naoroji
2. B. Madan Mohan Malaviya
3. C. Gopal Krishna Gokhale
4. D. Rash Behari Ghosh

1. A. Gandak
2. B. Son
3. C. Kosi
4. D. Ghaghara

1. A. Liberty and Equality
2. B. Republic and Democratic
3. C. Socialist, Secular, and Integrity
4. D. Sovereign and Justice

2339. Which Governor-General is associated with the Doctrine of Lapse?

1. A. Lord Curzon
2. B. Lord Dalhousie
3. C. Lord Ripon
4. D. Lord Canning

2340. The pH of human blood is normally maintained within which range?

1. A. 6.0 to 6.5
2. B. 6.5 to 6.9
3. C. 8.0 to 8.5
4. D. 7.35 to 7.45

2341. Which Indian state has the longest coastline?

1. A. Gujarat
2. B. Maharashtra
3. C. Tamil Nadu
4. D. Andhra Pradesh

1. A. William Bentinck
2. B. Lord Wellesley
3. C. Lord Cornwallis
4. D. Warren Hastings

1. A. Right to Constitutional Remedies (Article 32)
2. B. Right against Exploitation (Article 23)
3. C. Right to Freedom (Article 19)
4. D. Right to Equality (Article 14)

1. A. Seven
2. B. Five
3. C. Six
4. D. Four

1. A. Akbar
2. B. Jahangir
3. C. Humayun
4. D. Babur

1. A. Madhya Pradesh
2. B. Gujarat
3. C. Punjab
4. D. West Bengal

1. A. Punjab
2. B. Gujarat
3. C. Haryana
4. D. Rajasthan

1. A. Article 352
2. B. Article 356
3. C. Article 213
4. D. Article 123

1. A. Hyogo Framework for Action
2. B. International Strategy for Disaster Reduction (2000)
3. C. International Decade for Natural Disaster Reduction (1990–1999)
4. D. Millennium Development Goals

1. A. Home Guards (Amendment) Act, 2005
2. B. Civil Defence (Amendment) Act, 1990
3. C. Disaster Management (Amendment) Act, 2025
4. D. Civil Defence (Amendment) Act, 2009

1. A. 25 million hectares
2. B. 68 million hectares
3. C. 12 million hectares
4. D. 40 million hectares

1. A. Extremely Severe Cyclonic Storm
2. B. Severe Cyclonic Storm
3. C. Very Severe Cyclonic Storm
4. D. Super Cyclonic Storm

1. A. 3.5°C
2. B. 2.5°C
3. C. 6.5°C
4. D. 4.5°C

1. A. 10 countries; 120 names
2. B. 13 countries; 169 names
3. C. 13 countries; 130 names
4. D. 8 countries; 64 names

1. A. It is given by NIDM every five years
2. B. It is announced on 23 January; an institution gets ₹51 lakh and an individual gets ₹5 lakh
3. C. It is announced on 19 January; an institution gets ₹25 lakh
4. D. It is announced on 13 October; only individuals are eligible

1. A. Cell Broadcast Standard; BSNL
2. B. Common Alerting Protocol (CAP); National Informatics Centre
3. C. Global Positioning System; ISRO
4. D. Common Alerting Protocol (CAP); Centre for Development of Telematics (C-DOT)

1. A. ₹10 lakh
2. B. ₹5 lakh
3. C. ₹4 lakh
4. D. ₹8 lakh

1. A. Ministry of Civil Aviation, to keep it independent of the Railway Board it oversees
2. B. Ministry of Home Affairs, because it is the nodal disaster ministry
3. C. Ministry of Law and Justice, because inquiries are quasi-judicial
4. D. Ministry of Railways, because accidents are an operational matter

1. A. Section 114
2. B. Section 124
3. C. Section 145
4. D. Section 113

1. A. Logistics Section
2. B. Operations Section
3. C. Planning Section
4. D. Command Staff

1. A. Transportation Branch
2. B. Finance Branch
3. C. Communication Branch
4. D. Medical Branch

1. A. With the Command Staff under the Liaison Officer
2. B. Within the Planning Section as a unit
3. C. As the Finance Branch within the Logistics Section
4. D. As a separate Finance/Administration Section reporting to the Incident Commander

1. A. Ministry of Rural Development
2. B. Ministry of Agriculture
3. C. Ministry of Environment and Forests
4. D. Cabinet Secretariat

