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81. The inaugural Women's Premier League (WPL) title in March 2023 was won by:
- A. UP Warriorz
- B. Royal Challengers Bangalore
- C. Mumbai Indians
- D. Delhi Capitals
Answer: Mumbai Indians
Explanation: Mumbai Indians, led by Harmanpreet Kaur, beat Delhi Capitals in the final at the Brabourne Stadium.
82. Who was named India's Test captain in May 2025, after Rohit Sharma's retirement from Tests, for the England tour?
- A. Rishabh Pant
- B. K. L. Rahul
- C. Shubman Gill
- D. Jasprit Bumrah
Answer: Shubman Gill
Explanation: Shubman Gill became the 37th Indian Test captain on the announcement of 24 May 2025.
83. Section 7 of the Railway Property (Unlawful Possession) Act, 1966 deals with:
- A. Inquiry by an officer of the Force
- B. Penalty for possession
- C. Disposal of persons arrested
- D. Power to summon
Answer: Disposal of persons arrested
Explanation: Section 7 deals with the disposal of persons arrested under the Act, while Section 3 is the penalty, Section 8 the inquiry and Section 9 the power to summon.
84. Under Section 8 of the Railway Property (Unlawful Possession) Act, 1966, the inquiry into the offence is conducted by:
- A. A member of the Railway Claims Tribunal
- B. A Revenue Officer
- C. An officer of the Force
- D. The Railway Board Chairman
Answer: An officer of the Force
Explanation: Section 8 provides for inquiry by an officer of the Force; Section 9 gives the power to summon persons during the inquiry.
85. Which section of the Railway Protection Force Act, 1957 empowers a superior officer or member of the Force to arrest without warrant a person concerned in an offence relating to railway property?
- A. Section 3
- B. Section 21
- C. Section 12
- D. Section 15
Answer: Section 12
Explanation: Section 12 is the power of arrest without warrant, while Section 15 deems members of the Force always on duty.
86. Section 4 of the Railway Property (Unlawful Possession) Act, 1966 provides for punishment of:
- A. A passenger travelling without ticket
- B. A person who pulls the alarm chain without cause
- C. An owner or occupier of land or building who connives at or abets the offence
- D. A railway servant who delays a train
Answer: An owner or occupier of land or building who connives at or abets the offence
Explanation: Section 4 punishes the owner or occupier of land or building who connives at or abets the offence of unlawful possession of railway property.
87. On a second or subsequent conviction under Section 3 of the Railway Property (Unlawful Possession) Act, 1966, absent special reasons, the minimum imprisonment is:
- A. Three years
- B. Two years
- C. Six months
- D. One year
Answer: Two years
Explanation: For a subsequent conviction under Section 3 the minimum is two years, compared with one year for a first offence; the maximum is five years.
88. Section 10 of the Railway Property (Unlawful Possession) Act, 1966 makes it obligatory for certain officers to:
- A. Grant bail in all offences under the Act
- B. Frame rules for the Force
- C. Try offences under the Act summarily
- D. Assist the officers and members of the Force in discharging their duties under the Act
Answer: Assist the officers and members of the Force in discharging their duties under the Act
Explanation: Section 10 requires specified officers to assist the Force; Section 9 is the power to summon and Section 8 is the inquiry by an officer of the Force.
89. What is the maximum imprisonment under Section 154 of the Railways Act, 1989 for endangering the safety of persons travelling by railway through a rash or negligent act?
- A. Five years
- B. One year
- C. Three years
- D. Six months
Answer: One year
Explanation: Section 154 provides imprisonment up to one year, or fine, or both, for a rash or negligent act; the wilful version in Section 153 carries up to five years.
90. The Disaster Management Act, 2005 has how many sections, arranged in how many chapters?
- A. 45 sections in 6 chapters
- B. 60 sections in 8 chapters
- C. 100 sections in 12 chapters
- D. 79 sections in 11 chapters
Answer: 79 sections in 11 chapters
Explanation: The DM Act, 2005 has 11 chapters and 79 sections.
