Practice question set with answers. Use deep links to save questions.
5009 questions loaded. Showing page 6 of 63 for fast crawlable revision and deep linking.
401. Who won the 2024 (main) Booker Prize for 'Orbital'?
- A. Percival Everett
- B. Samantha Harvey
- C. Anne Michaels
- D. Paul Lynch
Answer: Samantha Harvey
Explanation: Samantha Harvey's novel set aboard the International Space Station won; Paul Lynch's 'Prophet Song' won in 2023.
402. The 2025 International Booker Prize was won by 'Heart Lamp', a short-story collection originally written in:
- A. Marathi
- B. Malayalam
- C. Tamil
- D. Kannada
Answer: Kannada
Explanation: Banu Mushtaq's work was translated by Deepa Bhasthi, the first Kannada book to win; Geetanjali Shree's 'Tomb of Sand' (Hindi) won in 2022.
403. Which Indian film's song 'Naatu Naatu' won the Best Original Song Oscar at the 95th Academy Awards (March 2023)?
- A. RRR
- B. Pushpa
- C. Kantara
- D. Gangubai Kathiawadi
Answer: RRR
Explanation: The song was composed by M.M. Keeravani with lyrics by Chandrabose; 'The Elephant Whisperers' (Kartiki Gonsalves, Guneet Monga) won Best Documentary Short.
404. The Dadasaheb Phalke Award announced in September 2025 (for 2023) was given to:
- A. Mithun Chakraborty
- B. Rajinikanth
- C. Mohanlal
- D. Waheeda Rehman
Answer: Mohanlal
Explanation: Malayalam actor Mohanlal received the 55th Dadasaheb Phalke Award; Mithun Chakraborty (2022) and Waheeda Rehman (2021) preceded.
405. Vinod Kumar Shukla, Jnanpith winner announced in March 2025, is the first writer from which state to receive the honour?
- A. Jharkhand
- B. Uttarakhand
- C. Chhattisgarh
- D. Madhya Pradesh
Answer: Chhattisgarh
Explanation: Shukla is the first Chhattisgarh writer to get the Jnanpith; his works include 'Naukar ki Kameez' and 'Deewar Mein Ek Khidki Rahti Thi'.
406. The Jnanpith Award for 2023 (58th), announced in February 2024, was shared by:
- A. Amitav Ghosh and Gulzar
- B. Damodar Mauzo and Rambhadracharya
- C. Gulzar and Jagadguru Rambhadracharya
- D. Kedarnath Singh and Gulzar
Answer: Gulzar and Jagadguru Rambhadracharya
Explanation: Urdu poet Gulzar and Sanskrit scholar Rambhadracharya won; the 59th award (2024) went to Hindi writer Vinod Kumar Shukla, announced March 2025.
407. Which five personalities were conferred the Bharat Ratna in 2024?
- A. Karpoori Thakur, Advani, Manmohan Singh, Charan Singh, Swaminathan
- B. Karpoori Thakur, Kanshi Ram, Narasimha Rao, Advani, Swaminathan
- C. Karpoori Thakur, L.K. Advani, P.V. Narasimha Rao, Charan Singh, M.S. Swaminathan
- D. Atal Bihari Vajpayee, Madan Mohan Malaviya, Narasimha Rao, Charan Singh, Swaminathan
Answer: Karpoori Thakur, L.K. Advani, P.V. Narasimha Rao, Charan Singh, M.S. Swaminathan
Explanation: Thakur (Jan), Advani (Feb), and Rao, Charan Singh and Swaminathan (9 Feb 2024) received it; five in one year broke the usual limit of three per year.
408. Who became ICC Chairman on 1 December 2024, as its youngest ever?
- A. Jagmohan Dalmiya
- B. N. Srinivasan
- C. Greg Barclay
- D. Jay Shah
Answer: Jay Shah
Explanation: Jay Shah, formerly BCCI secretary, succeeded Greg Barclay and was elected unopposed.
409. Which team won the 2023-25 ICC World Test Championship final at Lord's in June 2025?
- A. Australia
- B. India
- C. New Zealand
- D. South Africa
Answer: South Africa
Explanation: South Africa beat defending champions Australia by five wickets, with captain Temba Bavuma and Aiden Markram (136) leading the chase; their first ICC title since 1998.
410. R. Ashwin announced retirement from international cricket in December 2024 during a Test series in:
- A. Brisbane (Gabba)
- B. Perth
- C. Melbourne
- D. Adelaide
Answer: Brisbane (Gabba)
Explanation: He announced after the drawn third Test at the Gabba with 537 Test wickets, second-highest by an Indian after Anil Kumble.
