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561. Who won the International Emmy Award for Best Comedy in November 2023 for 'Vir Das: Landing'?
- A. Kapil Sharma
- B. Zakir Khan
- C. Biswa Kalyan Rath
- D. Vir Das
Answer: Vir Das
Explanation: The special was shot at the Kennedy Center; Das had earlier been nominated in 2021 for 'Vir Das: For India'.
562. At the 66th Grammy Awards (February 2024), the fusion group Shakti won Best Global Music Album for which album?
- A. This Moment
- B. Triveni
- C. Break of Dawn
- D. Divine Tides
Answer: This Moment
Explanation: Shakti's members include John McLaughlin, Zakir Hussain, Shankar Mahadevan, Selvaganesh Vinayakram and Ganesh Rajagopalan; Hussain won three Grammys that night.
563. At the 67th Grammy Awards (February 2025), Indian-American Chandrika Tandon won the Best New Age, Ambient or Chant Album for:
- A. This Moment
- B. Triveni
- C. Divine Tides
- D. Winds of Samsara
Answer: Triveni
Explanation: 'Triveni' was made with South African flautist Wouter Kellerman and Japanese cellist Eru Matsumoto; Chandrika Tandon is Indra Nooyi's sister.
564. R. Ashwin, who retired from international cricket in December 2024, received which Padma honour in 2025?
- A. Padma Bhushan
- B. Bharat Ratna
- C. Padma Vibhushan
- D. Padma Shri
Answer: Padma Shri
Explanation: Ashwin took 537 Test wickets, India's second-highest after Anil Kumble's 619.
565. Which hockey goalkeeper, after retiring from international hockey at Paris 2024, was awarded the Padma Bhushan in 2025?
- A. Krishan Pathak
- B. P. R. Sreejesh
- C. Suraj Karkera
- D. Savita Punia
Answer: P. R. Sreejesh
Explanation: Sreejesh from Kerala won two Olympic bronze medals (Tokyo 2020, Paris 2024), and later coached the India junior hockey team.
566. The Padma Vibhushan 2025 was awarded posthumously to which Bihar folk singer known as 'Bihar Kokila'?
- A. Malini Awasthi
- B. Kalpana Patowary
- C. Sharda Sinha
- D. Teejan Bai
Answer: Sharda Sinha
Explanation: Sharda Sinha, famed for Chhath songs, died on 5 November 2024; the same list honoured ex-CJI J. S. Khehar and M. T. Vasudevan Nair.
567. P. V. Narasimha Rao, awarded the Bharat Ratna in 2024, was India's Prime Minister during which period?
- A. 1996-1998
- B. 1991-1996
- C. 1989-1991
- D. 1984-1989
Answer: 1991-1996
Explanation: He presided over the 1991 economic liberalisation with Manmohan Singh as Finance Minister and was the first PM from southern India.
568. M. S. Swaminathan, awarded the Bharat Ratna in 2024, chaired which body that submitted its report in 2006 recommending an MSP of at least 50 per cent above the cost of production?
- A. Agricultural Prices Commission
- B. Dalwai Committee
- C. National Commission on Farmers
- D. Shanta Kumar Committee
Answer: National Commission on Farmers
Explanation: The Commission's formula C2+50% became a major farm-protest demand; Swaminathan died on 28 September 2023.
569. Chaudhary Charan Singh, conferred the Bharat Ratna in 2024, is commemorated on his birth anniversary (23 December) as:
- A. Sahkarita Diwas
- B. Shramik Diwas
- C. Gram Swaraj Diwas
- D. Kisan Diwas
Answer: Kisan Diwas
Explanation: He served as India's fifth Prime Minister from July 1979 to January 1980, never facing Parliament.
570. Bharat Ratna was announced posthumously in January 2024 for Karpoori Thakur, who is remembered for introducing a reservation formula for backward classes in which state in 1978?
- A. Odisha
- B. Bihar
- C. Uttar Pradesh
- D. Madhya Pradesh
Answer: Bihar
Explanation: Known as 'Jan Nayak', he was Bihar's CM (1970-71, 1977-79); his 1978 formula carved sub-quotas for OBCs, EBCs, women and economically weak upper castes.
