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4161. An RPF patrol vehicle covers a distance of 828 km at a constant speed of 60 km/h. How much time does it take? (SI Set 2)
- A. 13.3
- B. 14.8
- C. 11.83
- D. 13.8
Answer: 13.8
Explanation: Time = Distance/Speed = 828/60 = 13.8 hours.
4162. The average daily patrol distance of 10 RPF beat officers is 68 km. One officer who covered only 41 km is excluded. Find the new average distance of the remaining officers. (SI Set 2)
- A. 66
- B. 71
- C. 76
- D. 68
Answer: 71
Explanation: Total = 10 x 68 = 680. New total = 680 - 41 = 639. New average = 639/9 = 71.
4163. The average age of 5 RPF SI trainees is 58 years. A new trainee aged 46 years joins the batch. Find the new average age. (SI Set 2)
- A. 58
- B. 53
- C. 50
- D. 56
Answer: 56
Explanation: Old total = 5 x 58 = 290. New total = 290 + 46 = 336. New average = 336/6 = 56.
4164. If 8 railway signal poles cost the same as 12 units cost 3 units of a fourth quantity (8:12 :: 3:x), find x. (SI Set 2)
- A. 2
- B. 4.5
- C. 0.5
- D. 11.5
Answer: 4.5
Explanation: 8:12 :: 3:x => x = (12 x 3)/8 = 4.5.
4165. A sum of ₹576 is divided between two RPF constables in the ratio 3:5 as duty allowance. Find the share of the first constable. (SI Set 2)
- A. 360
- B. 194
- C. 275
- D. 216
Answer: 216
Explanation: First share = [3/(3+5)] x 576 = 216.
4166. Find the compound interest on ₹30000 for 3 years at 12% per annum compounded annually, for a railway pension-fund deposit. (SI Set 2)
- A. 11953.84
- B. 12147.84
- C. 12214.84
- D. 10800
Answer: 12147.84
Explanation: A = P(1+R/100)^T = 30000(1+12/100)^3 = 42147.84. CI = A - P = 42147.84 - 30000 = 12147.84.
4167. A railway cooperative society lends ₹10449 to a staff member at 12% per annum simple interest for 5 years. Find the simple interest. (SI Set 2)
- A. 6269.4
- B. 5992.4
- C. 6422.4
- D. 7523.28
Answer: 6269.4
Explanation: SI = (P x R x T)/100 = (10449 x 12 x 5)/100 = 6269.4.
4168. A railway equipment supplier offers successive discounts of 10% and 8% on a marked price of ₹9558. Find the final selling price. (SI Set 2)
- A. 7914.02
- B. 7931.02
- C. 7845.02
- D. 7837.56
Answer: 7914.02
Explanation: SP = 9558 x (1-10/100) x (1-8/100) = 9558 x 0.9 x 0.92 = 7914.02.
4169. A marked price of a railway staff uniform kit is ₹3029. A discount of 25% is offered during a department sale. What is the selling price? (SI Set 2)
- A. 2233.75
- B. 2314.75
- C. 2120.3
- D. 2271.75
Answer: 2271.75
Explanation: SP = MP x (1 - 25/100) = 3029 x 0.75 = 2271.75.
4170. A railway canteen vendor bought a stock of items for ₹5945 and sold it at a profit of 10%. Find the selling price. (SI Set 2)
- A. 6456.5
- B. 5350.5
- C. 6539.5
- D. 6561.5
Answer: 6539.5
Explanation: SP = CP x (1 + 10/100) = 5945 x 1.1 = 6539.5.
4171. The monthly ration budget of an RPF barrack was ₹1798. It was increased by 15%. What is the new budget? (SI Set 2)
- A. 2020.7
- B. 1528.3
- C. 2120.7
- D. 2067.7
Answer: 2067.7
Explanation: New value = 1798 x (1 + 15/100) = 2067.7.
4172. In an RPF SI recruitment drive, 1311 candidates appeared for the written exam. If 55% of them qualified for the physical efficiency test, how many candidates qualified? (SI Set 2)
- A. 704.05
- B. 747.05
- C. 772.05
- D. 721.05
Answer: 721.05
Explanation: 55% of 1311 = (55/100) x 1311 = 721.05.
4173. Find the difference between the compound interest and simple interest on ₹10000 for 2 years at 20% per annum (an RPF finance-cell training problem). (SI Set 1)
- A. 800
- B. 465
- C. 349
- D. 400
Answer: 400
Explanation: SI = (10000×20×2)/100 = 4000. CI = 10000[(1+20/100)²-1] = 4400. Difference = 4400 - 4000 = 400. (Shortcut: Diff = P(R/100)² for 2 years.)
4174. A sum of ₹43901 earns simple interest at 6% p.a. for 3 years under Scheme A, versus 7% p.a. for 4 years under Scheme B (an RPF welfare-fund comparison). Find the difference between the two interests. (SI Set 1)
- A. 4360.1
- B. 4414.1
- C. 4390.1
- D. 20194.46
Answer: 4390.1
Explanation: SI(A) = (43901×6×3)/100 = 7902.18. SI(B) = (43901×7×4)/100 = 12292.28. Difference = |7902.18 - 12292.28| = 4390.1.