411. Sunil Chhetri played his final international match on 6 June 2024 against Kuwait at:
- A. Kanteerava Stadium, Bengaluru
- B. Jawaharlal Nehru Stadium, Delhi
- C. Salt Lake Stadium, Kolkata
- D. Fatorda, Goa
Answer: Salt Lake Stadium, Kolkata
Explanation: The 0-0 World Cup qualifier ended his 19-year career with 94 goals in 151 caps.
412. Rohan Bopanna in January 2024 won the Australian Open men's doubles, becoming the oldest man to win a Grand Slam title. His partner was:
- A. Yuki Bhambri
- B. Marcelo Arevalo
- C. Nicolas Mahut
- D. Matthew Ebden
Answer: Matthew Ebden
Explanation: At 43, Bopanna with Ebden beat Italians Bolelli and Vavassori and also became the oldest world No.1 in doubles.
413. Who won the FIDE Women's World Cup 2025 final in Batumi, beating Koneru Humpy, and became India's 88th Grandmaster?
- A. Vantika Agrawal
- B. R. Vaishali
- C. Divya Deshmukh
- D. Harika Dronavalli
Answer: Divya Deshmukh
Explanation: Divya Deshmukh won the tiebreaks in July 2025 and was awarded the GM title despite not having met norms earlier.
414. India won both the Open and Women's gold at the 45th Chess Olympiad (2024) hosted in:
- A. Budapest
- B. Tromsø
- C. Baku
- D. Chennai
Answer: Budapest
Explanation: It was India's first Open and Women's team double; the 44th Olympiad (2022) was in Mahabalipuram, India.
415. D. Gukesh became the youngest undisputed world chess champion in December 2024 at the age of:
- A. 17
- B. 18
- C. 20
- D. 19
Answer: 18
Explanation: Gukesh beat Ding Liren 7.5-6.5 in the Singapore match on 12 December 2024, winning the 14th game, surpassing Garry Kasparov's record set in 1985.
416. India's Paris 2024 Paralympics medal tally, its best ever, was:
- A. 19 (5 gold, 8 silver, 6 bronze)
- B. 35 (10 gold, 12 silver, 13 bronze)
- C. 29 (7 gold, 9 silver, 13 bronze)
- D. 24 (5 gold, 8 silver, 11 bronze)
Answer: 29 (7 gold, 9 silver, 13 bronze)
Explanation: India finished 18th; the 7 gold included Avani Lekhara, Sumit Antil, Harvinder Singh, Navdeep Singh, Nitesh Kumar, Dharambir and Praveen Kumar.
417. Vinesh Phogat was disqualified from the Paris 2024 final of which weight category for being around 100 g overweight?
- A. Women's freestyle 57 kg
- B. Women's freestyle 62 kg
- C. Women's freestyle 53 kg
- D. Women's freestyle 50 kg
Answer: Women's freestyle 50 kg
Explanation: She had beaten Yui Susaki of Japan in round one; the CAS later rejected her plea for a joint silver medal.
418. Who was the Olympic javelin gold medallist at Paris 2024 with an Olympic record of 92.97 m?
- A. Jakub Vadlejch
- B. Julian Weber
- C. Arshad Nadeem
- D. Anderson Peters
Answer: Arshad Nadeem
Explanation: Pakistan's Arshad Nadeem won gold; Neeraj Chopra's 89.45 m earned silver.
419. At Paris 2024, India's six Olympic medals consisted of:
- A. 6 bronze
- B. 1 silver and 5 bronze
- C. 1 gold, 2 silver, 3 bronze
- D. 2 silver and 4 bronze
Answer: 1 silver and 5 bronze
Explanation: Neeraj Chopra won silver (89.45 m); bronzes by Manu Bhaker (10m air pistol), Manu-Sarabjot (mixed team), Swapnil Kusale (50m rifle 3P), the men's hockey team and Aman Sehrawat.
420. Which Indian won gold in javelin at the Hangzhou Asian Games with a throw of 88.88 m?
- A. DP Manu
- B. Kishore Jena
- C. Neeraj Chopra
- D. Rohit Yadav
Answer: Neeraj Chopra
Explanation: Neeraj Chopra's 88.88 m won gold; Kishore Jena took silver (87.54 m). Neeraj became World Champion in Budapest in August 2023 with 88.17 m.