91. Who chaired the National Disaster Management Authority when it was formally constituted by notification on 27 September 2006?
- A. Railway Minister Lalu Prasad Yadav
- B. Prime Minister Dr Manmohan Singh
- C. Cabinet Secretary of India
- D. Union Home Minister Shivraj Patil
Answer: Prime Minister Dr Manmohan Singh
Explanation: Under Section 3 of the DM Act the Prime Minister is the ex-officio Chairperson of the NDMA; Dr Manmohan Singh was Prime Minister when it was notified in September 2006.
92. In disaster risk reduction terminology (UNDRR), 'capacity' in relation to disaster management is best understood as:
- A. The number of railway stations in a zone
- B. Only the physical strength of NDRF personnel
- C. The combination of resources, means and strengths available to reduce risk or effectively respond to a disaster
- D. The budget allocated to a single ministry
Answer: The combination of resources, means and strengths available to reduce risk or effectively respond to a disaster
Explanation: Capacity refers to the combination of all strengths, attributes and resources available to reduce risks and manage disasters effectively.
93. General superintendence, direction and control of the National Disaster Response Force (NDRF) vest in which body under the DM Act, 2005?
- A. Ministry of Home Affairs directly without NDMA
- B. National Disaster Management Authority
- C. Ministry of Railways
- D. Ministry of Defence
Answer: National Disaster Management Authority
Explanation: Under Section 45 of the DM Act, general superintendence, direction and control of the NDRF vest in the NDMA, while command and supervision vest in a Director-General appointed by the Central Government.
94. The 'One Nation One Subscription' scheme approved in November 2024 provides access to international research journals for students and researchers through which portal?
- A. DigiLocker
- B. SWAYAM
- C. DIKSHA
- D. A unified national portal run by INFLIBNET
Answer: A unified national portal run by INFLIBNET
Explanation: ONOS, with an outlay of about Rs 6,000 crore over 2025-27, gives access to about 13,000 journals from 30 international publishers in around 6,300 institutions, via a unified portal operated by INFLIBNET.
95. The Great Nicobar Island development project, estimated at about Rs 72,000 crore, includes an international container transshipment terminal at:
- A. Neil Island
- B. Campbell Bay
- C. Kamorta
- D. Galathea Bay
Answer: Galathea Bay
Explanation: The project also envisages a greenfield airport, township and a power plant; it has drawn ecological and tribal-rights concerns over Shompen and Nicobarese land.
96. The main event of the International Day of Yoga 2025, led by PM Modi on 21 June, was held at:
- A. Srinagar
- B. Dehradun
- C. Mysuru
- D. Visakhapatnam, Andhra Pradesh
Answer: Visakhapatnam, Andhra Pradesh
Explanation: More than three lakh people joined the Visakhapatnam event themed 'Yoga for One Earth, One Health'; the 2024 event was in Srinagar.
97. Which Union Minister announced the establishment of 'Bharat Taxi', a cooperative ride-hailing service, in 2025?
- A. Nitin Gadkari
- B. Amit Shah (Minister of Cooperation)
- C. Ashwini Vaishnaw
- D. Piyush Goyal
Answer: Amit Shah (Minister of Cooperation)
Explanation: Amit Shah announced Sahkar Taxi Cooperative Ltd, a driver-owned cooperative platform, in the Lok Sabha in March 2025.
98. Under the plan approved in September 2024, the first module (BAS-1) of the Bharatiya Antariksh Station is targeted for launch by:
- A. 2035
- B. 2032
- C. 2028
- D. 2025
Answer: 2028
Explanation: The Cabinet approved development of BAS-1 with extra funding for Gaganyaan; the full station is envisaged by 2035.
99. In the 2024 Lok Sabha election, the Samajwadi Party emerged as the third-largest party winning how many seats?
- A. 37
- B. 41
- C. 22
- D. 29
Answer: 37
Explanation: SP won 37 seats, mainly in Uttar Pradesh, after BJP (240) and Congress (99).