4175. Three RPF maintenance workers can individually repair a section of boundary fencing in 12, 19, and 19 days respectively. Working together, how many days will they take to finish the job? (SI Set 1)
- A. 8.3
- B. 5.3
- C. 16.67
- D. 3.8
Answer: 5.3
Explanation: Combined rate = 1/12 + 1/19 + 1/19 per day. Time = 1/(1/12+1/19+1/19) = 5.3 days.
4176. Two RPF joggers start at the same point on a circular track of length 600 m and run in opposite directions at 5 m/s and 3 m/s. After how many seconds will they meet for the first time? (SI Set 1)
- A. 63
- B. 300
- C. 75
- D. 80
Answer: 75
Explanation: Relative speed (opposite directions) = 5+3 = 8 m/s. Time to meet = Circumference/Relative speed = 600/8 = 75 s.
4177. An RPF vehicle travels from post A to post B at 40 km/h and returns the same distance at 75 km/h. Find its average speed for the whole journey. (SI Set 1)
- A. 47.17
- B. 57.17
- C. 52.17
- D. 57.5
Answer: 52.17
Explanation: Average speed (equal distances) = 2×S1×S2/(S1+S2) = 2×40×75/(40+75) = 52.17 km/h.
4178. Find the sum of squares of the first 9 positive integers (used to compute a variance check in an RPF statistics drill). (SI Set 1)
- A. 285
- B. 358
- C. 263
- D. 312
Answer: 285
Explanation: Sum of squares = n(n+1)(2n+1)/6 = 9(9+1)(18+1)/6 = 285.
4179. An RPF SI officer's father's age is currently 3 times the officer's age of 13 years. Find the ratio of father's age to the officer's age after 14 years. (SI Set 1)
- A. 3
- B. 1.66
- C. 2.46
- D. 1.96
Answer: 1.96
Explanation: Father's current age = 3 × 13 = 39. After 14 years: Father = 53, Officer = 27. Ratio = 53/27 = 1.96.
4180. Two RPF canteen contract partners invest ₹38044 and ₹29032 respectively in a joint catering contract for the same period. If the total profit is ₹16408, find the first partner's share. (SI Set 1)
- A. 9306.25
- B. 7101.75
- C. 8666.25
- D. 9815.25
Answer: 9306.25
Explanation: Profit ratio = Capital ratio = 38044:29032. First partner's share = [38044/(38044+29032)] × 16408 = 9306.25.
4181. An RPF canteen mixes two grades of rice costing ₹25/kg and ₹46/kg to get a mixture worth ₹41/kg. Find the ratio in which they must be mixed. (SI Set 1)
- A. 16:5
- B. 6:16
- C. 5:17
- D. 5:16
Answer: 5:16
Explanation: By alligation: ratio = (CP2-Mean):(Mean-CP1) = (46-41):(41-25) = 5:16 = 5:16 (simplified).
4182. An RPF stores bag contains 7 red, 4 blue, and 4 green signal flags. One flag is drawn at random. Find the probability that it is red. (SI Set 1)
- A. 0.36
- B. 0.47
- C. 0.62
- D. 0.74
Answer: 0.47
Explanation: Total flags = 7+4+4 = 15. Probability(red) = 7/15 = 0.47.
4183. From a group of 5 RPF SI candidates, in how many ways can a committee with distinct ranked posts (ordered) of 4 be selected? (SI Set 1)
- A. 144
- B. 120
- C. 5
- D. 97
Answer: 120
Explanation: nPr = n!/(n-r)! = 5!/1! = 120.
4184. The bar graph shows the number of RPF SI cases resolved per year: 2021=1868, 2022=2336, 2023=895, 2024=1058, 2025=865. Find the difference in cases resolved between 2021 and 2023. (SI Set 1)
- A. 973
- B. 1009
- C. 955
- D. 978
Answer: 973
Explanation: Difference = |1868 - 895| = 973.
4185. A pie chart shows the RPF annual budget of ₹5400000 divided among 5 heads by central angle: Equipment=89°, Training=53°, Welfare=114°, Infrastructure=44°, Communication=60°. Find the budget allocated to Infrastructure. (SI Set 1)
- A. ₹613067
- B. ₹660000
- C. ₹692689
- D. ₹900000
Answer: ₹660000
Explanation: Share = (44°/360°) × 5400000 = 660000.
4186. The table shows RPF SI recruits across 5 zones: North=348, South=378, East=391, West=221, Central=103. Find the ratio of recruits in North zone to East zone in simplest form. (SI Set 1)
- A. 348:391
- B. 465:391
- C. 438:391
- D. 270:391
Answer: 348:391
Explanation: Ratio = 348:391 = 348:391 (dividing by HCF 1).
4187. An RPF watchtower is 25 m tall. From a point on the ground, the angle of elevation to the top of the tower is 60°. Find the horizontal distance from the point to the base of the tower. (tan 60° = 1.732) (SI Set 1)
- A. 21.43
- B. 43.3
- C. 14.43
- D. 8.43
Answer: 14.43
Explanation: tan(60°) = height/distance => distance = height/tan(60°) = 25/1.732 = 14.43 m.