421. The 2023 Asian Games (held in Hangzhou in Sept-Oct 2023) saw India win a record number of medals. How many?
- A. 107
- B. 70
- C. 95
- D. 118
Answer: 107
Explanation: India's tally was 107 (28 gold, 38 silver, 41 bronze), its best ever, finishing fourth, and crossing 100 for the first time.
422. Who won the inaugural Women's Premier League (WPL) in 2023?
- A. UP Warriorz
- B. Delhi Capitals
- C. Royal Challengers Bangalore
- D. Mumbai Indians
Answer: Mumbai Indians
Explanation: MI beat Delhi Capitals at the Brabourne Stadium under Harmanpreet Kaur; RCB won the 2024 edition with Smriti Mandhana as captain.
423. Which team won the IPL 2024 final, beating Sunrisers Hyderabad at Chennai?
- A. Chennai Super Kings
- B. Rajasthan Royals
- C. Delhi Capitals
- D. Kolkata Knight Riders
Answer: Kolkata Knight Riders
Explanation: KKR won by eight wickets for their third title under captain Shreyas Iyer, with Gautam Gambhir as mentor.
424. Who won the IPL 2025 title, beating Punjab Kings in the final at Ahmedabad?
- A. Mumbai Indians
- B. Royal Challengers Bengaluru
- C. Gujarat Titans
- D. Kolkata Knight Riders
Answer: Royal Challengers Bengaluru
Explanation: RCB won their maiden title by six runs on 3 June 2025; celebrations led to a stampede outside Chinnaswamy Stadium on 4 June that killed 11.
425. India won the 2025 ICC Champions Trophy final against New Zealand at which venue, as part of a hybrid model?
- A. Dubai
- B. Abu Dhabi
- C. Karachi
- D. Lahore
Answer: Dubai
Explanation: India won by four wickets on 9 March 2025 in Dubai, all their matches played in Dubai; it was their third Champions Trophy title.
426. India won the 2024 ICC Men's T20 World Cup by beating South Africa in the final at:
- A. Kensington Oval, Bridgetown
- B. Providence Stadium, Guyana
- C. Eden Gardens, Kolkata
- D. Dubai International Stadium
Answer: Kensington Oval, Bridgetown
Explanation: India won by 7 runs on 29 June 2024 in Barbados; Virat Kohli was Player of the Match, Jasprit Bumrah Player of the Tournament, and Rohit Sharma captain.
427. Which bowler took the most wickets (24) in the 2023 ODI World Cup, playing only 7 matches?
- A. Dilshan Madushanka
- B. Jasprit Bumrah
- C. Mohammed Shami
- D. Adam Zampa
Answer: Mohammed Shami
Explanation: Shami's 7/57 against New Zealand in the semi-final at Wankhede was the best bowling figure in World Cup knockout history.
428. In the 2023 ICC Men's ODI World Cup final at Ahmedabad, Australia beat India by 6 wickets. Who was named Player of the Tournament?
- A. Rohit Sharma
- B. Virat Kohli
- C. Travis Head
- D. Mohammed Shami
Answer: Virat Kohli
Explanation: Kohli scored 765 runs, a World Cup record, including his 50th ODI century in the semi-final; Travis Head (137) was Player of the Match in the final.
429. GST 2.0 reforms effective 22 September 2025 rationalised rates into principal slabs of:
- A. 0% and 12%
- B. 5% and 18% (plus 40% for sin/luxury goods)
- C. 3% and 15%
- D. 12% and 28%
Answer: 5% and 18% (plus 40% for sin/luxury goods)
Explanation: The 56th GST Council meeting (3 September 2025) scrapped the 12% and 28% slabs and exempted individual life and health insurance.
430. The Namo Drone Didi scheme (approved November 2023) provides drones to:
- A. 15,000 women self-help groups for agricultural services
- B. 1 lakh farmer cooperatives
- C. All Anganwadi workers
- D. Village panchayats
Answer: 15,000 women self-help groups for agricultural services
Explanation: With a Rs 1,261 crore outlay for 2024-26, SHGs get drones with 80% subsidy (up to Rs 8 lakh) to offer spraying services.
431. Which Gujarat site was approved in February 2024 for India's first commercial semiconductor fab, a Tata-PSMC (Taiwan) venture?
- A. Gandhinagar
- B. Dholera
- C. Mundra
- D. Sanand
Answer: Dholera
Explanation: The Rs 91,000 crore Dholera fab was cleared on 29 February 2024; Micron's ATMP unit is in Sanand and Tata's OSAT in Jagiroad, Assam.