571. How many Bharat Ratna honours were announced in 2024, the highest number conferred in a single year?
- A. Three
- B. Five
- C. Six
- D. Four
Answer: Five
Explanation: The 2024 recipients were Karpoori Thakur, L. K. Advani, P. V. Narasimha Rao, Chaudhary Charan Singh and M. S. Swaminathan.
572. Which State came under President's Rule in February 2025 after the resignation of N. Biren Singh as Chief Minister?
- A. Nagaland
- B. Meghalaya
- C. Tripura
- D. Manipur
Answer: Manipur
Explanation: Biren Singh resigned on 9 February 2025 and President's Rule under Article 356 was imposed on 13 February 2025.
573. The Disaster Management (Amendment) Act, 2025 empowered which authority to prepare disaster management plans at the State capital and city level for urban areas?
- A. State Executive Committee only
- B. District Magistrate alone
- C. Urban Disaster Management Authority
- D. National Executive Committee
Answer: Urban Disaster Management Authority
Explanation: The amendment of the DM Act, 2005 also let NDMA and SDMAs create their own disaster databases and gave statutory status to the National Crisis Management Committee and High-Level Committee.
574. Which Act passed by Parliament in 2025 replaced the 1908 Indian Ports Act with a modern law for port governance?
- A. Maritime Ports Regulation Act, 2025
- B. Sagarmala Act, 2025
- C. Indian Ports Act, 2025
- D. National Ports Authority Act, 2025
Answer: Indian Ports Act, 2025
Explanation: The 2025 Act set up a Maritime State Development Council and State Maritime Boards; it was passed along with the Merchant Shipping Act and the Carriage of Goods by Sea Act.
575. The Tribhuvan Sahkari University, established by an Act of Parliament in 2025, is located in:
- A. Jaipur, Rajasthan
- B. Bhopal, Madhya Pradesh
- C. Anand, Gujarat
- D. Pune, Maharashtra
Answer: Anand, Gujarat
Explanation: Named after Tribhuvandas Patel, a co-founder of Amul, it is India's first national cooperative university.
576. The Registration of Births and Deaths (Amendment) Act, 2023 makes the birth certificate a single document for proving date of birth for which of the following purposes?
- A. Only school admission
- B. Admission to educational institutions, driving licence and voter list preparation
- C. Only passport issue
- D. Only land registration
Answer: Admission to educational institutions, driving licence and voter list preparation
Explanation: The Act, effective 1 October 2023, also creates a national and State-level database of registered births and deaths.
577. The Viksit Bharat-G RAM G legislation passed in December 2025 replaces the MGNREGA and raises the guaranteed days of rural wage employment to:
- A. 125 days
- B. 100 days
- C. 200 days
- D. 150 days
Answer: 125 days
Explanation: Under the new law, the earlier 100-day guarantee per rural household is raised to 125 days.
578. After the delimitation and the 2023 amendment to the J&K Reorganisation Act, the Jammu and Kashmir Legislative Assembly has how many elected seats?
- A. 114
- B. 107
- C. 90
- D. 83
Answer: 90
Explanation: Jammu has 43 and Kashmir 47 seats, with nine seats reserved for Scheduled Tribes for the first time; the total of 114 includes 24 reserved for PoK.
579. The Cinematograph (Amendment) Act, 2023 introduced which new age-based certification categories under the 'UA' rating?
- A. UA 12+ and UA 18+
- B. UA 8+, UA 14+ and UA 17+
- C. UA 5+ and UA 10+
- D. UA 7+, UA 13+ and UA 16+
Answer: UA 7+, UA 13+ and UA 16+
Explanation: The amendment also made certificates perpetual and introduced penalties for film piracy.
580. The Mediation Act, 2023 provides that a mediated settlement agreement, once registered, is:
- A. Appealable in the Supreme Court as of right
- B. Valid only for civil cases below Rs 10 lakh
- C. Only advisory in nature
- D. Enforceable as a court judgment or decree
Answer: Enforceable as a court judgment or decree
Explanation: The Act also provides for pre-litigation mediation and a Mediation Council of India.
581. The Constitution (130th Amendment) Bill, 2025, introduced in August 2025, proposes the removal of a Minister, Chief Minister or the Prime Minister who is in custody for how many consecutive days on a serious charge?
- A. 15 days
- B. 30 days
- C. 60 days
- D. 90 days
Answer: 30 days
Explanation: The offence must carry imprisonment of five years or more; the Bill was referred to a Joint Parliamentary Committee.