100. The 2024 Lok Sabha election's seven phases were completed on:
- A. 4 June 2024
- B. 30 May 2024
- C. 1 June 2024
- D. 25 May 2024
Answer: 1 June 2024
Explanation: Polling ran from 19 April to 1 June 2024, with counting on 4 June.
101. The Indus Waters Treaty, held in abeyance by India in April 2025, was signed in Karachi in 1960 with which institution as a signatory/mediator?
- A. Asian Development Bank
- B. United Nations
- C. International Monetary Fund
- D. World Bank
Answer: World Bank
Explanation: Nehru and Ayub Khan signed it with the World Bank as a signatory; it allocates the three eastern rivers (Ravi, Beas, Sutlej) to India.
102. The Visakhapatnam-class stealth guided missile destroyer INS Imphal was commissioned in December 2023. It is named after the capital of:
- A. Nagaland
- B. Mizoram
- C. Meghalaya
- D. Manipur
Answer: Manipur
Explanation: INS Imphal is the third ship of Project 15B, the first major warship named after a North-Eastern city.
103. The ceremony of Lok Sabha 2024 Speaker election on 26 June 2024 was a contest between Om Birla and which opposition candidate?
- A. Supriya Sule
- B. K. Suresh
- C. Manish Tewari
- D. Shashi Tharoor
Answer: K. Suresh
Explanation: Om Birla won by voice vote against Congress's Kodikunnil Suresh, the first Speaker election by contest since 1976.
104. The Unified Pension Scheme assures pension of what percentage of the average basic pay of the last 12 months after 25 years of service?
- A. 40%
- B. 50%
- C. 75%
- D. 60%
Answer: 50%
Explanation: UPS assures 50% of the average basic pay of the last 12 months, with a minimum Rs 10,000 per month after 10 years of service, effective 1 April 2025.
105. Budget 2023-24 announced the Mahila Samman Savings Certificate with a fixed interest rate of 7.5% for a tenure of:
- A. Five years
- B. Three years
- C. Two years
- D. One year
Answer: Two years
Explanation: The one-time scheme (April 2023-March 2025) allowed deposits up to Rs 2 lakh for two years with partial withdrawal.
106. The Jal Jeevan Mission, extended in Budget 2025-26, was given a new end date of:
- A. 2028
- B. 2027
- C. 2026
- D. 2030
Answer: 2028
Explanation: The Budget extended Jal Jeevan Mission to 2028 with enhanced total outlay, focusing on quality of service and community participation.
107. Budget 2025-26 announced a Makhana Board for which state?
- A. West Bengal
- B. Bihar
- C. Odisha
- D. Assam
Answer: Bihar
Explanation: The Makhana Board was announced for Bihar to improve production, processing, value addition and marketing of fox nuts.
108. Kavach version 4.0, approved by RDSO in July 2024, is India's indigenous:
- A. Level-crossing alarm system
- B. Passenger reservation system
- C. Wagon tracking system
- D. Automatic train protection system
Answer: Automatic train protection system
Explanation: Kavach 4.0 is an indigenous ATP system that prevents signal passing at danger and train collisions; it was approved for deployment on high-density routes.
109. Who was the first woman appointed as Chairperson and CEO of the Railway Board, assuming office on 1 January 2024?
- A. Jaya Verma Sinha
- B. Anil Kumar Lahoti
- C. Sunita Sharma
- D. Anjali Goyal
Answer: Jaya Verma Sinha
Explanation: Jaya Verma Sinha of the Indian Railway Traffic Service took charge on 1 January 2024 and retired on 31 August 2024.
110. PM Modi launched the Amrit Bharat Express, the first of which ran between Ayodhya and which city on 30 December 2023?
- A. Howrah
- B. Mumbai CSMT
- C. Chennai Central
- D. Anand Vihar Terminal, Delhi (from Darbhanga)
Answer: Anand Vihar Terminal, Delhi (from Darbhanga)
Explanation: On 30 December 2023 two Amrit Bharat Express trains were flagged off: Darbhanga-Anand Vihar Terminal and Malda Town-SMVT Bengaluru.