432. The National Green Hydrogen Mission (January 2023) targets annual production of:
- A. 1 million tonnes by 2025
- B. 5 million metric tonnes by 2030
- C. 20 million tonnes by 2035
- D. 10 million tonnes by 2040
Answer: 5 million metric tonnes by 2030
Explanation: NGHM carries an initial outlay of Rs 19,744 crore and also aims at 125 GW of associated renewable capacity.
433. The IndiaAI Mission approved in March 2024 had an outlay of about:
- A. Rs 6,003 crore
- B. Rs 1,000 crore
- C. Rs 76,000 crore
- D. Rs 10,372 crore
Answer: Rs 10,372 crore
Explanation: Rs 10,371.92 crore over five years funds 10,000+ GPU compute capacity, foundation models and datasets platform AIKosh.
434. The National Quantum Mission (approved April 2023) has a total outlay for 2023-31 of:
- A. Rs 10,372 crore
- B. Rs 19,744 crore
- C. Rs 2,000 crore
- D. Rs 6,003.65 crore
Answer: Rs 6,003.65 crore
Explanation: NQM targets intermediate-scale quantum computers of 50-1000 physical qubits and is administered by the Department of Science and Technology.
435. PM E-DRIVE scheme (October 2024), which succeeded FAME-II, has an outlay of:
- A. Rs 50,000 crore
- B. Rs 10,900 crore
- C. Rs 25,000 crore
- D. Rs 5,000 crore
Answer: Rs 10,900 crore
Explanation: PM Electric Drive Revolution in Innovative Vehicle Enhancement supports e-buses, e-trucks, e-2W/3W and charging infrastructure.
436. PM Vishwakarma scheme, launched on 17 September 2023, offers collateral-free credit in tranches of Rs 1 lakh and Rs 2 lakh at a concessional interest rate of:
- A. 3%
- B. 7%
- C. 9%
- D. 5%
Answer: 5%
Explanation: The scheme covers 18 traditional trades with a Rs 13,000 crore outlay over five years, along with skill training stipend of Rs 500 per day.
437. The Ayushman Vay Vandana card (October 2024) extended Ayushman Bharat PM-JAY cover of Rs 5 lakh to:
- A. All citizens aged 70 and above
- B. All women above 60
- C. Senior citizens above 65 with low income
- D. All government pensioners
Answer: All citizens aged 70 and above
Explanation: Cabinet approval came on 11 September 2024, and the card was rolled out on 29 October 2024 (Dhanteras) irrespective of income.
438. The Unified Pension Scheme (UPS), approved by the Cabinet on 24 August 2024, assures what pension for 25 years of service?
- A. 40% of average of last 24 months
- B. 60% of average of last 36 months
- C. 50% of last drawn pay
- D. 50% of average basic pay of last 12 months
Answer: 50% of average basic pay of last 12 months
Explanation: UPS (effective 1 April 2025) gives assured pension, family pension of 60% and minimum Rs 10,000 per month after 10 years' service.
439. The Interim Budget 2024 announced three major economic railway corridors under PM Gati Shakti. Which of the following was one of them?
- A. Passenger bullet corridors
- B. Pilgrimage corridors
- C. Border security corridors
- D. Port connectivity corridors
Answer: Port connectivity corridors
Explanation: The three corridors were energy, mineral and cement; port connectivity; and high traffic density, to lower logistics cost. 40,000 normal bogies were to be converted to Vande Bharat standard.
440. The Interim Budget of 1 February 2024 announced the PM Surya Ghar Muft Bijli Yojana targeting:
- A. Solar parks in all districts
- B. Rooftop solar for 1 crore households with 300 free units
- C. Free solar pumps for all farmers
- D. Free LED bulbs to 5 crore families
Answer: Rooftop solar for 1 crore households with 300 free units
Explanation: The scheme (launched 13 February 2024) offers subsidy up to Rs 78,000 for a 3 kW system with a Rs 75,021 crore outlay.
441. The Kisan Credit Card loan limit was raised in Budget 2025-26 from Rs 3 lakh to:
- A. Rs 4 lakh
- B. Rs 7 lakh
- C. Rs 10 lakh
- D. Rs 5 lakh
Answer: Rs 5 lakh
Explanation: The enhanced limit applies to loans via modified interest subvention scheme; the Budget also announced PM Dhan-Dhaanya Krishi Yojana for 100 low-productivity districts.