582. Under the SHANTI Act, 2025 passed by Parliament in December 2025, which sector was opened to private participation?
- A. Civil nuclear energy
- B. Space launch services
- C. Coal mining
- D. Defence manufacturing
Answer: Civil nuclear energy
Explanation: The Act replaces the Atomic Energy Act, 1962 and the Civil Liability for Nuclear Damage Act, 2010 to enable private players in nuclear power.
583. Indian Railways' total freight loading in 2023-24 crossed which milestone figure, the highest ever at that time?
- A. Over 2,000 million tonnes
- B. Over 1,590 million tonnes
- C. Over 1,200 million tonnes
- D. Over 900 million tonnes
Answer: Over 1,590 million tonnes
Explanation: Loading was about 1,591 MT in 2023-24, against a National Rail Plan aim of 3,000 MT by 2027.
584. The Mumbai-Ahmedabad High Speed Rail project is being financed largely by a soft loan from which agency, covering about 81 per cent of the cost?
- A. ADB
- B. World Bank
- C. New Development Bank
- D. JICA (Japan)
Answer: JICA (Japan)
Explanation: JICA's loan carries a very low interest rate of about 0.1 per cent; the project is executed by NHSRCL with E5-series Shinkansen technology.
585. The Bairabi-Sairang railway line, whose Sairang station was inaugurated in September 2025, connected which state capital to the national rail network?
- A. Gangtok (Sikkim)
- B. Kohima (Nagaland)
- C. Imphal (Manipur)
- D. Aizawl (Mizoram)
Answer: Aizawl (Mizoram)
Explanation: The 51.38 km line, with many tunnels and bridges, made Aizawl the fourth North-East state capital on the broad-gauge map after Guwahati, Itanagar and Agartala.
586. From 15 July 2025, Indian Railways made which authentication mandatory for online Tatkal ticket booking through IRCTC?
- A. PAN verification
- B. Aadhaar-based OTP authentication
- C. Biometric fingerprint
- D. Video KYC
Answer: Aadhaar-based OTP authentication
Explanation: Only Aadhaar-authenticated users could book Tatkal tickets online from 1 July 2025; the OTP step was added from 15 July to curb touts' use of software.
587. Budget 2025-26 announced the manufacture of how many new Vande Bharat trains over the following three years?
- A. 100
- B. 200
- C. 50
- D. 400
Answer: 200
Explanation: The Budget also proposed 100 Amrit Bharat trains and 50 Namo Bharat trains over the same three-year period.
588. The Pralay missile, which was fired twice in quick succession on 28-29 July 2025 off Odisha, is a:
- A. Air-to-air missile
- B. Quasi-ballistic surface-to-surface missile
- C. Anti-tank guided missile
- D. Submarine-launched ballistic missile
Answer: Quasi-ballistic surface-to-surface missile
Explanation: Pralay, with a range of about 150-500 km, was test-fired from Chandipur in two consecutive launches.
589. In June 2023 HAL and GE Aerospace signed an MoU to co-produce which GE engine in India for the Tejas Mk2?
- A. M88
- B. AL-31FP
- C. F414
- D. F404
Answer: F414
Explanation: The June 2023 MoU covers GE F414 engines for the Tejas Mk2; the F404 powers the Mk1A.
590. Which Indian Navy ship was commissioned in July 2025 as a Diving Support Vessel with a deep submergence rescue capability, named INS Nistar?
- A. Landing ship tank
- B. Offshore patrol vessel
- C. Diving support vessel
- D. Hospital ship
Answer: Diving support vessel
Explanation: Built by Hindustan Shipyard, Visakhapatnam, it supports saturation diving and submarine rescue.
591. General Anil Chauhan, India's Chief of Defence Staff, was given an extended tenure in September 2025 until:
- A. 31 December 2025
- B. 30 May 2026
- C. 1 January 2027
- D. 30 September 2026
Answer: 30 May 2026
Explanation: He took over as the second CDS on 30 September 2022 after Gen. Bipin Rawat; the extension is until he turns 65 or the date specified.
592. India delivered the first batch of BrahMos supersonic cruise missiles in April 2024 to which first export customer?
- A. Philippines
- B. Vietnam
- C. Indonesia
- D. UAE
Answer: Philippines
Explanation: The shore-based anti-ship system deal worth about USD 375 million was signed in January 2022.