4188. An RPF storage container is a cuboid of dimensions 5 m × 13 m × 9 m. Find its total surface area. (SI Set 1)
- A. 593
- B. 454
- C. 423
- D. 522
Answer: 454
Explanation: TSA = 2(lw+wh+hl) = 2(65+117+45) = 454 sq m.
4189. A circular RPF watchtower base has a radius of 7 m. Find its area. (Use π = 22/7) (SI Set 1)
- A. 200
- B. 121
- C. 44
- D. 154
Answer: 154
Explanation: Area = πr² = (22/7) × 7 × 7 = 154 sq m.
4190. A rectangular RPF parade ground is 11 m long and 12 m wide. Find its area. (SI Set 1)
- A. 46
- B. 140
- C. 132
- D. 125
Answer: 132
Explanation: Area = length × width = 11 × 12 = 132 sq m.
4191. If x² - 16x + 63 = 0 are the roots representing two patrol-team sizes, find the larger root. (SI Set 1)
- A. 9
- B. 10
- C. 7
- D. 5
Answer: 9
Explanation: Factorizing: x² - 16x + 63 = (x - 7)(x - 9) = 0. Roots are 7 and 9. Larger root = 9.
4192. In an RPF duty-roster puzzle, if 4x + 46 = 190, find the value of x. (SI Set 1)
- A. 33
- B. 36
- C. 47.5
- D. 37
Answer: 36
Explanation: 4x = 190 - 46 = 144. x = 144/4 = 36.
4193. Simplify: 3 × (4/9) + 6 = ? (SI Set 1)
- A. 9.44
- B. 5.33
- C. 7.33
- D. 11.33
Answer: 7.33
Explanation: 3 × (4/9) = 1.33. Adding 6: 1.33 + 6 = 7.33.
4194. Simplify: 22 + 12 × 8 − 2 + 22 = ? (SI Set 1)
- A. 130
- B. 145
- C. 138
- D. 292
Answer: 138
Explanation: By BODMAS: 12 × 8 = 96 first. Then 22 + 96 - 2 + 22 = 138.
4195. In an RPF stores ledger, 3643 cartridge boxes need to be arranged into equal rows for a divisor of 9. What is the least number of boxes that must be added to make the total exactly divisible by 9? (SI Set 1)
- A. 4
- B. 1
- C. 2
- D. 7
Answer: 2
Explanation: 3643 mod 9 = 7. Number to add = 9 - 7 = 2 (0 if already divisible).
4196. Find the HCF of the patrol shift durations 52 minutes and 26 minutes used for syncing two RPF post schedules. (SI Set 1)
- A. 22
- B. 52
- C. 31
- D. 26
Answer: 26
Explanation: HCF(52, 26) = 26 (by Euclidean algorithm / prime factorization).
4197. An inlet pipe at a railway water tank can fill it in 11 hours, while an outlet pipe (leak) can empty it in 19 hours. If both are opened together, in how many hours will the tank be filled? (SI Set 1)
- A. 25.62
- B. 26.12
- C. 15
- D. 28.12
Answer: 26.12
Explanation: Net rate = 1/11 - 1/19 per hour. Time to fill = 1/(1/11 - 1/19) = 26.12 hours.
4198. RPF constable A can clear a stretch of railway track of debris alone in 23 days, and constable B can do it alone in 19 days. Working together, in how many days will they finish the job? (SI Set 1)
- A. 12.4
- B. 10.4
- C. 21
- D. 9.9
Answer: 10.4
Explanation: Combined time = (A x B)/(A+B) = (23 x 19)/(23+19) = 10.4 days.
4199. A boat used for river patrol by RPF has a speed of 10 km/h in still water. The current speed is 4 km/h. Find the time taken to cover 42 km upstream. (SI Set 1)
- A. 7
- B. 6
- C. 4.2
- D. 9
Answer: 7
Explanation: Upstream speed = 10 - 4 = 6 km/h. Time = 42/6 = 7 hours.
4200. Two trains of lengths 190 m and 117 m run on parallel tracks in opposite directions at 54 km/h and 18 km/h respectively. Find the time they take to cross each other completely. (SI Set 1)
- A. 12.35
- B. 19.35
- C. 15.35
- D. 30.7
Answer: 15.35
Explanation: Relative speed (opposite dir) = (54+18) x 5/18 = 20 m/s. Total length = 190+117 = 307 m. Time = 307/20 = 15.35 s.
4201. A railway goods train 133 m long is moving at a speed of 54 km/h. How much time will it take to cross a stationary signal pole? (SI Set 1)
- A. 7.82
- B. 5.87
- C. 8.87
- D. 12.87
Answer: 8.87
Explanation: Speed = 54 x 5/18 = 15 m/s. Time = Length/Speed = 133/15 = 8.87 seconds.
4202. An RPF patrol vehicle covers a distance of 165 km at a constant speed of 50 km/h. How much time does it take? (SI Set 1)
- A. 2.75
- B. 2.3
- C. 3.8
- D. 3.3
Answer: 3.3
Explanation: Time = Distance/Speed = 165/50 = 3.3 hours.