442. Budget 2025-26 launched the Nuclear Energy Mission with outlay of Rs 20,000 crore for developing:
- A. At least 5 indigenously developed Small Modular Reactors by 2033
- B. Ten 1,000 MW imported reactors
- C. A new thorium breeder at Kalpakkam only
- D. Fusion research reactor
Answer: At least 5 indigenously developed Small Modular Reactors by 2033
Explanation: The mission supports the goal of 100 GW nuclear capacity by 2047 and Bharat Small Reactors.
443. Budget 2025-26 (1 February 2025) set the fiscal deficit target for 2025-26 at:
- A. 4.4% of GDP
- B. 5.1% of GDP
- C. 4.9% of GDP
- D. 3.9% of GDP
Answer: 4.4% of GDP
Explanation: FY26 fiscal deficit was targeted at 4.4%, with FY25 revised at 4.8%. The 2024-25 budget estimate had been 4.9%.
444. Which tax change did the July 2024 Budget make to Long-Term Capital Gains on listed equity?
- A. Raised from 15% to 20%
- B. Abolished entirely
- C. Raised from 10% to 12.5%, with exemption limit Rs 1.25 lakh
- D. Reduced from 10% to 5%
Answer: Raised from 10% to 12.5%, with exemption limit Rs 1.25 lakh
Explanation: LTCG was raised to 12.5% (exemption Rs 1.25 lakh) and STCG to 20%; angel tax was abolished and indexation withdrawn for property.
445. The July 2024 Union Budget (FM Nirmala Sitharaman's 7th consecutive) introduced which scheme offering Rs 5,000 monthly allowance to youth in top 500 companies?
- A. PM Internship Scheme
- B. Employment Linked Incentive Part C
- C. Skill India Digital Fellowship
- D. PM Kaushal Vikas Yojana 4.0
Answer: PM Internship Scheme
Explanation: The internship scheme targets one crore youth over five years with Rs 5,000 per month plus a one-time Rs 6,000 grant.
446. The rebate under section 87A in the new tax regime was raised to Rs 7 lakh in which Budget?
- A. Budget 2022-23
- B. Interim Budget 2024
- C. Budget 2023-24
- D. Budget 2024-25 (July)
Answer: Budget 2023-24
Explanation: From FY 2023-24, the new regime became default, with no tax up to Rs 7 lakh income; Budget 2025-26 raised that to Rs 12 lakh.
447. Budget 2023-24 provided the highest-ever capital outlay for the Railways of:
- A. Rs 3.10 lakh crore
- B. Rs 1.10 lakh crore
- C. Rs 1.40 lakh crore
- D. Rs 2.40 lakh crore
Answer: Rs 2.40 lakh crore
Explanation: The Rs 2.40 lakh crore outlay was about nine times that of 2013-14; overall capex was Rs 10 lakh crore (3.3% of GDP).
448. Union Budget 2023-24 described its seven priorities as 'Saptarishi'. Which of the following was NOT among them?
- A. Reaching the last mile
- B. Nuclear power expansion mission
- C. Green growth
- D. Inclusive development
Answer: Nuclear power expansion mission
Explanation: The seven were inclusive development, reaching the last mile, infrastructure and investment, unleashing the potential, green growth, youth power and financial sector. Nuclear mission came in Budget 2025-26.
449. The Jammu and Kashmir Reorganisation (Amendment) Act, 2023 increased the number of Assembly seats from 107 to:
- A. 114
- B. 111
- C. 120
- D. 90
Answer: 114
Explanation: 114 seats include 24 reserved for PoK; the elected strength is 90 (43 Jammu, 47 Kashmir). Two Kashmiri migrant and one PoK-displaced member can be nominated.
450. The Government of NCT of Delhi (Amendment) Act, 2023 was enacted to override which Supreme Court ruling of 11 May 2023?
- A. Delhi Jal Board funding
- B. Control over 'services' in Delhi vested with the elected government
- C. Status of Delhi Police
- D. Delhi's statehood demand
Answer: Control over 'services' in Delhi vested with the elected government
Explanation: A Constitution Bench held the Delhi government controls services (except police, public order, land); the Act created the National Capital Civil Service Authority.
451. Who became India's 26th Chief Election Commissioner on 19 February 2025?
- A. Arun Goel
- B. Rajiv Kumar
- C. Gyanesh Kumar
- D. Sukhbir Singh Sandhu
Answer: Gyanesh Kumar
Explanation: Gyanesh Kumar, ex-Cooperation Secretary, became CEC after Rajiv Kumar; he and Sukhbir Singh Sandhu had been appointed Election Commissioners in March 2024.