593. INS Arnala, commissioned in June 2025, is the first of a class that the Navy describes as:
- A. Landing platform dock
- B. Missile boat
- C. Fleet support ship
- D. Anti-Submarine Warfare Shallow Water Craft
Answer: Anti-Submarine Warfare Shallow Water Craft
Explanation: It is the first of 16 ASW-SWC vessels built by GRSE and Cochin Shipyard; the name honours Arnala fort off Vasai, Maharashtra.
594. INS Udaygiri and INS Himgiri, commissioned together on 26 August 2025, belong to which stealth frigate project?
- A. Project 75
- B. Project 15B
- C. Project 17A (Nilgiri class)
- D. Project 28
Answer: Project 17A (Nilgiri class)
Explanation: They were built by Mazagon Dock (Udaygiri) and GRSE Kolkata (Himgiri); it was the first time two major warships from different Indian yards were commissioned together.
595. India's April 2025 inter-governmental deal with France covered how many Rafale Marine fighters for the Navy?
- A. 26
- B. 36
- C. 54
- D. 12
Answer: 26
Explanation: The deal for 22 single-seat and 4 twin-seat Rafale-M jets, worth about Rs 63,000 crore, was signed on 28 April 2025 for operation from INS Vikrant.
596. The Defence Ministry's March 2025 contract of about Rs 62,700 crore with HAL was for how many Light Combat Helicopters 'Prachand'?
- A. 83
- B. 156
- C. 114
- D. 97
Answer: 156
Explanation: The 156 LCH comprise 66 for the Indian Air Force and 90 for the Army, with over 60 per cent indigenous content.
597. In July 2025, DRDO test-fired Akash Prime at an altitude of about 15,000 feet in which region?
- A. Ladakh
- B. Himachal Pradesh
- C. Sikkim
- D. Arunachal Pradesh
Answer: Ladakh
Explanation: Akash Prime is an upgraded Akash SAM with an indigenous RF seeker; the test destroyed two high-speed unmanned aerial targets.
598. In April 2025 DRDO demonstrated a 30-kilowatt laser-based Directed Energy Weapon (Mk-II(A)) at which location?
- A. Pokhran
- B. National Open Air Range, Kurnool
- C. Wheeler Island
- D. Chandipur
Answer: National Open Air Range, Kurnool
Explanation: The system neutralised fixed-wing aircraft and swarm drones; the 30-kW class laser is part of a layered air-defence effort.
599. The first flight test of the Integrated Air Defence Weapon System (IADWS), conducted by DRDO off the Odisha coast on 23 August 2025, combined which three layers?
- A. Prithvi, Dhanush and Nag
- B. Astra, Akash-NG and Pralay
- C. QRSAM, VSHORADS and a high-power laser DEW
- D. Akash, Barak-8 and S-400
Answer: QRSAM, VSHORADS and a high-power laser DEW
Explanation: IADWS is a multi-layered air defence suite against aerial threats; the DEW element was a 30-kW laser.
600. Mission Divyastra of 11 March 2024 was a flight test of which missile?
- A. BrahMos-NG
- B. Agni-5 with MIRV technology
- C. Nirbhay
- D. Pralay
Answer: Agni-5 with MIRV technology
Explanation: Multiple independently targetable re-entry vehicles let one missile hit several targets; the test was led by Mission Director Sheena Rani from Odisha's coast.
601. Skyroot Aerospace unveiled its first orbital rocket in November 2025. What is it called?
- A. Dhruva-1
- B. Agnibaan
- C. Prarambh
- D. Vikram-1
Answer: Vikram-1
Explanation: Vikram-1 is named after Vikram Sarabhai; the earlier sub-orbital Vikram-S (Prarambh mission) flew in November 2022.
602. Who commanded the Axiom Mission 4 (Ax-4) crew that included India's Group Captain Shubhanshu Shukla as pilot?
- A. Michael López-Alegría
- B. Butch Wilmore
- C. Sunita Williams
- D. Peggy Whitson
Answer: Peggy Whitson
Explanation: Ax-4 launched on 25 June 2025 on SpaceX Dragon with crew from India, Poland and Hungary, and splashed down on 15 July 2025 after about 18 days.