111. The Bharat 6G Vision document was unveiled by the PM in March 2023. It targets 6G rollout by:
- A. 2025
- B. 2035
- C. 2040
- D. 2030
Answer: 2030
Explanation: The vision aims for India to be a design, develop and deployment leader in 6G, targeting rollout by 2030.
112. The India Semiconductor Mission (ISM) was approved in December 2021 with an outlay of:
- A. Rs 50,000 crore
- B. Rs 76,000 crore
- C. Rs 10,000 crore
- D. Rs 1 lakh crore
Answer: Rs 76,000 crore
Explanation: The programme for development of the semiconductor and display ecosystem carries an outlay of Rs 76,000 crore.
113. Micron Technology's ATMP (assembly, test, marking and packaging) facility, approved in June 2023, is located at:
- A. Hyderabad
- B. Sanand, Gujarat
- C. Bengaluru
- D. Dholera, Gujarat
Answer: Sanand, Gujarat
Explanation: Micron's USD 2.75 billion unit at Sanand was the first ISM-approved project; the Centre supports 50% of project cost.
114. The Tata Electronics-PSMC semiconductor fabrication facility, approved in February 2024, is being set up at:
- A. Noida, Uttar Pradesh
- B. Sanand, Gujarat
- C. Dholera, Gujarat
- D. Jagiroad, Assam
Answer: Dholera, Gujarat
Explanation: The roughly Rs 91,000 crore fab in Dholera Special Investment Region is India's first commercial semiconductor fab, in partnership with Taiwan's PSMC.
115. UPI payments were launched in France in February 2024 at which landmark?
- A. Arc de Triomphe
- B. Louvre Museum
- C. Notre-Dame
- D. Eiffel Tower
Answer: Eiffel Tower
Explanation: NPCI International and France's Lyra signed the pact; UPI payments began at the Eiffel Tower on 2 February 2024.
116. The 'Sanchar Saathi' portal launched in May 2023 allows citizens to:
- A. File income tax returns
- B. Book railway tickets
- C. Block lost/stolen mobile phones and check connections in their name
- D. Verify Aadhaar-linked bank accounts
Answer: Block lost/stolen mobile phones and check connections in their name
Explanation: Sanchar Saathi, built on the Central Equipment Identity Register (CEIR), lets users block stolen phones and view mobile connections registered in their name.
117. Core loading of India's Prototype Fast Breeder Reactor (PFBR) began in March 2024 at:
- A. Kota
- B. Kaiga
- C. Narora
- D. Kalpakkam
Answer: Kalpakkam
Explanation: PM Modi witnessed the start of core loading of the 500 MWe PFBR at Kalpakkam, developed by BHAVINI, marking the start of India's second stage of nuclear programme.
118. India's first indigenous 700 MWe pressurised heavy water reactor, whose Unit 3 began commercial operations in 2023, is at:
- A. Kakrapar, Gujarat
- B. Kudankulam, Tamil Nadu
- C. Kaiga, Karnataka
- D. Tarapur, Maharashtra
Answer: Kakrapar, Gujarat
Explanation: Kakrapar Atomic Power Project Unit 3 (KAPP-3) began commercial operation in June 2023; KAPP-4 and RAPP-7 followed.
119. The Employment Linked Incentive scheme approved in July 2025, with an outlay of about Rs 99,446 crore, is named:
- A. Pradhan Mantri Viksit Bharat Rozgar Yojana
- B. PM Rozgar Protsahan Yojana
- C. Atmanirbhar Bharat Rozgar Yojana
- D. Skill India Rozgar Mission
Answer: Pradhan Mantri Viksit Bharat Rozgar Yojana
Explanation: The scheme, effective 1 August 2025, gives first-time EPFO-registered employees up to Rs 15,000 in two instalments and incentivises employers.