452. The Chief Election Commissioner and Other Election Commissioners (Appointment, Conditions of Service and Term of Office) Act, 2023 changed the selection committee by replacing the CJI with:
- A. The Vice-President
- B. The Attorney General
- C. A Union Cabinet Minister nominated by the Prime Minister
- D. The Speaker of Lok Sabha
Answer: A Union Cabinet Minister nominated by the Prime Minister
Explanation: The panel became PM, Leader of Opposition and a Cabinet Minister, overriding the Anoop Baranwal (March 2023) interim arrangement that included the CJI.
453. The Online Gaming (Promotion and Regulation) Act, 2025 primarily prohibits:
- A. All esports tournaments
- B. Online money games, including real-money fantasy and poker
- C. Foreign gaming apps in general
- D. Mobile games for children under 16
Answer: Online money games, including real-money fantasy and poker
Explanation: Passed in August 2025, it bans online money games and their advertisement/payments while promoting esports and social games.
454. The Bharatiya Vayuyan Adhiniyam, 2024 replaced:
- A. The Aircraft (Security) Act, 1982
- B. The Aircraft Act, 1934
- C. The Airports Authority of India Act, 1994
- D. The Carriage by Air Act, 1972
Answer: The Aircraft Act, 1934
Explanation: The 2024 law, passed in the Winter session of December 2024, replaced the 90-year-old Aircraft Act 1934.
455. The Public Examinations (Prevention of Unfair Means) Act, 2024 provides a maximum fine of:
- A. Rs 50 crore
- B. Rs 1 crore for organised cheating and service providers
- C. Rs 10 lakh
- D. Rs 5 lakh
Answer: Rs 1 crore for organised cheating and service providers
Explanation: The Act (notified June 2024) prescribes 3-5 years' imprisonment for cheating and up to 10 years plus fine up to Rs 1 crore for organised crime.
456. The Telecommunications Act, 2023 replaced which colonial-era law?
- A. Telegraph Wires (Unlawful Possession) Act, 1950
- B. Indian Post Office Act, 1898
- C. Indian Wireless Telegraphy Act, 1933
- D. Indian Telegraph Act, 1885
Answer: Indian Telegraph Act, 1885
Explanation: The 2023 Act repealed the Indian Telegraph Act 1885 and Indian Wireless Telegraphy Act 1933; spectrum assigned administratively for satellite services.
457. The Digital Personal Data Protection Act, 2023 received Presidential assent on:
- A. 1 July 2024
- B. 25 December 2023
- C. 11 August 2023
- D. 29 September 2023
Answer: 11 August 2023
Explanation: The DPDP Act, 2023 creates a Data Protection Board of India and defines 'Data Fiduciary' and 'Data Principal'; its Rules were notified in November 2025.
458. The Waqf (Amendment) Act, 2025 renamed the principal Act as:
- A. Bharatiya Waqf Sanhita
- B. Waqf Properties Regulation Act
- C. Waqf Trust Reform Act
- D. Unified Waqf Management, Empowerment, Efficiency and Development (UMEED) Act, 1995
Answer: Unified Waqf Management, Empowerment, Efficiency and Development (UMEED) Act, 1995
Explanation: The Act, assented to on 5 April 2025 after Lok Sabha (288-232) and Rajya Sabha (128-95) votes, abolished 'waqf by user' prospectively and allowed non-Muslim members in boards.
459. Who served as the 51st Chief Justice of India from 11 November 2024 to 13 May 2025?
- A. Sanjiv Khanna
- B. N.V. Ramana
- C. U.U. Lalit
- D. D.Y. Chandrachud
Answer: Sanjiv Khanna
Explanation: Justice Sanjiv Khanna succeeded D.Y. Chandrachud (50th CJI, 9 Nov 2022 - 10 Nov 2024).
460. B.R. Gavai, who became the 52nd Chief Justice of India on 14 May 2025, is notable as:
- A. The first CJI from the Northeast
- B. The first woman CJI
- C. The first CJI from the Bar elevated directly
- D. The first Buddhist CJI
Answer: The first Buddhist CJI
Explanation: Justice Gavai is the first Buddhist and the second Dalit CJI after K.G. Balakrishnan; Justice Surya Kant succeeded him on 24 November 2025.