603. Which instrument is the principal payload of Aditya-L1, designed by the Indian Institute of Astrophysics, Bengaluru?
- A. Plasma Analyser Package (PAPA)
- B. Solar Ultraviolet Imaging Telescope (SUIT)
- C. Visible Emission Line Coronagraph (VELC)
- D. Aditya Solar wind Particle Experiment (ASPEX)
Answer: Visible Emission Line Coronagraph (VELC)
Explanation: VELC studies the solar corona; SUIT was built at IUCAA, Pune.
604. What was the mass of the Pragyan rover of Chandrayaan-3?
- A. 26 kg
- B. 50 kg
- C. 14 kg
- D. 75 kg
Answer: 26 kg
Explanation: Pragyan weighed 26 kg and the Vikram lander module 1,752 kg including the rover; the total launch mass was about 3,900 kg.
605. Which instrument on Chandrayaan-3's Pragyan rover first confirmed the presence of sulphur near the lunar south pole in August 2023?
- A. RAMBHA-LP
- B. ChaSTE
- C. LIBS (Laser Induced Breakdown Spectroscope)
- D. ILSA
Answer: LIBS (Laser Induced Breakdown Spectroscope)
Explanation: LIBS also detected aluminium, calcium, iron, chromium and titanium, while the APXS measured the elemental composition.
606. PSLV-C56, launched on 30 July 2023, carried the primary payload DS-SAR for which country?
- A. South Korea
- B. Israel
- C. Japan
- D. Singapore
Answer: Singapore
Explanation: DS-SAR is a radar-imaging satellite of Singapore's DSTA and ST Engineering, and was launched under NSIL's commercial arrangement with six co-passenger satellites.
607. Under the February 2024 liberalisation of FDI in the space sector, up to what percentage of FDI is allowed under the automatic route for satellite manufacturing and operation?
- A. 49 per cent
- B. 100 per cent
- C. 26 per cent
- D. 74 per cent
Answer: 74 per cent
Explanation: Launch vehicles and spaceports allow 49 per cent automatic, and component/sub-systems manufacture allows 100 per cent automatic.
608. INSAT-3DS, launched on 17 February 2024 by GSLV-F14, is primarily a:
- A. Military communication satellite
- B. Earth-observation radar satellite
- C. Navigation satellite
- D. Meteorological and disaster-warning satellite
Answer: Meteorological and disaster-warning satellite
Explanation: Funded by the Ministry of Earth Sciences, INSAT-3DS supplements INSAT-3D and 3DR in weather monitoring and search-and-rescue.
609. PSLV-C59, launched on 5 December 2024, placed into orbit the European Space Agency's Proba-3 mission, which is designed to demonstrate:
- A. Mars aerobraking
- B. Lunar sample return
- C. Precision formation flying of two satellites to create artificial solar eclipses
- D. Asteroid deflection
Answer: Precision formation flying of two satellites to create artificial solar eclipses
Explanation: Proba-3's coronagraph and occulter spacecraft fly about 150 m apart to study the Sun's corona; the launch was NSIL's commercial mission from Sriharikota.
610. Odisha's 2024 Assembly election was held simultaneously with the Lok Sabha polls. How many of the 147 seats did the BJP win?
- A. 62
- B. 78
- C. 91
- D. 54
Answer: 78
Explanation: BJP won 78, BJD 51 and Congress 14; in the Lok Sabha polls BJP took 20 of Odisha's 21 seats.
611. In Arunachal Pradesh's 2024 Assembly election, the BJP won 46 seats and Pema Khandu was sworn in for a third term. His first term began in which year?
- A. 2014
- B. 2011
- C. 2019
- D. 2016
Answer: 2016
Explanation: Khandu first became CM in July 2016 and led the BJP to power again in 2024; the BJP also won 10 seats unopposed.
612. Who was the Opposition's candidate defeated in the Vice-Presidential election of 9 September 2025?
- A. Gopalkrishna Gandhi
- B. Meira Kumar
- C. Margaret Alva
- D. B. Sudershan Reddy
Answer: B. Sudershan Reddy
Explanation: Former Supreme Court judge B. Sudershan Reddy polled 300 votes against 452 for C. P. Radhakrishnan.