120. The Pradhan Mantri Garib Kalyan Anna Yojana (free foodgrain) was extended for five years from 1 January 2024 to benefit about:
- A. 50 crore
- B. 81.35 crore
- C. 95 crore
- D. 60 crore
Answer: 81.35 crore
Explanation: The Cabinet approved free foodgrains to 81.35 crore beneficiaries for five years, with an estimated outlay of Rs 11.8 lakh crore.
121. In October 2023, the subsidy for PM Ujjwala Yojana LPG consumers was raised to how much per 14.2 kg cylinder?
- A. Rs 250
- B. Rs 400
- C. Rs 300
- D. Rs 200
Answer: Rs 300
Explanation: The subsidy was increased from Rs 200 to Rs 300 per cylinder in October 2023, after an August 2023 reduction of Rs 200 for all households.
122. Which of these sports was NOT added to the LA 2028 Olympic programme, approved at the 141st IOC Session?
- A. Flag football
- B. Lacrosse (sixes)
- C. Squash
- D. Chess
Answer: Chess
Explanation: Cricket (T20), baseball/softball, flag football, lacrosse and squash were added; chess was not.
123. Which Indian city hosted the 141st IOC Session in October 2023, the first in India since 1983?
- A. Bengaluru
- B. Mumbai
- C. Delhi
- D. Ahmedabad
Answer: Mumbai
Explanation: The IOC Session in Mumbai (14-15 October 2023) voted to add cricket (T20) and four other sports to the LA 2028 Olympics.
124. Khelo Bharat Niti 2025 reaffirms India's aspiration to host the Olympic Games of which year?
- A. 2032
- B. 2040
- C. 2044
- D. 2036
Answer: 2036
Explanation: India has expressed interest in hosting the 2036 Summer Olympics, with Ahmedabad as the frontrunner city; PM Modi voiced the aspiration at the 141st IOC Session in Mumbai in October 2023.
125. The National Sports Governance Act, 2025 provides for establishment of the:
- A. National Sports Board and National Sports Tribunal
- B. Sports Authority of India Commission
- C. National Doping Court
- D. Olympic Council of India
Answer: National Sports Board and National Sports Tribunal
Explanation: The Act, passed in August 2025, set up a National Sports Board to regulate federations and a National Sports Tribunal to settle disputes.
126. The National Sports Policy 2025 (Khelo Bharat Niti) was approved by the Cabinet on 1 July 2025, replacing the policy of:
- A. 1984
- B. 2011
- C. 2001
- D. 1991
Answer: 2001
Explanation: Khelo Bharat Niti 2025 replaced the National Sports Policy 2001, aiming at India hosting the 2036 Olympics.
127. Under the PM Vishwakarma scheme, how many traditional trades are covered?
- A. 24
- B. 12
- C. 30
- D. 18
Answer: 18
Explanation: The scheme covers 18 trades including carpenters, blacksmiths, potters, cobblers and barbers, offering collateral-free loans at 5% interest.
128. The 'Lakhpati Didi' initiative announced in August 2023 aimed to enable how many rural women SHG members to earn Rs 1 lakh annually?
- A. 50 lakh
- B. 2 crore (raised to 3 crore in 2024)
- C. 5 crore
- D. 1 crore
Answer: 2 crore (raised to 3 crore in 2024)
Explanation: The target of 2 crore Lakhpati Didis announced on 15 August 2023 was raised to 3 crore in June 2024.
129. Cheetahs from which country were translocated to India's Kuno National Park in February 2023?
- A. Tanzania
- B. Kenya
- C. South Africa
- D. Botswana
Answer: South Africa
Explanation: Twelve cheetahs from South Africa arrived on 18 February 2023, after 8 from Namibia in September 2022.
130. The 2022 All-India Tiger Estimation, released in 2023, put the minimum tiger count in India at about:
- A. 2,967
- B. 3,167
- C. 3,682
- D. 4,200
Answer: 3,167
Explanation: The 5th cycle reported a minimum of 3,167 tigers, with an average estimate of 3,682 and a range of 3,167-3,925.