461. In the Presidential Reference opinion delivered in November 2025, the Supreme Court held that courts cannot:
- A. Impose fixed timelines or 'deemed assent' on governors and the President
- B. Interpret Article 200
- C. Hear writs against the Governor
- D. Review any bill passed by a state legislature
Answer: Impose fixed timelines or 'deemed assent' on governors and the President
Explanation: A five-judge bench led by CJI B.R. Gavai held that deemed assent is untenable though prolonged inaction can attract limited judicial review.
462. In Tamil Nadu Governor case (8 April 2025), the Supreme Court used Article 142 to declare that ten bills held by the Governor were:
- A. Subject to a referendum
- B. Deemed to have received assent
- C. Referred to the President permanently
- D. Void and returned to the legislature
Answer: Deemed to have received assent
Explanation: A bench of Justices J.B. Pardiwala and R. Mahadevan set a three-month timeline for governors and President; a Presidential Reference under Article 143 followed in May 2025.
463. The Supreme Court on 17 October 2024 upheld the validity of Section 6A of the Citizenship Act, 1955, which relates to:
- A. Citizenship for migrants entering Assam between 1966 and 25 March 1971
- B. Loss of citizenship for dual nationality
- C. Overseas Citizen of India registration
- D. Citizenship by naturalisation after 12 years
Answer: Citizenship for migrants entering Assam between 1966 and 25 March 1971
Explanation: Section 6A, inserted after the 1985 Assam Accord, was upheld 4:1 (Justice J.B. Pardiwala dissenting); 25 March 1971 is the cut-off.
464. In Sita Soren v. Union of India (4 March 2024), a seven-judge bench overruled which earlier judgment on legislators' immunity for bribery?
- A. Kesavananda Bharati (1973)
- B. Kihoto Hollohan (1992)
- C. P.V. Narasimha Rao v. State (1998)
- D. S.R. Bommai (1994)
Answer: P.V. Narasimha Rao v. State (1998)
Explanation: The Court held that MPs/MLAs cannot claim immunity under Articles 105(2)/194(2) for taking a bribe to vote or speak in the House.
465. State of Punjab v. Davinder Singh (1 August 2024) held that States may:
- A. Extend reservation beyond 50 percent
- B. Sub-classify Scheduled Castes for reservation
- C. Abolish the creamy layer for OBCs
- D. Reserve seats in the judiciary
Answer: Sub-classify Scheduled Castes for reservation
Explanation: A seven-judge bench (6:1, Justice Bela Trivedi dissenting) overruled E.V. Chinnaiah (2004) and allowed sub-classification, subject to empirical data; it also urged creamy layer exclusion.
466. In Supriyo v. Union of India (17 October 2023), the Supreme Court:
- A. Struck down the Special Marriage Act
- B. Declined to recognise a right to same-sex marriage under the Special Marriage Act
- C. Legalised same-sex marriage
- D. Directed Parliament to enact a law within a year
Answer: Declined to recognise a right to same-sex marriage under the Special Marriage Act
Explanation: The five-judge bench said there is no fundamental right to marry and that legislating is for Parliament, while accepting that the Union would form a committee on rights of queer couples.
467. In December 2023, a five-judge Constitution Bench of the Supreme Court upheld the abrogation of Article 370. It also directed that assembly elections in J&K be held by:
- A. 31 December 2024
- B. 15 August 2024
- C. 30 September 2024
- D. 31 March 2024
Answer: 30 September 2024
Explanation: The 11 December 2023 judgment (In re: Article 370) directed the ECI to hold elections by 30 September 2024 and statehood to be restored 'at the earliest'. Elections were held in three phases in September-October 2024.
468. The Supreme Court on 15 February 2024 struck down the Electoral Bond Scheme as violating:
- A. Article 32 only
- B. Article 21A
- C. Article 19(1)(a) – voters' right to information
- D. Article 324(1) only
Answer: Article 19(1)(a) – voters' right to information
Explanation: A five-judge bench led by CJI Chandrachud unanimously held the scheme (2018) unconstitutional and ordered SBI to disclose donor details to the ECI.
469. The new Parliament building has a Lok Sabha chamber seating up to:
- A. 888
- B. 790
- C. 1,272
- D. 543
Answer: 888
Explanation: The new Lok Sabha hall seats 888 and Rajya Sabha 384; the joint sitting capacity is 1,272.
470. The new Parliament building was inaugurated on 28 May 2023. Which historic sceptre was installed near the Speaker's chair?