613. Which Vice-President resigned on 21 July 2025 on health grounds, citing Article 67(a), before completing his term?
- A. Harivansh Narayan Singh
- B. M. Venkaiah Naidu
- C. Hamid Ansari
- D. Jagdeep Dhankhar
Answer: Jagdeep Dhankhar
Explanation: Dhankhar, elected in August 2022, left office abruptly on the first day of the Monsoon Session; C. P. Radhakrishnan was elected on 9 September 2025.
614. The Special Intensive Revision (SIR) of electoral rolls, first rolled out in Bihar in June 2025, was ordered by the Election Commission under which provision?
- A. Article 326 of the Constitution
- B. Article 324 of the Constitution
- C. Article 329
- D. Article 243K
Answer: Article 324 of the Constitution
Explanation: The ECI cited Article 324 and Section 21 of the Representation of the People Act, 1950; the Supreme Court later told it to treat Aadhaar as an accepted document.
615. Who took oath as Chief Minister of Delhi on 20 February 2025 at Ramlila Maidan?
- A. Vijender Gupta
- B. Rekha Gupta
- C. Manjinder Singh Sirsa
- D. Shalimar Bagh's Parvesh Verma
Answer: Rekha Gupta
Explanation: Rekha Gupta, MLA from Shalimar Bagh, became Delhi's fourth woman Chief Minister. Vijender Gupta was elected Speaker.
616. Voting for the 2024 Lok Sabha general election was conducted in seven phases between 19 April and 1 June. The counting was held on:
- A. 4 June 2024
- B. 5 June 2024
- C. 1 June 2024
- D. 10 June 2024
Answer: 4 June 2024
Explanation: Results were declared on 4 June 2024: BJP 240, Congress 99, NDA 293 against the 272 majority mark.
617. Which party won the second-highest number of Lok Sabha seats in 2024 among INDIA bloc partners after the Congress's 99, with 37 seats?
- A. Shiv Sena (UBT)
- B. DMK
- C. Samajwadi Party
- D. Trinamool Congress
Answer: Samajwadi Party
Explanation: The SP won 37 of 80 seats in Uttar Pradesh, its best ever; TMC won 29 and DMK 22.
618. Which candidate was declared elected unopposed from the Surat Lok Sabha seat in the 2024 general election, the first such victory of that election?
- A. C. R. Patil
- B. Nilesh Kumbhani
- C. Hasmukh Patel
- D. Mukesh Dalal
Answer: Mukesh Dalal
Explanation: Congress's nomination of Nilesh Kumbhani was rejected and the others withdrew, so BJP's Mukesh Dalal won without a poll.
619. The Lok Sabha 2024 seat of Indore recorded the highest NOTA votes in any Indian constituency. How many NOTA votes were polled, roughly?
- A. 1.2 lakh
- B. 4.5 lakh
- C. 2.18 lakh
- D. 58,000
Answer: 2.18 lakh
Explanation: After the Congress candidate withdrew, a NOTA campaign drew 2,18,674 votes; BJP's Shankar Lalwani won by a record 11.75 lakh margin.
620. Following the resignation of Arun Goel in March 2024, which two Election Commissioners were appointed on 14 March 2024 under the new Act?
- A. Gyanesh Kumar and Sukhbir Singh Sandhu
- B. Rajiv Kumar and Anup Pandey
- C. Gyanesh Kumar and Vivek Joshi
- D. Vivek Joshi and Sukhbir Sandhu
Answer: Gyanesh Kumar and Sukhbir Singh Sandhu
Explanation: The selection committee of PM Modi, Home Minister Amit Shah and Congress's Adhir Ranjan Chowdhury picked them; Rajiv Kumar was the CEC at the time.
621. In the 2023 Karnataka Assembly election, the Congress won how many of the 224 seats, and who was sworn in as Chief Minister on 20 May 2023?
- A. 135; Mallikarjun Kharge
- B. 113; D. K. Shivakumar
- C. 135; Siddaramaiah
- D. 120; Siddaramaiah
Answer: 135; Siddaramaiah
Explanation: Siddaramaiah began his second term, with D. K. Shivakumar as Deputy CM; the BJP got 66 seats and the JD(S) 19.
622. The Bihar Assembly election of November 2025 was held in two phases. How many of the 243 seats did the NDA win?
- A. 178
- B. 202
- C. 225
- D. 160
Answer: 202
Explanation: The NDA won 202 seats (BJP 89, JD(U) 85); Nitish Kumar was sworn in for a record tenth time on 20 November 2025.