131. The Ramsar COP15 in July 2025, which adopted resolutions on wetlands, was hosted at:
- A. Victoria Falls, Zimbabwe
- B. Punta del Este, Uruguay
- C. Geneva, Switzerland
- D. Wuhan, China
Answer: Victoria Falls, Zimbabwe
Explanation: COP15 of the Ramsar Convention met in Victoria Falls, Zimbabwe, in July 2025; COP14 was held in Wuhan and Geneva in 2022.
132. The year 2024 was confirmed by Copernicus as the first calendar year to exceed which global warming threshold above pre-industrial levels?
- A. 1.5 degrees Celsius
- B. 2.0 degrees Celsius
- C. 2.5 degrees Celsius
- D. 1.0 degree Celsius
Answer: 1.5 degrees Celsius
Explanation: 2024 was about 1.6 degrees Celsius above the 1850-1900 average, the warmest year on record.
133. On his return to office on 20 January 2025, President Trump signed orders to withdraw the US from which UN health agency?
- A. UNFPA
- B. World Health Organization
- C. UNESCO
- D. UNICEF
Answer: World Health Organization
Explanation: He also signed an order to withdraw from the Paris Climate Agreement on day one.
134. Prabowo Subianto, inaugurated in October 2024, is the President of:
- A. Malaysia
- B. Indonesia
- C. Philippines
- D. Thailand
Answer: Indonesia
Explanation: A former special forces general, Prabowo succeeded Joko Widodo on 20 October 2024.
135. Which former Taiwanese Vice President won the January 2024 presidential election of Taiwan?
- A. Tsai Ing-wen
- B. Lai Ching-te
- C. Ko Wen-je
- D. Hou Yu-ih
Answer: Lai Ching-te
Explanation: Lai Ching-te of the DPP won a historic third consecutive DPP term and took office on 20 May 2024.
136. Friedrich Merz became Chancellor of Germany in May 2025, leading which party?
- A. SPD
- B. AfD
- C. CDU
- D. Greens
Answer: CDU
Explanation: Merz succeeded Olaf Scholz after the February 2025 election, heading a CDU/CSU-SPD coalition.
137. Mark Carney succeeded Justin Trudeau as Prime Minister of Canada in:
- A. September 2024
- B. March 2025
- C. January 2025
- D. June 2025
Answer: March 2025
Explanation: Carney, former Governor of the Bank of Canada and Bank of England, took office on 14 March 2025 and won the April 2025 election.
138. Which country's President Yoon Suk Yeol declared martial law on 3 December 2024, leading to his impeachment?
- A. Taiwan
- B. South Korea
- C. Japan
- D. Philippines
Answer: South Korea
Explanation: The martial law was lifted within hours; Yoon was removed in April 2025 and Lee Jae-myung won the June 2025 snap election.
139. The Hamas attack on Israel that began the Gaza war took place on:
- A. 7 October 2023
- B. 24 February 2024
- C. 7 October 2022
- D. 11 September 2023
Answer: 7 October 2023
Explanation: On 7 October 2023 Hamas killed about 1,200 people in southern Israel and took about 250 hostages; India launched Operation Ajay for its citizens soon after.
140. The October 2025 Gaza ceasefire framework was based on a plan with how many points proposed by the US?
- A. 20
- B. 10
- C. 25
- D. 14
Answer: 20
Explanation: President Trump's 20-point plan led to the ceasefire effective 10 October 2025 and the release of living hostages.
141. In which operation did the US strike Iranian nuclear sites Fordow, Natanz and Isfahan in June 2025?
- A. Operation Rising Lion
- B. Operation Midnight Hammer
- C. Operation Desert Storm
- D. Operation Enduring Freedom
Answer: Operation Midnight Hammer
Explanation: 'Rising Lion' was Israel's operation that began the 12-day war on 13 June 2025; the US followed on 22 June with Midnight Hammer.
142. The September 2025 US proclamation on H-1B visas introduced a one-time fee of:
- A. USD 250,000
- B. USD 50,000
- C. USD 100,000
- D. USD 10,000
Answer: USD 100,000
Explanation: The $100,000 fee applies to new H-1B petitions, a major concern for Indian IT professionals who receive most H-1B visas.