1. A. N. Vinod Chandra Menon
2. B. K.M. Singh
3. C. M. Shashidhar Reddy
4. D. J.C. Pant

1. A. Japan (2019)
2. B. Brazil (2024)
3. C. India (2023)
4. D. Indonesia (2022)

1. A. G20 Leaders' Summit, New Delhi, 2023
2. B. UN Climate Action Summit, New York, 2019
3. C. Third UN World Conference on DRR, Sendai, 2015
4. D. Asian Ministerial Conference on DRR, New Delhi, November 2016

1. A. 2022
2. B. 2025
3. C. 2030
4. D. 2020

1. A. 25
2. B. 38
3. C. 17
4. D. 45

1. A. Turkey and Syria
2. B. Indonesia
3. C. Afghanistan and Pakistan
4. D. Nepal

1. A. Inter-Ministerial Central Team (IMCT) assessment → Inter-Ministerial Group chaired by Union Home Secretary → High Level Committee chaired by Union Home Minister
2. B. NDMA assessment → NEC approval → Finance Ministry release
3. C. Cabinet Secretary's NCMC review → Prime Minister's approval
4. D. IMCT assessment → Finance Commission → Parliament

1. A. ₹2 lakh
2. B. ₹5 lakh
3. C. ₹4 lakh
4. D. ₹1.5 lakh

1. A. Lightning
2. B. Frost and cold wave
3. C. Pest attack
4. D. Cloudburst

1. A. 50%
2. B. 5%
3. C. 25%
4. D. 10%

1. A. 20%
2. B. 10%
3. C. 30%
4. D. 40%

1. A. 80 : 20
2. B. 70 : 30
3. C. 90 : 10
4. D. 75 : 25

2376. Section 67 of the DM Act 2005 concerns which of the following?

1. A. Directions to audio or audio-visual media to carry warnings or advisories about a threatening disaster situation
2. B. Penalty for false warnings
3. C. Prohibition of discrimination in relief
4. D. Requisition of vehicles and premises for rescue operations

1. A. State standards shall in no case be less than the minimum standards in the NDMA guidelines
2. B. State standards apply only to notified disasters
3. C. State standards may not exceed those fixed by the NDMA
4. D. State standards must be approved by the Finance Commission

1. A. One year
2. B. Two years
3. C. Three years
4. D. Five years

1. A. Ex post facto ratification by the National Authority
2. B. Concurrence of the National Executive Committee within 24 hours
3. C. Prior written approval of the Union Home Minister
4. D. Approval of both Houses of Parliament

1. A. The Chairperson of the Zila Parishad of the adjoining district
2. B. The Chief Executive Member of the District Council of the autonomous district
3. C. The Member of Parliament representing the district
4. D. The Superintendent of Police of the district

1. A. Not exceeding nine
2. B. Not exceeding ten
3. C. Not exceeding seven
4. D. Not exceeding eight

1. A. Act No. 53 of 2005; 23 December 2005
2. B. Act No. 35 of 2005; 23 June 2005
3. C. Act No. 63 of 2005; 30 November 2005
4. D. Act No. 53 of 2005; 26 December 2005

1. A. Non-structural measures are illegal under the DM Act 2005
2. B. Structural measures apply only to signalling software, never physical infrastructure
3. C. Structural measures involve physical/engineering interventions (bridge strengthening, retrofitting), while non-structural measures involve policies, training, early-warning systems and regulations
4. D. Both terms refer to identical engineering-only interventions

1. A. To serve only as an archive with no real-time functionality whatsoever
2. B. To replace the statutory National Plan under the DM Act entirely
3. C. To restrict disaster information exclusively to classified military use
4. D. To consolidate real-time and historical disaster data, resource inventories and response status for informed decision-making across all levels of government

1. A. It is used exclusively to test the strength of railway bridges, not rails
2. B. It measures only the ambient temperature of the rail track
3. C. It detects internal rail fractures/defects not visible to the naked eye, enabling preventive replacement before a rail failure causes derailment
4. D. It replaces the need for any manual track patrolling entirely

1. A. It only sends alerts after a collision has already happened
2. B. It automatically applies brakes to prevent a collision/overspeeding before it occurs, stopping the disaster event itself rather than managing its aftermath
3. C. It is used solely for post-accident relief coordination
4. D. It functions only as a passenger information display system

1. A. The inquiry found a signalling circuit alteration/error that misdirected a train onto a loop line with a stationary goods train, highlighting signalling-system integrity as critical to rail safety
2. B. The inquiry concluded Kavach (TCAS) was active on that section and failed to prevent collision
3. C. The inquiry found no technical cause and attributed it purely to passenger misconduct
4. D. The inquiry attributed the collision entirely to flooding of the track