4203. The average daily patrol distance of 13 RPF beat officers is 77 km. One officer who covered only 54 km is excluded. Find the new average distance of the remaining officers. (SI Set 1)
- A. 77
- B. 78.92
- C. 79.92
- D. 74.92
Answer: 78.92
Explanation: Total = 13 x 77 = 1001. New total = 1001 - 54 = 947. New average = 947/12 = 78.92.
4204. The average age of 5 RPF SI trainees is 45 years. A new trainee aged 98 years joins the batch. Find the new average age. (SI Set 1)
- A. 45
- B. 57.83
- C. 47.83
- D. 53.83
Answer: 53.83
Explanation: Old total = 5 x 45 = 225. New total = 225 + 98 = 323. New average = 323/6 = 53.83.
4205. If 4 railway signal poles cost the same as 6 units cost 13 units of a fourth quantity (4:6 :: 13:x), find x. (SI Set 1)
- A. 19.5
- B. 21.5
- C. 8.67
- D. 10.5
Answer: 19.5
Explanation: 4:6 :: 13:x => x = (6 x 13)/4 = 19.5.
4206. A sum of ₹744 is divided between two RPF constables in the ratio 5:7 as duty allowance. Find the share of the first constable. (SI Set 1)
- A. 281
- B. 335
- C. 310
- D. 434
Answer: 310
Explanation: First share = [5/(5+7)] x 744 = 310.
4207. Find the compound interest on ₹20000 for 3 years at 12% per annum compounded annually, for a railway pension-fund deposit. (SI Set 1)
- A. 8098.56
- B. 8028.56
- C. 8263.56
- D. 7200
Answer: 8098.56
Explanation: A = P(1+R/100)^T = 20000(1+12/100)^3 = 28098.56. CI = A - P = 28098.56 - 20000 = 8098.56.
4208. A railway cooperative society lends ₹10791 to a staff member at 5% per annum simple interest for 3 years. Find the simple interest. (SI Set 1)
- A. 2158.2
- B. 1371.65
- C. 1618.65
- D. 1861.65
Answer: 1618.65
Explanation: SI = (P x R x T)/100 = (10791 x 5 x 3)/100 = 1618.65.
4209. A railway equipment supplier offers successive discounts of 20% and 5% on a marked price of ₹3441. Find the final selling price. (SI Set 1)
- A. 2579.16
- B. 2615.16
- C. 2580.75
- D. 2659.16
Answer: 2615.16
Explanation: SP = 3441 x (1-20/100) x (1-5/100) = 3441 x 0.8 x 0.95 = 2615.16.
4210. A marked price of a railway staff uniform kit is ₹3427. A discount of 22% is offered during a department sale. What is the selling price? (SI Set 1)
- A. 2625.06
- B. 2718.06
- C. 2673.06
- D. 2501.71
Answer: 2673.06
Explanation: SP = MP x (1 - 22/100) = 3427 x 0.78 = 2673.06.
4211. A railway canteen vendor bought a stock of items for ₹7660 and sold it at a profit of 30%. Find the selling price. (SI Set 1)
- A. 5362
- B. 9936
- C. 10016
- D. 9958
Answer: 9958
Explanation: SP = CP x (1 + 30/100) = 7660 x 1.3 = 9958.
4212. The monthly ration budget of an RPF barrack was ₹1526. It was decreased by 25%. What is the new budget? (SI Set 1)
- A. 1190.5
- B. 1085.5
- C. 1907.5
- D. 1144.5
Answer: 1144.5
Explanation: New value = 1526 x (1 - 25/100) = 1144.5.
4213. In an RPF SI recruitment drive, 4577 candidates appeared for the written exam. If 18% of them qualified for the physical efficiency test, how many candidates qualified? (SI Set 1)
- A. 896.86
- B. 823.86
- C. 786.86
- D. 828.86
Answer: 823.86
Explanation: 18% of 4577 = (18/100) x 4577 = 823.86.
4214. Under BNS Section 303(2)(iii), theft committed in a railway carriage or upon a railway, or theft of railway property, carries special investigative significance for RPF officers. Which of the following best describes how BNS treats theft specifically occurring 'in any conveyance' as an aggravating circumstance?
- A. Theft in a conveyance is only punishable if the value exceeds ten lakh rupees
- B. BNS exempts theft on railway premises from the theft chapter entirely, treating it solely under Railway Act procedures
- C. BNS treats all conveyance-related theft identically to simple theft with no enhancement
- D. Theft in any conveyance (such as a railway carriage) is specifically listed as an aggravated category under Section 303(2), attracting imprisonment up to seven years rather than the basic three-year term under Section 303(1)
Answer: Theft in any conveyance (such as a railway carriage) is specifically listed as an aggravated category under Section 303(2), attracting imprisonment up to seven years rather than the basic three-year term under Section 303(1)
Explanation: Section 303(2) BNS lists theft 'in any building, tent or vessel' and theft 'by a clerk or servant', theft 'in a conveyance', and similar aggravated circumstances (paralleling old IPC Sections 379-381 structure) each carrying up to seven years imprisonment — well above the general three-year maximum under Section 303(1)/(2)(i), which is directly relevant to RPF's jurisdiction over railway carriage theft.
4215. An SI recovers counterfeit railway tickets and forged official seals during a raid. Beyond forgery (Section 336) and counterfeiting government stamps (Section 262), which BNS section specifically penalises possession of a die, plate or instrument for the purpose of counterfeiting a government stamp?