143. In August 2025 the US imposed an additional 25% tariff on Indian goods, taking the total tariff to 50%, citing India's purchase of:
- A. Iranian gas
- B. Venezuelan crude
- C. Russian oil
- D. Chinese electronics
Answer: Russian oil
Explanation: The extra 25% duty over the 25% 'reciprocal' tariff took effect on 27 August 2025; India called the move unfair and unjustified.
144. The October 2024 India-China understanding on patrolling along the LAC concerned which two friction points?
- A. Galwan and Pangong
- B. Yangtse and Doklam
- C. Gogra and Hot Springs
- D. Depsang and Demchok
Answer: Depsang and Demchok
Explanation: On 21 October 2024 India announced agreement on patrolling arrangements in Depsang and Demchok, leading to the Modi-Xi meeting at Kazan.
145. Hardeep Singh Nijjar, whose killing triggered the India-Canada diplomatic crisis in 2023, was shot dead in:
- A. Brampton, Ontario
- B. Calgary, Alberta
- C. Montreal, Quebec
- D. Surrey, British Columbia
Answer: Surrey, British Columbia
Explanation: Nijjar was shot outside a gurdwara in Surrey on 18 June 2023; PM Trudeau alleged India's involvement in September 2023, which India rejected.
146. The Order of the Nile, conferred on PM Modi in June 2023, is the highest civilian honour of:
- A. Egypt
- B. Uganda
- C. Sudan
- D. Ethiopia
Answer: Egypt
Explanation: Egypt's President Sisi conferred it in Cairo during Modi's visit of 24-25 June 2023.
147. Which Gulf country did PM Modi visit in December 2024, the first Indian PM visit there in 43 years?
- A. Oman
- B. Qatar
- C. Kuwait
- D. Bahrain
Answer: Kuwait
Explanation: Modi visited Kuwait on 21-22 December 2024, the first by an Indian PM since Indira Gandhi in 1981, and received the Order of Mubarak the Great.
148. Which country's highest honour, the GCON, was conferred on PM Modi in November 2024, making him only the second foreign dignitary after Queen Elizabeth II to receive it?
- A. Ghana
- B. Guyana
- C. Nigeria
- D. Kuwait
Answer: Nigeria
Explanation: The Grand Commander of the Order of the Niger (GCON) was awarded during his Abuja visit.
149. During his July 2024 Russia visit, PM Modi received which Russian honour?
- A. Order of Friendship
- B. Order of St. Andrew the Apostle
- C. Order of Alexander Nevsky
- D. Order of Lenin
Answer: Order of St. Andrew the Apostle
Explanation: The Order of St. Andrew the Apostle is Russia's highest civilian award; Modi attended the 22nd India-Russia annual summit in Moscow.
150. In August 2024 PM Modi became the first Indian Prime Minister to visit which country since its independence from the Soviet Union?
- A. Belarus
- B. Poland
- C. Ukraine
- D. Moldova
Answer: Ukraine
Explanation: Modi visited Kyiv on 23 August 2024 after visiting Poland, the first Indian PM visit there in 45 years.
151. In November 2024 a seven-judge bench, by 4:3, overruled which 1967 judgment that had held a statutory university cannot be a minority institution (Aligarh Muslim University)?
- A. S. Azeez Basha v. Union of India
- B. Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala
- C. T.M.A. Pai Foundation v. State of Karnataka
- D. S.R. Bommai v. Union of India
Answer: S. Azeez Basha v. Union of India
Explanation: On 8 November 2024 the Court overruled Azeez Basha (1967), holding a minority institution is not denuded of that status merely because it is statute-created, and left AMU's status to a regular bench.
152. The Supreme Court in its November 2024 judgment held that not every privately owned resource is 'material resource of the community' under which Article?