- A. Vajra
- B. Chakra Danda
- C. Sengol
- D. Rajadanda of Vijayanagara
Answer: Sengol
Explanation: The Sengol, a Chola-tradition sceptre linked to the 1947 transfer of power, was installed; the building was designed by HCP Design (Bimal Patel) and built by Tata Projects.
471. The Nari Shakti Vandan Adhiniyam, 2023 was enacted as which Constitution Amendment Act?
- A. 103rd
- B. 108th
- C. 104th
- D. 106th
Answer: 106th
Explanation: It was introduced as the 128th Amendment Bill, passed by Lok Sabha 454-2 and Rajya Sabha 214-0 in September 2023, and reserves one-third seats for women, effective after delimitation.
472. The 2024 Nobel Prize in Literature went to Han Kang. She is from:
- A. Japan
- B. Taiwan
- C. China
- D. South Korea
Answer: South Korea
Explanation: Han Kang, author of 'The Vegetarian', became the first South Korean Nobel laureate in literature; 2023 went to Jon Fosse (Norway) and 2025 to Laszlo Krasznahorkai (Hungary).
473. The 2025 Nobel Prize in Economic Sciences was shared among Joel Mokyr, Philippe Aghion and Peter Howitt for explaining:
- A. Women's labour market outcomes
- B. Innovation-driven economic growth
- C. Labour market search frictions
- D. Institutions and prosperity
Answer: Innovation-driven economic growth
Explanation: They were honoured for explaining innovation-driven economic growth ('creative destruction'). Acemoglu, Johnson and Robinson won in 2024 for institutions; Claudia Goldin in 2023.
474. The 2024 Nobel Prize in Physiology or Medicine (Victor Ambros and Gary Ruvkun) recognised the discovery of:
- A. Peripheral immune tolerance
- B. microRNA and its role in gene regulation
- C. Hepatitis C virus
- D. mRNA vaccine base modifications
Answer: microRNA and its role in gene regulation
Explanation: Ambros and Ruvkun discovered microRNA in C. elegans; Karikó and Weissman won in 2023 for nucleoside base modifications enabling mRNA vaccines.
475. The 2024 Nobel Prize in Chemistry (Baker, Hassabis, Jumper) was for:
- A. Click chemistry
- B. CRISPR gene editing
- C. Quantum dots
- D. Computational protein design and protein structure prediction
Answer: Computational protein design and protein structure prediction
Explanation: David Baker won for computational protein design; Demis Hassabis and John Jumper for AlphaFold2 structure prediction. Quantum dots won in 2023.
476. The 2024 Nobel Prize in Physics was awarded to John Hopfield and Geoffrey Hinton for work on:
- A. Gravitational waves
- B. Quantum entanglement experiments
- C. Attosecond pulses
- D. Foundational discoveries enabling machine learning with artificial neural networks
Answer: Foundational discoveries enabling machine learning with artificial neural networks
Explanation: Hopfield and Hinton received it for foundational work on artificial neural networks; attosecond pulses won the 2023 physics prize.
477. The 2025 Nobel Peace Prize went to:
- A. Yulia Navalnaya
- B. Greta Thunberg
- C. Donald Trump
- D. Maria Corina Machado
Answer: Maria Corina Machado
Explanation: Venezuela's opposition leader Maria Corina Machado was honoured for promoting democratic rights and a just transition from dictatorship.
478. The 2023 Nobel Peace Prize was awarded to:
- A. Yulia Navalnaya
- B. Ales Bialiatski
- C. Maria Ressa
- D. Narges Mohammadi
Answer: Narges Mohammadi
Explanation: Narges Mohammadi, jailed Iranian activist, won for fighting the oppression of women in Iran; Bialiatski co-won in 2022.
479. Which Nobel Peace Prize 2024 laureate organisation represents survivors of the Hiroshima and Nagasaki bombings?
- A. Mayors for Peace
- B. OPCW
- C. ICAN
- D. Nihon Hidankyo
Answer: Nihon Hidankyo
Explanation: Nihon Hidankyo won the 2024 Nobel Peace Prize for efforts towards a nuclear-weapon-free world; ICAN won in 2017.
480. The first global AI Safety Summit (November 2023) was held at which venue?
- A. Geneva, Switzerland
- B. Palo Alto, USA
- C. Bletchley Park, UK
- D. Seoul, South Korea
Answer: Bletchley Park, UK
Explanation: The Bletchley Declaration was signed by 28 countries and the EU, including India, recognising frontier-AI risks.
IUC AcademyHome