- A. Section 265 BNS (sale of unused stamp knowing it to be counterfeit) alone covers this
- B. Section 340 BNS exclusively covers this scenario
- C. Section 267 BNS (adulteration of drugs)
- D. Section 264 BNS (making or possessing instruments or materials for counterfeiting a government stamp)
Answer: Section 264 BNS (making or possessing instruments or materials for counterfeiting a government stamp)
Explanation: Section 264 BNS specifically punishes making, or possessing without lawful excuse, any die, plate or other instrument or materials for the purpose of counterfeiting a government stamp, with imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to seven years, and fine -- a distinct preparatory offence separate from the completed counterfeiting under Section 262.
4216. Under BNS Section 356, defamation is generally punishable with simple imprisonment for a term which may extend to two years, or fine, or both, or community service. However, Section 356 also permits an alternative remedy for certain cases. What is this alternative?
- A. The court must award only capital punishment for repeat offenders
- B. There is no alternative remedy; imprisonment is always mandatory
- C. The offence becomes compoundable only with police permission and never with court approval
- D. The court may, in appropriate cases, direct the convict to publish or affix the substance of the judgment, or additionally impose community service alongside imprisonment/fine
Answer: The court may, in appropriate cases, direct the convict to publish or affix the substance of the judgment, or additionally impose community service alongside imprisonment/fine
Explanation: BNS's defamation provisions (Section 356, replacing Sections 499-500 IPC) retain community service as an added sentencing option and preserve the framework recognising publication/affixation-of-judgment style remedies in appropriate criminal defamation cases, reflecting the BNS's broader reformative sentencing philosophy alongside traditional imprisonment/fine.
4217. Under BNS Section 175, an SI wishes to invoke the offence of 'disobedience to order duly promulgated by public servant' against a person violating a prohibitory order under Section 163 BNSS near a railway platform during a VIP movement. Which punishment tier applies if such disobedience causes danger to human life, health or safety?
- A. Imprisonment for a term which may extend to six months only, without any fine option
- B. Fine only, not exceeding two hundred rupees
- C. Imprisonment for life
- D. Imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to one year, or fine up to one lakh rupees, or both
Answer: Imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to one year, or fine up to one lakh rupees, or both
Explanation: Section 175(2) BNS enhances the punishment where disobedience to a lawfully promulgated order causes or tends to cause danger to human life, health or safety, or causes riot or affray, to imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to one year, or fine up to one lakh rupees, or both — a marked increase from Section 175(1)'s general six-month/fine-only tier.
4218. Under BNS Section 303(2)(v), theft after preparation made by the offender for causing death, hurt or restraint, or fear thereof, to any person, in order to commit theft or to effect escape after committing theft, is punishable with rigorous imprisonment for a term which may extend to how many years?
- A. Ten years
- B. Fourteen years
- C. Five years
- D. Seven years
Answer: Ten years
Explanation: Section 303(2)(v) BNS (theft after preparation made for causing death, hurt or restraint in order to commit theft) is punishable with rigorous imprisonment for a term which may extend to ten years, and fine — one of the most aggravated forms of theft under the property chapter, since it involves pre-planned readiness to use violence.
4219. Under BNS Section 196, an SI investigating communal tension near a railway station finds provocative material likely to promote enmity between different groups on grounds of religion, race, place of birth, residence, language, etc., and acts prejudicial to maintenance of harmony. Section 196 punishes this with imprisonment which may extend to how many years, or fine, or both?
- A. Three years
- B. Six months
- C. Seven years
- D. One year
Answer: Three years
Explanation: Section 196 BNS (promoting enmity between different groups on grounds of religion, race, place of birth, residence, language, etc., and doing acts prejudicial to maintenance of harmony) prescribes imprisonment which may extend to three years, or fine, or both, or community service — carried forward largely from Section 153A IPC, relevant to public-order policing near transit hubs.
4220. Under BNS Section 106(2), causing death by rash or negligent driving of a motor vehicle in a manner amounting to hit-and-run — i.e., escaping without reporting to a police officer or magistrate soon after the incident — is punishable with imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to how many years, and fine?
- A. Ten years
- B. Seven years
- C. Five years
- D. Two years
Answer: Ten years
Explanation: Section 106(2) BNS, a new hit-and-run provision, punishes causing death by rash/negligent driving where the driver escapes without reporting to a police officer or magistrate soon after the incident with imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to ten years, and fine — substantially harsher than the two-year cap under ordinary Section 106(1) death by negligence.
4221. Under BNS Section 109, whoever commits murder for hire, reward or any other similar consideration commits the offence of 'organised crime' related hit killing, separately defined. In investigative practice, which BNS section is invoked for attempt to murder rather than the completed offence?
- A. Section 109 BNS (attempt to murder)
- B. Section 103 BNS (murder, completed offence only)
- C. Section 100 BNS (culpable homicide definition only)
- D. Section 105 BNS (death by negligence)
Answer: Section 109 BNS (attempt to murder)
Explanation: Section 109 BNS is the 'attempt to murder' provision (counterpart to Section 307 IPC), punishing whoever does any act with such intention or knowledge and under such circumstances that, if death were caused, he would be guilty of murder, with imprisonment which may extend to ten years, or life imprisonment if hurt is caused, and fine.