623. Which BJP leader defeated Arvind Kejriwal in the New Delhi seat in the February 2025 Delhi Assembly election?
- A. Kapil Mishra
- B. Ramesh Bidhuri
- C. Parvesh Verma
- D. Manoj Tiwari
Answer: Parvesh Verma
Explanation: Parvesh Verma, son of former CM Sahib Singh Verma, won the seat; BJP took 48 of 70 seats, its first win in Delhi since 1993.
624. Who succeeded Arvind Kejriwal as Chief Minister of Delhi in September 2024 and served until February 2025?
- A. Sunita Kejriwal
- B. Atishi
- C. Sushma Swaraj
- D. Rekha Gupta
Answer: Atishi
Explanation: Atishi took oath on 21 September 2024 as Delhi's third woman CM after Sushma Swaraj and Sheila Dikshit; she was succeeded by Rekha Gupta.
625. Which party led the alliance that won 56 of 81 seats in the November 2024 Jharkhand election, returning Hemant Soren as Chief Minister?
- A. Jharkhand Mukti Morcha
- B. AJSU Party
- C. Indian National Congress
- D. Rashtriya Janata Dal
Answer: Jharkhand Mukti Morcha
Explanation: JMM alone won 34 seats, the best by any party in the state's history; Soren was sworn in on 28 November 2024.
626. In the November 2024 Maharashtra Assembly election, the BJP won the highest number of seats. How many did it win out of 288?
- A. 105
- B. 122
- C. 132
- D. 149
Answer: 132
Explanation: BJP won 132 seats; Mahayuti totalled 230. Devendra Fadnavis was sworn in as CM on 5 December 2024 at Azad Maidan, Mumbai.
627. In the Haryana Assembly election of October 2024, the BJP won how many of the 90 seats, securing a third consecutive term?
- A. 45
- B. 48
- C. 40
- D. 52
Answer: 48
Explanation: BJP won 48 and Congress 37; Nayab Singh Saini, who had replaced M. L. Khattar in March 2024, was sworn in again on 17 October 2024.
628. The 2024 Jammu & Kashmir Assembly election, the first since Article 370 was abrogated, was held in how many phases, and who became Chief Minister on 16 October 2024?
- A. Three phases; Omar Abdullah
- B. Two phases; Farooq Abdullah
- C. Five phases; Omar Abdullah
- D. Three phases; Mehbooba Mufti
Answer: Three phases; Omar Abdullah
Explanation: Polling was on 18 Sep, 25 Sep and 1 Oct 2024; the National Conference won 42 of 90 seats. Surinder Choudhary became Deputy CM.
629. Sikkim Krantikari Morcha won how many of the 32 Assembly seats in the April 2024 Sikkim election, returning Prem Singh Tamang as Chief Minister?
- A. 32
- B. 29
- C. 27
- D. 31
Answer: 31
Explanation: SKM won 31 seats, leaving the Sikkim Democratic Front with one; Tamang was sworn in for his second term on 10 June 2024.
630. In the 2024 Andhra Pradesh Assembly election, the TDP-Jana Sena-BJP alliance won how many of the 175 seats?
- A. 118
- B. 164
- C. 135
- D. 151
Answer: 164
Explanation: The alliance won 164 seats (TDP 135, Jana Sena 21, BJP 8); the YSRCP was reduced to 11. Naidu took oath on 12 June 2024 with Pawan Kalyan as Deputy CM.
631. Who took oath as Odisha's first BJP Chief Minister on 12 June 2024, ending Naveen Patnaik's 24-year tenure?
- A. Mohan Charan Majhi
- B. Sambit Patra
- C. Manmohan Samal
- D. Dharmendra Pradhan
Answer: Mohan Charan Majhi
Explanation: Majhi, a four-time MLA from Keonjhar tribal belt, led a cabinet with K. V. Singh Deo and Pravati Parida as Deputy Chief Ministers.
632. The Supreme Court in Anoop Baranwal v. Union of India (March 2023) directed that, until Parliament legislates, the CEC and Election Commissioners be appointed by a committee comprising:
- A. PM, Home Minister and Speaker
- B. PM, Law Minister and Leader of Opposition
- C. President, PM and CJI
- D. PM, Leader of Opposition and the CJI
Answer: PM, Leader of Opposition and the CJI
Explanation: Parliament's 2023 Act replaced the CJI with a Union Cabinet Minister nominated by the PM, which is the version in force.