1. A. A deliberate act of railway staff sabotage confirmed by the inquiry
2. B. A mid-air collision with another train on a different line
3. C. A flash flood sweeping away the track bed
4. D. A suspected rail fracture leading to derailment, prompting a wider review of track maintenance and ultrasonic rail-testing protocols

1. A. It was caused entirely by a terrorist bomb planted on the track
2. B. It was caused by a collision with a herd of elephants crossing the track
3. C. The inquiry attributed the derailment primarily to a fractured rail (track defect), not a direct natural disaster trigger
4. D. It occurred due to a cyclone-driven bridge washout

1. A. To comply with a requirement that applies only to food items, not medicines
2. B. To maximise storage costs by never replacing any item
3. C. To ensure stockpiled medicines/supplies are rotated and replaced before expiry, so they remain effective and safe when actually needed during an emergency
4. D. To ensure only outdated supplies are used first regardless of safety

1. A. GRP has been abolished and all powers now rest exclusively with RPF
2. B. RPF has no legal powers whatsoever and acts purely as a security guard force
3. C. RPF's primary statutory mandate under the Railways Act 1989 and RPF Act 1957 focuses on railway property protection and specific railway offences, while general law-and-order/IPC-BNS crime investigation remains with state police (GRP) under the CrPC/BNSS framework
4. D. RPF's powers exceed GRP's in every respect including murder investigation

1. A. Only the Election Commission of India
2. B. Only the Reserve Bank of India
3. C. National Disaster Management Authority (NDMA), in coordination with telecom operators and broadcasters
4. D. Only the Ministry of Railways

1. A. Because the triggering cause (flood) is natural/hydro-meteorological, while the resulting event (bridge/train collapse) is an accident requiring a distinct infrastructure-failure response track
2. B. Because Indian law requires every disaster to be classified under exactly two categories without exception
3. C. Because the Railway Board insists all incidents be dual-classified for insurance purposes only
4. D. Because NDMA's classification system has no single-category option for any event

1. A. The Relief Commissioner coordinates relief operations at the state level under SEC direction, while the District Magistrate exercises statutory DDMA powers specifically within their own district
2. B. The District Magistrate's DDMA role applies nationally, not just in their district
3. C. The Relief Commissioner has no role once the DM Act 2005 came into force
4. D. Both hold identical statutory powers at all levels, state and district alike

1. A. A social media platform exclusively for disaster victims to share personal stories
2. B. A database restricted solely to NDRF's own internal personnel records
3. C. A payment gateway for disbursing relief funds to individuals
4. D. A web-based inventory of equipment, skilled human resources and critical supplies available with various agencies/departments, searchable for rapid resource mobilisation during a disaster

1. A. Because NDRF cannot be transported by air once a disaster occurs
2. B. To replace the need for any state-level SDRF
3. C. To drastically reduce response time by having trained teams and equipment already close to likely disaster-affected areas before an event occurs
4. D. To permanently relocate NDRF headquarters to coastal states

1. A. A structured multi-sectoral assessment of damage, loss and recovery needs, often used to inform reconstruction financing and international assistance requests
2. B. An assessment conducted only for railway accidents, not natural disasters
3. C. A one-day visual inspection report with no sectoral breakdown
4. D. A purely military exercise unrelated to civilian recovery planning

1. A. They are government bonds with no connection to disaster risk whatsoever
2. B. They guarantee full recovery of all private property losses automatically
3. C. They are issued exclusively to foreign governments, never domestic investors
4. D. They transfer specific catastrophic risk to capital market investors, who forgo principal/interest if a pre-defined disaster event occurs, providing rapid post-disaster liquidity

1. A. To comply with an international treaty requiring triplicate equipment
2. B. To provide entertainment options for stranded passengers only
3. C. To ensure command-and-control communication continues even if one channel (e.g., mobile towers) fails or is overloaded during the disaster
4. D. To increase the telecom department's revenue through multiple billing

1. A. Both terms refer to exactly the same technical process with no distinction
2. B. Hazard mapping is conducted only after a disaster occurs, never before
3. C. Hazard mapping identifies where and how severely landslides may occur, while vulnerability assessment evaluates the railway's exposure, susceptibility and capacity to withstand that hazard
4. D. Vulnerability assessment is concerned solely with financial insurance premiums