4222. Under BNS Section 103(2), murder committed by five or more persons acting in concert on grounds of race, caste, community, sex, place of birth, language, personal belief or any other similar ground is punishable with which mandatory minimum sentence?
- A. Death or imprisonment for life, and each such person shall also be liable to fine — this being the provision codifying 'mob lynching' as a distinct offence
- B. Fine only, not exceeding fifty thousand rupees
- C. Community service for a period of one year
- D. Simple imprisonment for a term which may extend to two years
Answer: Death or imprisonment for life, and each such person shall also be liable to fine — this being the provision codifying 'mob lynching' as a distinct offence
Explanation: Section 103(2) BNS, a new provision widely reported as India's first statutory codification of 'mob lynching', punishes murder by five or more persons acting in concert on the specified discriminatory grounds with death or imprisonment for life, and fine for each offender — each member of the group faces this liability regardless of who struck the fatal blow.
4223. Under BNS Section 63, 'rape' is defined with certain exceptions. Which of the following situations is explicitly excepted from the definition of rape under Exception 2 to Section 63?
- A. Any act performed in a public place with witnesses present
- B. Sexual intercourse or acts by a man with his own wife, the wife not being under eighteen years of age
- C. Medical procedures or interventions performed by a registered medical practitioner shall not constitute rape
- D. Any act done with implied consent inferred from silence
Answer: Medical procedures or interventions performed by a registered medical practitioner shall not constitute rape
Explanation: Exception 1 to Section 63 BNS (a medical procedure or intervention shall not constitute rape) and Exception 2 (sexual intercourse by a man with his own wife, wife not under eighteen, is not rape) are the two statutory exceptions; the medical-procedure carve-out is a notable clarifying addition. Investigators must know these exceptions precisely when framing charges.
4224. Under BNS Section 340, fraudulently or dishonestly cancelling, destroying or defacing, or attempting to cancel/destroy/deface, any valuable security, or fraudulently or dishonestly removing/obliterating any endorsement on any such security, is treated in the same manner as which offence?
- A. Criminal trespass
- B. Defamation
- C. Forgery of such valuable security
- D. Simple mischief only
Answer: Forgery of such valuable security
Explanation: Section 340 BNS provides that whoever fraudulently or dishonestly cancels, destroys or defaces any valuable security, or removes/obliterates any endorsement thereon, or alters it, shall be deemed to commit forgery of such valuable security — treating destructive tampering with a security instrument on par with actively forging one, since both undermine its evidentiary/transactional integrity.
4225. An SI investigating a railway parcel-office fraud finds that a booking clerk, being a public servant entrusted with property, dishonestly misappropriated railway funds in his official capacity. Under BNS Section 316(3), criminal breach of trust by a public servant, banker, merchant or agent is punishable with imprisonment for life, or imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to how many years, and shall also be liable to fine?
- A. Three years
- B. Five years
- C. Seven years
- D. Ten years
Answer: Ten years
Explanation: Section 316(3) BNS punishes criminal breach of trust by a public servant, or by a banker, merchant, factor, broker, attorney or agent, with imprisonment for life, or imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to ten years, and fine — a significantly enhanced punishment compared to simple criminal breach of trust under Section 316(2), reflecting the aggravating factor of a position of special trust.
4226. Under BNS Section 303(2)(vii), theft committed by a clerk or servant of property in the possession of his master or employer is punishable with imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to how many years?
- A. Seven years
- B. Ten years
- C. Three years
- D. Two years
Answer: Seven years
Explanation: Section 303(2)(vii) BNS punishes theft committed by a clerk or servant of property in possession of his master with imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to seven years and fine — an aggravated form of theft due to the breach of the trust reposed by the employer, relevant in workplace/institutional theft investigations.
4227. Under BNS Section 303(1), theft is defined as the dishonest taking of movable property out of the possession of any person without consent, with intent to permanently or temporarily deprive that person of it. Which key element distinguishes theft from criminal misappropriation under Section 314?
- A. In theft, the property is taken out of another's possession without consent; in criminal misappropriation, the property already lawfully comes into the accused's possession and is later dishonestly converted
- B. In theft, only immovable property is involved; in misappropriation, only movable property is involved
- C. In theft, consent of the owner is obtained by deception; in misappropriation, no deception is ever alleged
- D. In theft, the offender must always use force; in misappropriation, force is never involved
Answer: In theft, the property is taken out of another's possession without consent; in criminal misappropriation, the property already lawfully comes into the accused's possession and is later dishonestly converted
Explanation: The essential distinction: theft (Section 303) requires taking property out of another's possession without consent, whereas criminal misappropriation (Section 314) involves property that has already come into the accused's possession lawfully (e.g., found property, property left by mistake) which is later dishonestly converted to his own use — a critical distinction for correctly framing charges during investigation.
4228. Under BNS Section 3(5) (general explanations chapter), when an offence is committed by several persons in furtherance of the common intention of all, each of such persons is liable for that act in the same manner as if it were done by him alone. This principle is commonly known as which doctrine, carried forward from Section 34 of the IPC?