633. In State of Punjab v. Principal Secretary to the Governor of Punjab (November 2023), the Supreme Court said that a Governor who withholds assent to a Bill under Article 200 must:
- A. Dissolve the Assembly
- B. Return the Bill to the Assembly as soon as possible with a message if he withholds assent
- C. Refer every Bill to the President
- D. Seek the High Court's opinion
Answer: Return the Bill to the Assembly as soon as possible with a message if he withholds assent
Explanation: Under the first proviso to Article 200, withholding assent must be followed by returning the Bill 'as soon as possible'; the bench was led by CJI Chandrachud.
634. Who was administered the oath as the 53rd Chief Justice of India on 24 November 2025?
- A. Justice Surya Kant
- B. Justice B. V. Nagarathna
- C. Justice Vikram Nath
- D. Justice J. B. Pardiwala
Answer: Justice Surya Kant
Explanation: Justice Surya Kant, from Haryana, succeeded B. R. Gavai and has a tenure till 9 February 2027.
635. Which fresh direction on the Places of Worship (Special Provisions) Act, 1991 did the Supreme Court issue in December 2024?
- A. No fresh suits to be registered and no effective survey orders by courts while the challenges are pending
- B. All pending suits were transferred to the Supreme Court
- C. The Act was struck down
- D. The Act was extended to Ayodhya
Answer: No fresh suits to be registered and no effective survey orders by courts while the challenges are pending
Explanation: The Act freezes the religious character of places as on 15 August 1947 (Ayodhya excepted); the three-judge bench froze new proceedings pending the challenges.
636. In the Waqf (Amendment) Act, 2025 case, the Supreme Court's interim order of September 2025:
- A. Upheld the whole Act without change
- B. Stayed the five-year practising-Muslim condition but refused to stay the whole Act
- C. Banned all non-Muslims from Waqf boards
- D. Struck down the whole Act
Answer: Stayed the five-year practising-Muslim condition but refused to stay the whole Act
Explanation: The bench of CJI B. R. Gavai and Justice A. G. Masih stayed that condition (until rules are framed) and the collector's power to decide waqf-property disputes, while leaving the Act otherwise in force.
637. Following the discovery of burnt cash at his Delhi residence in March 2025, which High Court judge was repatriated to the Allahabad High Court on the Collegium's recommendation?
- A. Justice Yashwant Varma
- B. Justice Shekhar Yadav
- C. Justice Rajesh Bindal
- D. Justice Abhay Oka
Answer: Justice Yashwant Varma
Explanation: CJI Sanjiv Khanna set up a three-judge in-house inquiry committee; Justice Varma was then serving in the Delhi High Court.
638. In Dec 2023 the Lok Sabha expelled Mahua Moitra following the report of the Ethics Committee, which was then chaired by:
- A. Vinod Kumar Sonkar
- B. Sunil Kumar Singh
- C. Bhartruhari Mahtab
- D. P. P. Chaudhary
Answer: Vinod Kumar Sonkar
Explanation: She was expelled on 8 December 2023 over the 'cash-for-query' allegations; Vinod Kumar Sonkar (BJP, Kaushambi) chaired the Ethics Committee.
639. In the Shiv Sena (Subhash Desai) judgment of 11 May 2023, why did the Constitution Bench not restore the Uddhav Thackeray government?
- A. Because the Governor had dissolved the House
- B. Because the assembly term had ended
- C. Because he resigned without facing the floor test
- D. Because the Speaker had disqualified him
Answer: Because he resigned without facing the floor test
Explanation: The Court held the Governor's floor-test call was unjustified, but status quo ante could not be restored since Thackeray resigned voluntarily.
640. In its July 2024 NEET-UG ruling, the Supreme Court declined to order a re-test, observing that:
- A. The entire paper had leaked nationwide
- B. There was no material showing a systemic leak across the exam
- C. The NTA had cancelled the exam itself
- D. Only Hazaribagh candidates were affected
Answer: There was no material showing a systemic leak across the exam
Explanation: On 23 July 2024 the CJI-led bench held that the leak was localised to Hazaribagh and Patna and no systemic breach was proved, so the results stood.
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