- A. Article 39(b)
- B. Article 21A
- C. Article 48
- D. Article 51A
Answer: Article 39(b)
Explanation: A nine-judge bench (8:1) on 5 November 2024 held that the State cannot claim all private property under Article 39(b) of the Directive Principles, overruling the reasoning of Justice Krishna Iyer in Ranganatha Reddy.
153. Which bench decided the 2023 Article 370 challenge, in a verdict upholding the 2019 abrogation, and how many judges did it comprise?
- A. Bench of nine judges
- B. Constitution Bench of five judges
- C. Bench of three judges
- D. Bench of seven judges
Answer: Constitution Bench of five judges
Explanation: On 11 December 2023 a five-judge Constitution Bench unanimously upheld the abrogation, held Article 370 temporary, and directed statehood restoration and elections by 30 September 2024.
154. In Amar Jain v. Union of India (April 2025), the Supreme Court held that the right to digital access forms part of:
- A. Article 32
- B. Article 19(1)(g)
- C. Article 21 (right to life)
- D. Article 25
Answer: Article 21 (right to life)
Explanation: The Court issued guidelines to make KYC processes accessible to acid-attack survivors and persons with visual disabilities, treating digital access as an Article 21 right.
155. In its January 2024 judgment, the Supreme Court quashed the Gujarat government's remission to convicts in which case?
- A. Nirbhaya case
- B. Hathras case
- C. Bilkis Bano gang-rape case
- D. Unnao case
Answer: Bilkis Bano gang-rape case
Explanation: A bench of Justices B.V. Nagarathna and Ujjal Bhuyan on 8 January 2024 held that Gujarat was not the 'appropriate government' since the trial was in Maharashtra, and ordered the 11 convicts to surrender.
156. The Supreme Court, in the October 2023 judgment on marriage equality, unanimously declined to recognise:
- A. Rights of unmarried heterosexual couples to adopt
- B. A fundamental right to marry for same-sex couples
- C. The right of transgender persons to marry opposite-sex partners
- D. Legal validity of live-in relationships
Answer: A fundamental right to marry for same-sex couples
Explanation: A five-judge bench led by CJI Chandrachud held there is no fundamental right to marry and left legislation to Parliament, while recognising transgender persons' right to marry under existing laws.
157. The Carriage of Goods by Sea Act, 2025 and the Bills of Lading Act, 2025 replaced Acts of which era?
- A. 1890 and 1908
- B. 1962 and 1947
- C. 1925 and 1856
- D. 1872 and 1881
Answer: 1925 and 1856
Explanation: They replaced the Carriage of Goods by Sea Act, 1925 and the Indian Bills of Lading Act, 1856, as part of the maritime law modernisation.
158. The Forest (Conservation) Amendment Act, 2023 renamed the Forest (Conservation) Act, 1980 as:
- A. Van Adhikar Adhiniyam
- B. Van (Sanrakshan Evam Samvardhan) Adhiniyam
- C. Rashtriya Van Niti Adhiniyam
- D. Van Mahotsav Adhiniyam
Answer: Van (Sanrakshan Evam Samvardhan) Adhiniyam
Explanation: The 2023 amendment renamed the Act 'Van (Sanrakshan Evam Samvardhan) Adhiniyam' and exempted certain lands near borders from its purview.
159. The Multi-State Cooperative Societies (Amendment) Act, 2023 created the post of:
- A. Cooperative Registrar General
- B. Cooperative Auditor General
- C. Cooperative Election Commissioner
- D. Cooperative Ombudsman
Answer: Cooperative Ombudsman
Explanation: The Act established a Cooperative Ombudsman and a Cooperative Election Authority for multi-state cooperatives.
160. The Anusandhan National Research Foundation (ANRF) Act, 2023 seeks to be chaired by:
- A. The Cabinet Secretary
- B. The Principal Scientific Adviser
- C. The Education Minister
- D. The Prime Minister (as ex officio President)
Answer: The Prime Minister (as ex officio President)
Explanation: The ANRF replaces the Science and Engineering Research Board, with the PM as ex officio President, and the Union ministers of science and education as Vice-Presidents.
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