- A. The doctrine of res gestae
- B. The doctrine of last opportunity
- C. The doctrine of common intention (joint liability)
- D. The doctrine of double jeopardy
Answer: The doctrine of common intention (joint liability)
Explanation: Section 3(5) BNS retains, in near-identical language, the IPC Section 34 principle of common intention: where a criminal act is done by several persons in furtherance of their common intention, each is liable as if he had done the act alone — a doctrine of constructive/joint liability frequently applied in gang-related property and violent crime investigations.
4229. Under BNS Section 61, criminal conspiracy is defined as an agreement between two or more persons to do, or cause to be done, an illegal act or an act which is not illegal by illegal means. However, the proviso to this section requires proof of an overt act in all cases EXCEPT where the agreement is to commit which category of offence?
- A. Where the offence is punishable with fine only
- B. Where the offence involves defamation only
- C. Where the agreement is to commit an offence (in which case mere agreement itself constitutes conspiracy, no overt act needed)
- D. Where the agreement involves fewer than three persons
Answer: Where the agreement is to commit an offence (in which case mere agreement itself constitutes conspiracy, no overt act needed)
Explanation: The proviso to Section 61(1) BNS clarifies that no agreement except an agreement to commit an offence amounts to a criminal conspiracy unless some act besides the agreement is done by one or more parties to such agreement in pursuance thereof — meaning where the object itself is an offence, the bare agreement suffices without needing a further overt act.
4230. Under BNS Section 320, fraudulent removal or concealment of property to prevent distribution among creditors is an offence primarily aimed at protecting whose interest?
- A. The government's tax collection department exclusively
- B. Creditors entitled to distribution of a debtor's property under insolvency or attachment proceedings
- C. The debtor's business competitors
- D. The debtor's immediate family members exclusively
Answer: Creditors entitled to distribution of a debtor's property under insolvency or attachment proceedings
Explanation: Section 320 BNS penalises a debtor's fraudulent removal, concealment, transfer or delivery of property with intent to prevent that property from being distributed among his creditors according to law, protecting creditors' legitimate claims against dishonest evasion — a provision investigators encounter in fraud and cheating-related financial cases.
4231. An RPF SI investigating a case of a person impersonating a Railway Ticket Examiner to extract money from passengers would primarily invoke which BNS offence relating to 'cheating by personation'?
- A. Section 319 BNS (cheating by personation)
- B. Section 267 BNS (adulteration)
- C. Section 205 BNS (wearing garb/carrying token used by a public servant)
- D. Section 204 BNS (personating a public servant)
Answer: Section 319 BNS (cheating by personation)
Explanation: Section 319 BNS defines cheating by personation as pretending to be some other person, or knowingly substituting one person for another, or representing oneself to be a person other than one actually is — squarely covering impersonating a Railway Ticket Examiner to defraud passengers, punishable under Section 318's cheating provisions with enhanced consideration where personation is involved.
4232. Under BNS Section 318(4), cheating and thereby dishonestly inducing the person deceived to deliver any property, or to make, alter or destroy valuable security, is punishable with imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to how many years, along with fine?
- A. Seven years
- B. Three years
- C. Ten years
- D. One year
Answer: Seven years
Explanation: Section 318(4) BNS punishes cheating with dishonest inducement to deliver property or to make/alter/destroy a valuable security with imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to seven years, and fine — reflecting its seriousness relative to simple cheating under Section 318(2), which caps at one year.
4233. Under BNS Section 317, whoever dishonestly receives or retains any stolen property, knowing or having reason to believe the same to be stolen property, commits the offence of 'dishonestly receiving stolen property'. What is the prescribed maximum punishment under sub-section (2)?
- A. Imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to three years, or fine, or both
- B. Fine only, capped at five thousand rupees
- C. Imprisonment for life mandatorily
- D. Simple imprisonment for a term which may extend to fifteen days
Answer: Imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to three years, or fine, or both
Explanation: Section 317(2) BNS punishes dishonestly receiving or retaining stolen property with imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to three years, or fine, or both — a core offence frequently invoked in property-recovery investigations where the accused is not the original thief but a receiver.
4234. During investigation of a chain-snatching gang, an SI wants to invoke BNS Section 309 for 'robbery'. Under this section, theft is 'robbery' if, in order to commit the theft, the offender voluntarily causes or attempts to cause to any person death, hurt, wrongful restraint, or fear of instant death/hurt/wrongful restraint. What additional condition applies when extortion is to be classified as robbery?
- A. The offender must be present at the time of committing the extortion and put the person in fear of instant death, hurt or wrongful restraint, obtaining delivery of the thing extorted then and there
- B. The offender must use a deadly weapon irrespective of presence at the scene
- C. The offence must involve at least two offenders acting in concert at any time
- D. The victim must sustain grievous hurt as a mandatory consequence
Answer: The offender must be present at the time of committing the extortion and put the person in fear of instant death, hurt or wrongful restraint, obtaining delivery of the thing extorted then and there
Explanation: Section 309 BNS provides that extortion is 'robbery' if the offender, at the time of committing extortion, is in the presence of the person put in fear and commits the extortion by putting that person in fear of instant death, hurt or wrongful restraint, and thereby obtains delivery of the thing extorted then and there — presence and instantaneity are the key differentiators from ordinary extortion.
4235. Under BNS Section 113, an act constitutes 'terrorist act' if committed with intent to threaten the unity, integrity, security or economic security of India, or to strike terror among people, by using bombs, dynamite, or other explosive/inflammable substances, or which of the following additional means listed in the section?
- A. Only by physical assault without weapons
- B. Only through defamatory publication in print media
- C. Only via unlicensed money-lending activity
- D. Biological, radioactive, nuclear or other hazardous substances, or by any other means of whatever nature causing or likely to cause death or damage to critical infrastructure
Answer: Biological, radioactive, nuclear or other hazardous substances, or by any other means of whatever nature causing or likely to cause death or damage to critical infrastructure
Explanation: Section 113 BNS, incorporating terrorism as a substantive offence within the general penal code for the first time (previously handled solely under special legislation like UAPA), lists means including firearms, bombs, biological/radioactive/nuclear/hazardous substances, or any other means causing death, injury, property destruction, disruption of essential supplies, or damage to critical infrastructure, done with the specified terrorist intent.
4236. Under BNS Section 112, 'petty organised crime' committed by a group or gang refers to offences of theft, snatching, cheating, unauthorised selling of tickets, unauthorised betting or gambling, selling of examination question papers, or similar criminal acts, and is punishable with imprisonment for a term of not less than how many years?
- A. One year
- B. Two years
- C. Six months
- D. Three years
Answer: One year
Explanation: Section 112 BNS (petty organised crime), another new provision, punishes theft, snatching, cheating, unauthorised ticket sale/betting, examination paper leaks and similar acts committed by a group/gang with imprisonment for a term not less than one year but which may extend to seven years, and fine — targeting organised street-level criminal networks distinct from Section 111's larger syndicates.
4237. Under BNS Section 111, 'organised crime' is defined to include continuing unlawful activity by a person or group acting individually or jointly for material benefit, including which of the following listed acts?
- A. Defamation published in a local newsletter
- B. Simple hurt caused during a sudden quarrel without premeditation
- C. Ordinary theft of a bicycle by a first-time offender
- D. Kidnapping, extortion, contract killing, cyber-crime, trafficking in persons, drugs, weapons or illicit goods, and human trafficking for prostitution or ransom
Answer: Kidnapping, extortion, contract killing, cyber-crime, trafficking in persons, drugs, weapons or illicit goods, and human trafficking for prostitution or ransom
Explanation: Section 111 BNS, a landmark new provision absent from the IPC, defines 'organised crime' to cover continuing unlawful activity including kidnapping, robbery, vehicle theft, extortion, land grabbing, contract killing, economic offences, cyber-crimes with severe consequences, and trafficking in persons/drugs/arms/illicit goods, committed by a syndicate for direct or indirect material benefit.
4238. An accused fraudulently removes and conceals property to prevent it from being taken in execution of a decree. Under BNS Section 316(5), 'criminal breach of trust' related provisions aside, which specific offence under the property chapter covers this act of dishonestly preventing property from being taken in execution?
- A. Robbery under Section 309
- B. Criminal misappropriation under Section 314
- C. Extortion under Section 308
- D. Dishonestly or fraudulently preventing property from being available for the satisfaction of a person's just claims, falling within criminal breach of trust related fraudulent removal provisions
Answer: Dishonestly or fraudulently preventing property from being available for the satisfaction of a person's just claims, falling within criminal breach of trust related fraudulent removal provisions
Explanation: BNS provisions covering fraudulent deeds and dispositions of property (aligned with the erstwhile Section 421 IPC lineage carried into BNS's property/breach-of-trust cluster) penalise dishonestly or fraudulently removing, concealing or delivering property to prevent it from being available to satisfy a decree-holder's or creditor's just claims — a distinct offence-in-fraud rather than theft or robbery, since possession was already lawful.
4239. Under BNS Section 303(2), theft where the value of the property stolen is less than five thousand rupees, and the offender is convicted for the first time, may be punished with community service, provided the property is restored or its value returned to whom?
- A. The investigating officer, as evidence custodian
- B. The magistrate's court registry
- C. The local police station's welfare fund
- D. The owner of the property, upon return or restoration of the stolen property
Answer: The owner of the property, upon return or restoration of the stolen property
Explanation: Section 303(2) BNS (theft, proviso) introduces a reformative option: where the value of stolen property is under five thousand rupees and the offender is a first-time convict, the court may impose community service instead of imprisonment where the property is restored or its value returned to the owner — a notable BNS innovation absent from the IPC.
4240. Under BNS Section 331, house-trespass or house-breaking in order to commit an offence punishable with imprisonment for life is punishable with imprisonment of either description for a term which shall not be less than how many years but may extend to imprisonment for life, along with fine?
- A. Three years
- B. One year
- C. Five years
- D. Seven years
Answer: Three years
Explanation: Section 331 BNS (house-trespass or house-breaking in order to commit offence punishable with imprisonment for life) prescribes imprisonment of either description for a term not less than three years but which may extend to imprisonment for life, together with fine — a significantly enhanced penalty reflecting the grave intended offence.
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